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Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) Question and Answers

Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR)

Last Update Apr 25, 2024
Total Questions : 843

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Questions 1

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must save the configuration of router R2 using the NETCONF protocol. Which script must be used?

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 2

Which QoS feature uses the IP Precedence bits in the ToS field of the IP packet header to partition traffic into different priority levels?

Options:

A.  

marking

B.  

shaping

C.  

policing

D.  

classification

Discussion 0
Questions 3

Reler to the exhibit The EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2 is not operational. Which a coon will resolve the issue?

Options:

A.  

Configure channel-group 1 mode active on GVO and G1 1 of SW2.

B.  

Configure twitchport trunk encapsulation dot1q on SW1 and SW2.

C.  

Configure channel-group 1 mode active on Gl'O and GM of SW1 .

D.  

Configure switchport mode dynamic desirable on SW1 and SW2

Discussion 0
Questions 4

Simulation 05

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 5

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 has a BGP neighborship with a directly connected router on interface Gi0/0.

Which command set is applied between the iterations of show ip bgp 2.2.2.2?

Options:

A.  

R1(config)#router bgp 65001

R1(config-router)#neighbor 192.168.50.2 shutdown

B.  

R1(config)#router bgp 65002

R1(config-router)#neighbor 192.168.50.2 shutdown

C.  

R1(config)#no ip route 192.168.50.2 255.255.255.255 Gi0/0

D.  

R1(config)#ip route 2.2.2.2 255.255.255.255 192.168.50.2

Discussion 0
Questions 6

Which of the following are examples of Type 2 hypervisors? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.  

VMware ESXi

B.  

Oracle VirtualBox

C.  

Oracle Solaris Zones

D.  

Microsoft Hyper-V

E.  

Microsoft Virtual PC

Discussion 0
Questions 7

By default, which virtual MAC address does HSRP group 22 use?

Options:

A.  

c0:42:01:67:05:16

B.  

c0:07:0c:ac:00:22

C.  

00:00:0c:07:ac:16

D.  

00:00:0c:07:ac:22

Discussion 0
Questions 8

Which device is responsible for finding EID-to-RLOC mappings when traffic is sent to a LISP-capable site?

Options:

A.  

map server

B.  

map resolver

C.  

ingress tunnel router

D.  

egress tunnel router

Discussion 0
Questions 9

Refer to the exhibit What does this Python script do?

Options:

A.  

enters the RAOIUS username for a specific IP address

B.  

writes the username for a specific IP address into a light database

C.  

enters the TACACS* username for a specific IP address

D.  

reads the username for a specific IP address from a light database

Discussion 0
Questions 10

Refer to the exhibit.

Both controllers are in the same mobility group. Which result occurs when client 1 roams between APs that are registered to different controllers in the same WLAN?

Options:

A.  

Client 1 contact controller B by using an EoIP tunnel.

B.  

CAPWAP tunnel is created between controller A and controller

B.  

C.  

Client 1 users an EoIP tunnel to contact controller A.

D.  

The client database entry moves from controller A to controller B.

Discussion 0
Questions 11

An engineer must use flexible NetFlow on a group of switches. To prevent overloading of the flow collector, if the flow is idle for 20 seconds, the flow sample should be exported. Which command set should be applied?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 12

How does Protocol Independent Multicast function?

Options:

A.  

In sparse mode, it establishes neighbor adjacencies and sends hello messages at 5-second intervals.

B.  

It uses the multicast routing table to perform the multicast forwarding function.

C.  

It uses unicast routing information to perform the multicast forwarding function.

D.  

It uses broadcast routing information to perform the multicast forwarding function.

Discussion 0
Questions 13

If AP power level is increased from 25 mW to 100 mW. what is the power difference in dBm?

Options:

A.  

6 dBm

B.  

14 dBm

C.  

17 dBm

D.  

20 dBm

Discussion 0
Questions 14

High bandwidth utilization is occurring on interface Gig0/1 of a router. An engineer must identify the flows that are consuming the most bandwidth. Cisco DNA Center is used as a flow exporter and is configured with the IP address 192.168.23.1 and UDP port 23000. Which configuration must be applied to set NetFlow data export and capture on the router?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 15

What are two characteristics of Cisco SD-Access elements? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

The border node is required for communication between fabric and nonfabric devices.

B.  

Traffic within the fabric always goes through the control plane node.

C.  

Fabric endpoints are connected directly to the border node.

D.  

The control plane node has the full RLOC-to-EID mapping database.

E.  

The border node has the full RLOC-to-EID mapping database.

Discussion 0
Questions 16

Which configuration filters out DOT1X messages in the format shown below from being sent toward Syslog server 10.15.20.33?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 17

Where in Cisco DNA Center is documentation of each API call, organized by its functional area?

Options:

A.  

Developer Toolkit

B.  

platform management

C.  

platform bundles

D.  

Runtime Dashboard

Discussion 0
Questions 18

Which of the following protocols has a default administrative distance value of 90?

Options:

A.  

RIP

B.  

EIGRP

C.  

OSPF

D.  

BGP

Discussion 0
Questions 19

What is a benefit of YANG modules?

Options:

A.  

tightly coupled models with encoding to improve performance

B.  

easier multivendor interoperability provided by common or industry models

C.  

avoidance of ecosystem fragmentation by having fixed that cannot be changed

D.  

single protocol and model couple to simplify maintenance and supported

Discussion 0
Questions 20

Which mobility role is assigned to a client in the client table of the new controller after a Layer 3 roam?

Options:

A.  

anchor

B.  

foreign

C.  

mobility

D.  

transparent

Discussion 0
Questions 21

An engineer is configuring RADIUS-Based Authentication with EAP. MS-CHAPv2 is configured on a client device. Which outer method protocol must be configured on the ISE to support this authentication type?

Options:

A.  

EAP-TLS

B.  

EAP-FAST

C.  

LDAP

D.  

PEAP

Discussion 0
Questions 22

How is traffic classified when using Cisco TrustSec technology?

Options:

A.  

with the VLAN

B.  

with the MAC address

C.  

with the IP address

D.  

with the security group tag

Discussion 0
Questions 23

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration enables fallback to local authentication and authorization when no TACACS+ server is available?

Options:

A.  

Router(config)# aaa authentication login default local Router(config)# aaa authorization exec default local

B.  

Router(config)# aaa authentication login default group tacacs+ local Router(config)# aaa authorization exec default group tacacs+ local

C.  

Router(config)# aaa fallback local

D.  

Router(config)# aaa authentication login FALLBACK local Router(config)# aaa authorization exec FALLBACK local

Discussion 0
Questions 24

What is a characteristic of the Cisco DMA Center Template Editor feature?

Options:

A.  

It facilitates software upgrades lo network devices from a central point.

B.  

It facilitates a vulnerability assessment of the network devices.

C.  

It provides a high-level overview of the health of every network device.

D.  

It uses a predefined configuration through parameterized elements or variables.

Discussion 0
Questions 25

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco IOS routers R1 and R2 are interconnected using interface Gi0/0. Which configuration allows R1 and R2 to form an OSPF neighborship on interface Gi0/0?

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 26

Refer to the exhibit. Which command set completes the ERSPAN session configuration?

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 27

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer attempts to configure standby group 512 on interface GigabitEthernet0/1, but the configuration is not accepted. Which command resolves this problem?

Options:

A.  

standby version 2

B.  

standby 512 preempt

C.  

standby redirects

D.  

standby 512 priority 100

Discussion 0
Questions 28

A VoIP phone is plugged in to a port but cannot receive calls. Which of the following needs to be done on the port to address the issue?

Options:

A.  

Trunk all VLANs on the port.

B.  

Configure the native VLAN.

C.  

Tag the traffic to voice VLAN.

D.  

Disable VLANs.

Discussion 0
Questions 29

Which router is elected the IGMP Querier when more than one router is in the same LAN segment?

Options:

A.  

The router with the shortest uptime

B.  

The router with the lowest IP address

C.  

The router with the highest IP address

D.  

The router with the longest uptime

Discussion 0
Questions 30

An engineer applies this configuration to router R1. How does R1 respond when the user ‘cisco’ logs in?

Options:

A.  

It displays the startup config and then permits the user to execute commands

B.  

It places the user into EXEC mode and permits the user to execute any command

C.  

It displays the startup config and then terminates the session.

D.  

It places the user into EXEC mode but permits the user to execute only the show startup-config command

Discussion 0
Questions 31

What is a characteristic of a traditional WAN?

Options:

A.  

low complexity and high overall solution scale

B.  

centralized reachability, security, and application policies

C.  

operates over DTLS and TLS authenticated and secured tunnels

D.  

united data plane and control plane

Discussion 0
Questions 32

A company hires a network architect to design a new OTT wireless solution within a Cisco SD-Access Fabric wired network. The architect wants to register access points to the WLC to centrally switch the traffic. Which AP mode must the design include?

Options:

A.  

Bridge

B.  

Fabric

C.  

FlexConnect

D.  

local

Discussion 0
Questions 33

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must protect the CPU of the router from high rates of NTP, SNMP, and SSH traffic. Which two configurations must be applied to drop these types of traffic when it continuously exceeds 320 kbps? (Choose two)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

E.  

Option E

Discussion 0
Questions 34

An engineer is connected to a Cisco router through a Telnet session. Which command must be issued to view the logging messages from the current session as soon as they are generated by the router?

Options:

A.  

logging buffer

B.  

service timestamps log uptime

C.  

logging host

D.  

terminal monitor

Discussion 0
Questions 35

What does the number in an NTP stratum level represent?

Options:

A.  

The number of hops it takes to reach the master time server.

B.  

The number of hops it takes to reach the authoritative time source.

C.  

The amount of offset between the device clock and true time.

D.  

The amount of drift between the device clock and true time.

Discussion 0
Questions 36

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must block Telnet traffic from hosts in the range of 10.100 2.248 to 10.100.2 255 to the network 10.100.3.0 and permit everything else. Which configuration must the engineer apply'?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 37

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left to the table types on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 38

What is used to validate the authenticity of the client and is sent in HTTP requests as a JSON object?

Options:

A.  

SSH

B.  

HTTPS

C.  

JWT

D.  

TLS

Discussion 0
Questions 39

Refer to the exhibit.

Object tracking has been configured for VRRP-enabled routers Edge-01 and Edge-02 Which commands cause Edge-02 to preempt Edge-01 in the event that interface G0/0 goes down on Edge-01?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 40

By default, which virtual MAC address Goes HSRP group 25 use?

Options:

A.  

05:5c:5e:ac:0c:25

B.  

04:16:6S:96:1C:19

C.  

00:00:0c:07:ac:19

D.  

00:00:0c:07:ac:25

Discussion 0
Questions 41

What is the purpose of an RP in PIM?

Options:

A.  

send join messages toward a multicast source SPT

B.  

ensure the shortest path from the multicast source to the receiver

C.  

receive IGMP joins from multicast receivers

D.  

secure the communication channel between the multicast sender and receiver

Discussion 0
Questions 42

Which definition describes JWT in regard to REST API security?

Options:

A.  

an encrypted JSON token that is used for authentication

B.  

an encrypted JSON token that is used for authorization

C.  

an encoded JSON token that is used to securely exchange information

D.  

an encoded JSON token that is used for authentication

Discussion 0
Questions 43

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of introducing the sampler feature into the Flexible NetFlow configuration on the router?

Options:

A.  

NetFlow updates to the collector are sent 50% less frequently.

B.  

Every second IPv4 packet is forwarded to the collector for inspection.

C.  

CPU and memory utilization are reduced when compared with what is required for full NetFlow.

D.  

The resolution of sampling data increases, but it requires more performance from the router.

Discussion 0
Questions 44

Drag and drop the automation characteristics from the left onto the appropriate tools on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 45

What is an emulated machine that has dedicated compute memory, and storage resources and a fully installed operating system?

Options:

A.  

Container

B.  

Mainframe

C.  

Host

D.  

virtual machine

Discussion 0
Questions 46

Which VXLAN component is used to encapsulate and decapsulate Ethernet frames?

Options:

A.  

VNI

B.  

GRE

C.  

VTEP

D.  

EVPN

Discussion 0
Questions 47

A Cisco DNA Center REST API sends a PUT to the /dna/intent/api/v1/network-device endpoint A response code of 504 is received What does the code indicate?

Options:

A.  

The response timed out based on a configured interval

B.  

The user does not have authorization to access this endpoint.

C.  

The username and password are not correct

D.  

The web server is not available

Discussion 0
Questions 48

What is a characteristics of a vSwitch?

Options:

A.  

supports advanced Layer 3 routing protocols that are not offered by a hardware switch

B.  

enables VMs to communicate with each other within a virtualized server

C.  

has higher performance than a hardware switch

D.  

operates as a hub and broadcasts the traffic toward all the vPorts

Discussion 0
Questions 49

Drag and drop the LISP components on the left to their descriptions on the right. Not all options are used.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 50

By default, which virtual MAC address does HSRP group 14 use?

Options:

A.  

04.16.19.09.4c.0e

B.  

00:05:5e:19:0c:14

C.  

00:05:0c:07:ac:14

D.  

00:00:0c:07:ac:0e

Discussion 0
Questions 51

A network engineer is configuring OSPF on a router. The engineer wants to prevent having a route to 177.16.0.0/16 learned via OSPF. In the routing table and configures a prefix list using the command ip prefix-list OFFICE seq S deny 172.16.0.0/16. Winch two identical configuration commands must be applied to accomplish the goal? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

distribute-list prefix OFFICE in under the OSPF process

B.  

Ip prefix-list OFFICE seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 Ie 32

C.  

ip prefix-list OFFICE seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 ge 32

D.  

distribute-list OFFICE out under the OSPF process

E.  

distribute-list OFFICE in under the OSPF process

Discussion 0
Questions 52

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configures routing between all routers and must build a configuration to connect R1 to R3 via a GRE tunnel Which configuration must be applied?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option

B.  

Option

C.  

Option

D.  

Option

Discussion 0
Questions 53

An engineer must configure an EXEC authorization list that first checks a AAA server then a local username. If both methods fail, the user is denied. Which configuration should be applied?

Options:

A.  

aaa authorization exec default local group tacacs+

B.  

aaa authorization exec default local group radius none

C.  

aaa authorization exec default group radius local none

D.  

aaa authorization exec default group radius local

Discussion 0
Questions 54

How do EIGRP metrics compare to OSPF metrics?

Options:

A.  

EIGRP metrics are based on a combination of bandwidth and packet loss, and OSPF metrics are based on interface bandwidth.

B.  

EIGRP uses the Dijkstra algorithm, and OSPF uses The DUAL algorithm

C.  

The EIGRP administrative distance for external routes is 170. and the OSPF administrative distance for external routes is undefined

D.  

The EIGRP administrative distance for external routes is 170. and the OSPF administrative distance for external routes is 110

Discussion 0
Questions 55

Drag and drop the LIPS components on the left to the correct description on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 56

A system must validate access rights to all its resources and must not rely on a cached permission matrix. If the access level to a given resource is revoked but is not reflected in the permission matrix, the security is violated. Which term refers to this REST security design principle?

Options:

A.  

economy of mechanism

B.  

complete mediation

C.  

separation of privilege

D.  

least common mechanism

Discussion 0
Questions 57

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must be notified when a user switches to configuration mode. Which script should be applied to receive an SNMP trap and a critical-level log message?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option

B.  

Option

C.  

Option

D.  

Option

Discussion 0
Questions 58

A company requires a wireless solution to support its mam office and multiple branch locations. All sites have local Internet connections and a link to the main office lor corporate connectivity. The branch offices are managed centrally. Which solution should the company choose?

Options:

A.  

Cisco United Wireless Network

B.  

Cisco DNA Spaces

C.  

Cisco Catalyst switch with embedded controller

D.  

Cisco Mobility Express

Discussion 0
Questions 59

An engineer must configure a new loopback Interface on a router and advertise the interface as a fa4 in OSPF. Which command set accomplishes this task?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 60

Refer to the exhibit.

The port channel between the switches does not work as expected. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.  

Interface Gi0/0 on Switch2 must be configured as passive.

B.  

Interface Gi0/1 on Switch1 must be configured as desirable.

C.  

interface Gi0/1 on Switch2 must be configured as active.

D.  

Trucking must be enabled on both Interfaces on Switch2.

Discussion 0
Questions 61

Which two Cisco SD-Access components provide communication between traditional network elements and controller layer? (choose two)

Options:

A.  

network data platform

B.  

network underlay

C.  

fabric overlay

D.  

network control platform

E.  

partner ecosystem

Discussion 0
Questions 62

Which configuration creates a CoPP policy that provides unlimited SSH access from dient 10.0.0.5 and denies access from all other SSH clients'?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 63

What is a characteristic of a Type I hypervisor?

Options:

A.  

It is installed on an operating system and supports other operating systems above it.

B.  

It is referred to as a hosted hypervisor.

C.  

Problems in the base operating system can affect the entire system.

D.  

It is completely independent of the operating system.

Discussion 0
Questions 64

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must set up connectivity between a campus aggregation layer and a branch office access layer. The engineer uses dynamic trunking protocol to establish this connection, however, management traffic on VLAN1 is not passing. Which action resolves the issue and allow communication for all configured VLANs?

Options:

A.  

Allow all VLANs on the trunk links

B.  

Disable Spanning Tree for the native VLAN.

C.  

Configure the correct native VLAN on the remote interface

D.  

Change both interfaces to access ports.

Discussion 0
Questions 65

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the infrastructure deployment models on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 66

In a Cisco StackWise Virtual environment, which planes are virtually combined in the common logical switch?

Options:

A.  

control, and forwarding

B.  

management and data

C.  

control and management

D.  

control and data

Discussion 0
Questions 67

Refer to the exhibit. Link 1 uses a copper connection and link 2 uses a fiber connection. The fiber port must be the primary port for all forwarding. The output of the show spanning-tree command on SW2 shows that the fiber port is blocked by Spanning Tree. After entering the spanning-tree port-priority 32 command on G0/1 on SW2, the port remains blocked. Which command should be entered on the ports connected to Link 2 is resolve the issue?

Options:

A.  

Enter spanning-tree port-priority 64 on SW2

B.  

Enter spanning-tree port-priority 224 on SW1.

C.  

Enter spanning-tree port-priority 4 on SW2.

D.  

Enter spanning-tree port-priority 32 on SW1.

Discussion 0
Questions 68

An engineer must configure Interface and sensor monitoring on a router. The NMS server is located in a trusted zone with IP address 10.15.2.19. Communication between the router and the NMS server must be encrypted and password-protected using the most secure algorithms. Access must be allowed only for the NMS server and with the minimum permission levels needed. Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 69

Which Cisco FlexConnect state allows wireless users that are connected to the network to continue working after the connection to the WLC has been lost?

Options:

A.  

Authentication Down/Switching Down

B.  

Authentication-Central/Switch-Local

C.  

Authentication- Down/Switch-Local

D.  

Authentication-Central/Switch-Central

Discussion 0
Questions 70

What is a characteristic of a type 2 hypervisor?

Options:

A.  

ideal for data center

B.  

complicated deployment

C.  

ideal for client/end-user system

D.  

referred to as bare-metal

Discussion 0
Questions 71

What is a TLOC in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment?

Options:

A.  

value that identifies a specific tunnel within the Cisco SD-WAN overlay

B.  

identifier that represents a specific service offered by nodes within the Cisco SD-WAN overlay

C.  

attribute that acts as a next hop for network prefixes

D.  

component set by the administrator to differentiate similar nodes that offer a common service

Discussion 0
Questions 72

Which option works with a DHCP server to return at least one WLAN management interface IP address during the discovery phase and is dependent upon the VCI of the AP?

Options:

A.  

Option 42

B.  

Option 15

C.  

Option 125

D.  

Option 43

Discussion 0
Questions 73

What Is the difference between the MAC address table and TCAM?

Options:

A.  

The MAC address table supports partial matches. TCAM requires an exact match.

B.  

The MAC address table is contained in TCAM ACL and QoS information is stored in CAM.

C.  

Router prefix lookups happen in TCAM. MAC address table lookups happen In CAM.

D.  

TCAM is used to make L2 forwarding decisions. CAM is used to build routing tables

Discussion 0
Questions 74

In a Cisco Catalyst switch equipped with two supervisor modules an administrator must temporally remove the active supervisor from the chassis to perform hardware maintenance on it. Which mechanism ensure that the active supervisor removal is not disruptive to the network operation?

Options:

A.  

NSF/NSR

B.  

SSO

C.  

HSRP

D.  

VRRP

Discussion 0
Questions 75

Refer to the exhibit. Which command set must be added to permit and log all traffic that comes from 172.20.10.1 in interface GigabitEthernet0/1 without impacting the functionality of the access list?

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 76

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command set is needed to configure and verify router R3 to measure the response time from router R3 to the file server located in the data center?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 77

Which benefit is realized by implementing SSO?

Options:

A.  

IP first-hop redundancy

B.  

communication between different nodes for cluster setup

C.  

physical link redundancy

D.  

minimal network downtime following an RP switchover

Discussion 0
Questions 78

In a Cisco SD-Access wireless architecture which device manages endpoint ID to edge node bindings?

Options:

A.  

fabric control plane node

B.  

fabric wireless controller

C.  

fabric border node

D.  

fabric edge node

Discussion 0
Questions 79

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured RSPAN to troubleshoot an issue between switch1 and switch2. The switches are connected using interface GigabitEthernet 1/1. An external packet capture device is connected is switch2 interface GigabitEthernet 1/2. Which two commands must be added to complete this configuration? (Choose two)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

E.  

Option E

Discussion 0
Questions 80

Refer to the exhibit. Which EEM script generates a critical-level syslog message and saves a copy of the running configuration to the bootflash when an administrator saves the running configuration to the startup configuration?

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 81

Which protocol is responsible for data plane forwarding in a Cisco SD-Access deployment?

Options:

A.  

VXLAN

B.  

IS-IS

C.  

OSPF

D.  

LISP

Discussion 0
Questions 82

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 is able to ping the R3 fa0/1 Interface. Why do the extended pings fail?

Options:

A.  

The DF bit has been set

B.  

The maximum packet size accepted by the command is 147G bytes

C.  

R2 and R3 do not have an OSPF adjacency

D.  

R3 is missing a return route to 10.99.69.0/30

Discussion 0
Questions 83

Which two Cisco SD-WAN components exchange OMP information?

Options:

A.  

vAnaiytlcs

B.  

vSmart

C.  

WAN Edge

D.  

vBond

E.  

vManage

Discussion 0
Questions 84

How does NETCONF YANG represent data structures?

Options:

A.  

as strict data structures denned by RFC 6020

B.  

in an XML tree format

C.  

in an HTML format

D.  

as modules within a tree

Discussion 0
Questions 85

What Is a characteristic of a WLC that is in master controller mode?

Options:

A.  

All wireless LAN controllers are managed by the master controller.

B.  

All new APs that join the WLAN are assigned to the master controller.

C.  

Configuration on the master controller is executed on all wireless LAN controllers.

D.  

The master controller is responsible for load balancing all connecting clients to other controllers

Discussion 0
Questions 86

Refer to the exhibit .

Which command must be configured for RESTCONF to operate on port 8888?

Options:

A.  

ip http port 8888

B.  

restconf port 8888

C.  

ip http restconf port 8888

D.  

restconf http port 8888

Discussion 0
Questions 87

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must allow all users in the 10.2.2.0/24 subnet to access the Internet. To conserve address space the public Interface address of 209 165 201.1 must be used for all external communication. Which command set accomplishes these requirements?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 88

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the routing protocols they describe on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 89

Which protocol is implemented to establish secure control plane adjacencies between Cisco SD-WAN nodes?

Options:

A.  

IKF

B.  

TLS

C.  

IPsec

D.  

ESP

Discussion 0
Questions 90

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result of the API request?

Options:

A.  

The "params" variable sends data fields to the network appliance.

B.  

The native interface information is read from the network appliance.

C.  

The Information for all interfaces is read from the network appliance.

D.  

The "params" variable reads data fields from the network appliance

Discussion 0
Questions 91

Refer the exhibit.

Which configuration elects SW4 as the root bridge for VLAN 1 and puts G0/2 on SW2 into a blocking state?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option

B.  

Option

C.  

Option

D.  

Option

Discussion 0
Questions 92

Which IPv4 packet field carries the QoS IP classification marking?

Options:

A.  

ID

B.  

TTL

C.  

FCS

D.  

ToS

Discussion 0
Questions 93

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must allow R1 to advertise the 192 168.1 0/24 network to R2 R1 must perform this action without sending OSPF packets to SW1 Which command set should be applied?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 94

Refer to the exhibit.

Which commands are required to allow SSH connection to the router?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 95

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the deployment types on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 96

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer entered the command no spanning-tree bpduguard enable on interface Fa 1/0/7. What is the effect of this command on Fa 1/0/7?

Options:

A.  

It remains in err-disabled state until the shutdown/no shutdown command is entered in the interface configuration mode.

B.  

It remains in err-disabled state until the errdisable recovery cause failed-port-state command is entered in the global configuration mode.

C.  

It remains in err-disabled state until the no shutdown command is entered in the interface configuration mode.

D.  

It remains in err-disabled state until the spanning-tree portfast bpduguard disable command is entered in the interface configuration mode.

Discussion 0
Questions 97

Refer to the exhibit. An attacker can advertise OSPF fake routes from 172.16.20.0 network to the OSPF domain and black hole traffic. Which action must be taken to avoid this attack and still be able to advertise this subnet into OSPF?

Options:

A.  

Configure 172.16.20.0 as a stub network.

B.  

Apply a policy to filter OSPF packets on R2.

C.  

Configure a passive Interface on R2 toward 172.16.20.0.

D.  

Configure graceful restart on the 172.16.20.0 interface.

Discussion 0
Questions 98

Refer to the exhibit.

The administrator troubleshoots an EtherChannel that keeps moving to err-disabled. Which two actions must be taken to resolve the issue? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

Reload the switch to force EtherChannel renegotiation

B.  

Ensure that interfaces Gi1/0/2 and Gi1/0/3 connect to the same neighboring switch.

C.  

Ensure that the switchport parameters of Port channel1 match the parameters of the port channel on the neighbor switch

D.  

Ensure that the corresponding port channel interface on the neighbor switch is named Port-channel1.

E.  

Ensure that the neighbor interfaces of Gi1/0/2 and Gi/0/3 are configured as members of the same EtherChannel

Discussion 0
Questions 99

What is a fact about Cisco EAP-FAST?

Options:

A.  

It does not require a RADIUS server certificate.

B.  

It requires a client certificate.

C.  

It is an IETF standard.

D.  

It operates in transparent mode.

Discussion 0
Questions 100

Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of antenna is show on the radiation patterns?

Options:

A.  

Dipole

B.  

Yagi

C.  

Patch

D.  

Omnidirectional

Discussion 0
Questions 101

What is the function of a VTEP in VXLAN?

Options:

A.  

provide the routing underlay and overlay for VXLAN headers

B.  

dynamically discover the location of end hosts in a VXLAN fabric

C.  

encapsulate and de-encapsulate traffic into and out of the VXLAN fabric

D.  

statically point to end host locations of the VXLAN fabric

Discussion 0
Questions 102

Refer to the exhibit.

Router 1 is currently operating as the HSRP primary with a priority of 110 router1 fails and router2 take over the forwarding role. Which command on router1 causes it to take over the forwarding role when it return to service?

Options:

A.  

standby 2 priority

B.  

standby 2 preempt

C.  

standby 2 track

D.  

standby 2 timers

Discussion 0
Questions 103

Which statement about TLS is accurate when using RESTCONF to write configurations on network devices?

Options:

A.  

It requires certificates for authentication

B.  

It is provided using NGINX acting as a proxy web server

C.  

It is used for HTTP and HTTPS requests

D.  

It is not supported on Cisco devices

Discussion 0
Questions 104

Refer to the exhibit.

What are two effect of this configuration? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

Inside source addresses are translated to the 209.165.201.0/27 subnet.

B.  

It establishes a one-to-one NAT translation.

C.  

The 10.1.1.0/27 subnet is assigned as the inside global address range.

D.  

The 209.165.201.0/27 subnet is assigned as the outside local address range.

E.  

The 10.1.1.0/27 subnet is assigned as the inside local addresses.

Discussion 0
Questions 105

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command set must be applied on R1 to establish a BGP neighborship with R2 and to allow communication from R1 to reach the networks?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 106

Refer to the exhibit. What does the error message relay to the administrator who is trying to configure a Cisco IOS device?

Options:

A.  

A NETCONF request was made for a data model that does not exist.

B.  

The device received a valid NETCONF request and serviced it without error.

C.  

A NETCONF message with valid content based on the YANG data models was made, but the request failed.

D.  

The NETCONF running datastore is currently locked.

Discussion 0
Questions 107

Which method should an engineer use to deal with a long-standing contention issue between any two VMs on the same host?

Options:

A.  

Adjust the resource reservation limits

B.  

Live migrate the VM to another host

C.  

Reset the VM

D.  

Reset the host

Discussion 0
Questions 108

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the Json syntax that is formed from the data?

Options:

A.  

{Name: Bob Johnson, Age: 75, Alive: true, Favorite Foods: [Cereal, Mustard, Onions]}

B.  

{"Name": "Bob Johnson", "Age": 75, "Alive": true, "Favorite Foods": ["Cereal", "Mustard", "Onions"]}

C.  

{"˜Name': "˜Bob Johnson', "˜Age': 75, "˜Alive': True, "˜Favorite Foods': "˜Cereal', "˜Mustard', "˜Onions'}

D.  

{"Name": "Bob Johnson", "Age": Seventyfive, "Alive": true, "Favorite Foods": ["Cereal", "Mustard", "Onions"]}

Discussion 0
Questions 109

Running the script causes the output in the exhibit. Which change to the first line of the script resolves the error?

Options:

A.  

from ncclient import

B.  

import manager

C.  

from ncclient import*

D.  

import ncclient manager

Discussion 0
Questions 110

A server running Linux is providing support for virtual machines along with DNS and DHCP services for a small business. Which technology does this represent?

Options:

A.  

container

B.  

Type 1 hypervisor

C.  

hardware pass-thru

D.  

Type 2 hypervisor

Discussion 0
Questions 111

Drag and drop the virtual components from the left onto their deceptions on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 112

What is the recommended MTU size for a Cisco SD-Access Fabric?

Options:

A.  

1500

B.  

9100

C.  

4464

D.  

17914

Discussion 0
Questions 113

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer implemented several configuration changes and receives the logging message on switch1. Which action should the engineer take to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.  

Change the VTP domain to match on both switches

B.  

Change Switch2 to switch port mode dynamic auto

C.  

Change Switch1 to switch port mode dynamic auto

D.  

Change Switch1 to switch port mode dynamic desirable

Discussion 0
Questions 114

Which protocol does REST API rely on to secure the communication channel?

Options:

A.  

TCP

B.  

HTTPS

C.  

SSH

D.  

HTTP

Discussion 0
Questions 115

Which AP mode allows an engineer to scan configured channels for rogue access points?

Options:

A.  

sniffer

B.  

monitor

C.  

bridge

D.  

local

Discussion 0
Questions 116

Which entity is responsible for maintaining Layer 2 isolation between segments In a VXLAN environment?

Options:

A.  

switch fabric

B.  

VTEP

C.  

VNID

D.  

host switch

Discussion 0
Questions 117

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must create a script that appends the output of the show process cpu sorted command to a file.

Options:

A.  

action 4.0 syslog command “show process cpu sorted | append flash:high-cpu-file”

B.  

action 4.0 publish-event “show process cpu sorted | append flash:high-cpu-file”

C.  

action 4.0 ens-event “show process cpu sorted | append flash:high-cpu-file”

D.  

action 4.0 cli command “show process cpu sorted | append flash:high-cpu-file”

Discussion 0
Questions 118

An engineer is concerned with the deployment of new application that is sensitive to inter-packet delay variance. Which command configures the router to be the destination of jitter measurements?

Options:

A.  

Router(config)# ip sla responder udp-connect 172.29.139.134 5000

B.  

Router(config)# ip sla responder tcp-connect 172.29.139.134 5000

C.  

Router(config)# ip sla responder udp-echo 172.29.139.134 5000

D.  

Router(config)# ip sla responder tcp-echo 172.29.139.134 5000

Discussion 0
Questions 119

How is Layer 3 roaming accomplished in a unified wireless deployment?

Options:

A.  

An EoIP tunnel is created between the client and the anchor controller to provide seamless connectivity as the client is associated with the new AP.

B.  

The client entry on the original controller is passed to the database on the new controller.

C.  

The new controller assigns an IP address from the new subnet to the client

D.  

The client database on the original controller is updated the anchor entry, and the new controller database is updated with the foreign entry.

Discussion 0
Questions 120

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action resolves the EtherChannel issue between SW2 and SW3?

Options:

A.  

Configure switchport mode trunk on SW2.

B.  

Configure switchport nonegotiate on SW3

C.  

Configure channel-group 1 mode desirable on both interfaces.

D.  

Configure channel-group 1 mode active on both interfaces.

Discussion 0
Questions 121

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must deny HTTP traffic from host A to host B while allowing all other communication between the hosts, drag and drop the commands into the configuration to achieve these results. Some commands may be used more than once. Not all commands are used.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 122

Which design principle slates that a user has no access by default to any resource, and unless a resource is explicitly granted, it should be denied?

Options:

A.  

least privilege

B.  

fail-safe defaults

C.  

economy of mechanism

D.  

complete mediation

Discussion 0
Questions 123

which entity is a Type 1 hypervisor?

Options:

A.  

Oracle VM VirtualBox

B.  

VMware server

C.  

Citrix XenServer

D.  

Microsoft Virtual PC

Discussion 0
Questions 124

If the noise floor is -90 dBm and wireless client is receiving a signal of -75 dBm, what is the SNR?

Options:

A.  

15

B.  

1.2

C.  

-165

D.  

.83

Discussion 0
Questions 125

What are two characteristics of VXLAN? (Choose two)

Options:

A.  

It uses VTEPs to encapsulate and decapsulate frames.

B.  

It has a 12-bit network identifier

C.  

It allows for up to 16 million VXLAN segments

D.  

It lacks support for host mobility

E.  

It extends Layer 2 and Layer 3 overlay networks over a Layer 2 underlay.

Discussion 0
Questions 126

A company has an existing Cisco 5520 HA cluster using SSO. An engineer deploys a new single Cisco Catalyst 9800 WLC to test new features. The engineer successfully configures a mobility tunnel between the 5520 cluster and 9800 WLC. Client connected to the corporate WLAN roam seamlessly between access points on the 5520 and 9800 WLC. After a failure on the primary 5520 WLC, all WLAN services remain functional; however, Client roam between the 5520 and 9800 controllers without dropping their connection. Which feature must be configured to remedy the issue?

Options:

A.  

mobility MAC on the 5520 cluster

B.  

mobility MAC on the 9800 WLC

C.  

new mobility on the 5520 cluster

D.  

new mobility on the 9800 WLC

Discussion 0
Questions 127

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must deny Telnet traffic from the loopback interface of router R3 to the loopback interface of router R2 during the weekend hours. All other traffic between the loopback interfaces of routers R3 and R2 must be allowed at all times. Which command accomplish this task?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 128

A network engineer configures BGP between R1 and R2. Both routers use BGP peer group CORP and are set up to use MD5 authentication. This message is logged to the console of router R1:

Which two configuration allow peering session to from between R1 and R2? Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

R1(config-router)#neighbor 10.10.10.1 peer-group CORP R1(config-router)#neighbor CORP password Cisco

B.  

R2(config-router)#neighbor 10.120.10.1 peer-group CORP R2(config-router)#neighbor CORP password Cisco

C.  

R2(config-router)#neighbor 10.10.10.1 peer-group CORP R2(config-router)#neighbor PEER password Cisco

D.  

R1(config-router)#neighbor 10.120.10.1 peer-group CORP R1(config-router)#neighbor CORP password Cisco

E.  

R2(config-router)#neighbor 10.10.10.1 peer-group CORP R2(config-router)#neighbor CORP password Cisco

Discussion 0
Questions 129

Which function in handled by vManage in the cisco SD-WAN fabric?

Options:

A.  

Establishes BFD sessions to test liveliness of links and nodes.

B.  

Distributes polices that govern data forwarding.

C.  

Performs remote software upgrades for WAN Edge vSmart and vBond.

D.  

Establishes iPsec tunnels with nodes

Discussion 0
Questions 130

When using TLS for syslog, which configuration allows for secure and reliable transportation of messages to its default port?

Options:

A.  

logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport tcp port 6514

B.  

logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport udp port 6514

C.  

logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport tcp port 514

D.  

logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport udp port 514

Discussion 0
Questions 131

Which two threats does AMP4E have the ability to block? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

DDoS

B.  

ransomware

C.  

Microsoft Word macro attack

D.  

SQL injection

E.  

email phishing

Discussion 0
Questions 132

Which component of the Cisco Cyber Threat Defense solution provides user and flow context analysis?

Options:

A.  

Cisco Firepower and FireSIGHT

B.  

Cisco Stealth watch system

C.  

Advanced Malware Protection

D.  

Cisco Web Security Appliance

Discussion 0
Questions 133

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must ensure that all traffic leaving AS 200 will choose Link 2 as an entry point. Assuming that all BGP neighbor relationships have been formed and that the attributes have not been changed on any of the routers, which configuration accomplish task?

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 134

Refer to the exhibit. External users require HTTP connectivity to an internal company web server that is listening on TCP port 8080. Which command set accomplishes this requirement?

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

E.  

Option E

Discussion 0
Questions 135

What is the difference between CEF and process switching?

Options:

A.  

CEF processes packets that are too complex for process switching to manage.

B.  

CEF is more CPU-intensive than process switching.

C.  

CEF uses the FIB and the adjacency table to make forwarding decisions, whereas process switching punts each packet.

D.  

Process switching is faster than CEF.

Discussion 0
Questions 136

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configures CoPP and enters the show command to verify the implementation. What is the result of the configuration?

Options:

A.  

All traffic will be policed based on access-list 120.

B.  

If traffic exceeds the specified rate, it will be transmitted and remarked.

C.  

Class-default traffic will be dropped.

D.  

ICMP will be denied based on this configuration.

Discussion 0
Questions 137

What is a characteristic of MACsec?

Options:

A.  

802.1AE provides encryption and authentication services

B.  

802.1AE is bult between the host and switch using the MKA protocol, which negotiates encryption keys based on the master session key from a successful 802.1X session

C.  

802.1AE is bult between the host and switch using the MKA protocol using keys generated via the Diffie-Hellman algorithm (anonymous encryption mode)

D.  

802.1AE is negotiated using Cisco AnyConnect NAM and the SAP protocol

Discussion 0
Questions 138

How does an on-premises infrastructure compare to a cloud infrastructure?

Options:

A.  

On-premises can increase compute power faster than cloud

B.  

On-premises requires less power and cooling resources than cloud

C.  

On-premises offers faster deployment than cloud

D.  

On-premises offers lower latency for physically adjacent systems than cloud.

Discussion 0
Questions 139

Refer to the exhibit.

What are two effects of this configuration? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

R1 becomes the active router.

B.  

R1 becomes the standby router.

C.  

If R2 goes down, R1 becomes active but reverts to standby when R2 comes back online.

D.  

If R1 goes down. R2 becomes active and remains the active device when R1 comes back online.

E.  

If R1 goes down, R2 becomes active but reverts to standby when R1 comes back online.

Discussion 0
Questions 140

Refer to the exhibit.

Security policy requires all idle-exec sessions to be terminated in 600 seconds. Which configuration achieves this goal?

Options:

A.  

line vty 0 15

absolute-timeout 600

B.  

line vty 0 15

exec-timeout

C.  

line vty 01 5

exec-timeout 10 0

D.  

line vty 0 4

exec-timeout 600

Discussion 0
Questions 141

What is a benefit of data modeling languages like YANG?

Options:

A.  

They enable programmers to change or write their own application within the device operating system.

B.  

They create more secure and efficient SNMP OIDs.

C.  

They make the CLI simpler and more efficient.

D.  

They provide a standardized data structure, which results in configuration scalability and consistency.

Discussion 0
Questions 142

Which features does Cisco EDR use to provide threat detection and response protection?

Options:

A.  

containment, threat intelligence, and machine learning

B.  

firewalling and intrusion prevention

C.  

container-based agents

D.  

cloud analysis and endpoint firewall controls

Discussion 0
Questions 143

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel between Switch1 and Switch2 and notices the console message on switch2. Based on the output, which action resolves this issue?

Options:

A.  

Configure less member ports on Switch2.

B.  

Configure the same port channel interface number on both switches

C.  

Configure the same EtherChannel protocol on both switches

D.  

Configure more member ports on Switch1.

Discussion 0
Questions 144

Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands on router r R1 Allow deterministic translation of private hosts PC1, PC2, and PC3 to addresses in the public space?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 145

Which two methods are used to reduce the AP coverage area? (Choose two)

Options:

A.  

Reduce channel width from 40 MHz to 20 MHz

B.  

Disable 2.4 GHz and use only 5 GHz.

C.  

Reduce AP transmit power.

D.  

Increase minimum mandatory data rate

E.  

Enable Fastlane

Discussion 0
Questions 146

Which TCP setting is tuned to minimize the risk of fragmentation on a GRE/IP tunnel?

Options:

A.  

MTU

B.  

Window size

C.  

MRU

D.  

MSS

Discussion 0
Questions 147

How does the RIB differ from the FIB?

Options:

A.  

The RIB is used to create network topologies and routing tables. The FIB is a list of routes to particular network destinations.

B.  

The FIB includes many routes a single destination. The RIB is the best route to a single destination.

C.  

The RIB includes many routes to the same destination prefix. The FIB contains only the best route

D.  

The FIB maintains network topologies and routing tables. The RIB is a Iist of routes to particular network destinations.

Discussion 0
Questions 148

Refer to the exhibit. After configurating an IPsec VPN, an engineer enters the show command to verify the ISAKMP SA status. What does the status show?

Options:

A.  

ISAKMP SA is authenticated and can be used for Quick Mode.

B.  

Peers have exchanged keys, but ISAKMP SA remains unauthenticated.

C.  

VPN peers agreed on parameters for the ISAKMP SA

D.  

ISAKMP SA has been created, but it has not continued to form.

Discussion 0
Questions 149

Which action is the vSmart controller responsible for in an SD-WAN deployment?

Options:

A.  

handle, maintain, and gather configuration and status for nodes within the SD-WAN fabric

B.  

distribute policies that govern data forwarding performed within the SD-WAN fabric

C.  

gather telemetry data from vEdge routers

D.  

onboard vEdge nodes into the SD-WAN fabric

Discussion 0
Questions 150

In a Cisco SD-Access solution, what is the role of the Identity Services Engine?

Options:

A.  

It is leveraged for dynamic endpoint to group mapping and policy definition.

B.  

It provides GUI management and abstraction via apps that share context.

C.  

it is used to analyze endpoint to app flows and monitor fabric status.

D.  

It manages the LISP EID database.

Discussion 0
Questions 151

Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands are needed to allow for full reachability between AS 1000 and AS 2000? (Choose two)

Options:

A.  

R1#network 192.168.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0

B.  

R2#no network 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0

C.  

R2#network 192.168.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0

D.  

R2#network 209.165.201.0 mask 255.255.192.0

E.  

R1#no network 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0

Discussion 0
Questions 152

Drag and drop the wireless elements on the left to their definitions on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 153

Which measurement is used from a post wireless survey to depict the cell edge of the access points?

Options:

A.  

SNR

B.  

Noise

C.  

RSSI

D.  

CCI

Discussion 0
Questions 154

Which device makes the decision for a wireless client to roam?

Options:

A.  

wireless client

B.  

wireless LAN controller

C.  

access point

D.  

WCS location server

Discussion 0
Questions 155

Where is radio resource management performed in a cisco SD-access wireless solution?

Options:

A.  

DNA Center

B.  

control plane node

C.  

wireless controller

D.  

Cisco CMX

Discussion 0
Questions 156

Which HTTP code must be returned to prevent the script form exiting?

Options:

A.  

200

B.  

201

C.  

300

D.  

301

Discussion 0
Questions 157

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration establishes EBGP neighborship between these two directly connected neighbors and exchanges the loopback network of the two routers through BGP?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 158

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration change will force BR2 to reach 209 165 201 0/27 via BR1?

Options:

A.  

Set the weight attribute to 65.535 on BR1 toward PE1.

B.  

Set the local preference to 150 on PE1 toward BR1 outbound

C.  

Set the MED to 1 on PE2 toward BR2 outbound.

D.  

Set the origin to igp on BR2 toward PE2 inbound.

Discussion 0
Questions 159

Refer to the exhibit. Communication between London and New York is down. Which command set must be applied to the NewYork switch to resolve the issue?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 160

Refer to the exhibit Drag and drop the snippets into the RESTCONF request to form the request that returns this response Not all options are used

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 161

What are two differences between the RIB and the FIB? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

The FIB is derived from the data plane, and the RIB is derived from the FIB.

B.  

The RIB is a database of routing prefixes, and the FIB is the Information used to choose the egress interface for each packet.

C.  

FIB is a database of routing prefixes, and the RIB is the information used to choose the egress interface for each packet.

D.  

The FIB is derived from the control plane, and the RIB is derived from the FIB.

E.  

The RIB is derived from the control plane, and the FIB is derived from the RIB.

Discussion 0
Questions 162

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must block all traffic from a router to its directly connected subnet 209.165.200.0/24. The engineer applies access control list EGRESS in the outbound direction on the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface of the router However, the router can still ping hosts on the 209.165.200.0/24 subnet. Which explanation of this behavior is true?

Options:

A.  

Access control lists that are applied outbound to a router interface do not affect traffic that is sourced from the router.

B.  

Only standard access control lists can block traffic from a source IP address.

C.  

After an access control list is applied to an interface, that interface must be shut and no shut for the access control list to take effect.

D.  

The access control list must contain an explicit deny to block traffic from the router.

Discussion 0
Questions 163

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the protocols they apply to on the right?

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 164

Refer to the exhibit. Which command is required to verify NETCONF capability reply messages?

Options:

A.  

show netconf | section rpc-reply

B.  

show netconf rpc-reply

C.  

show netconf xml rpc-reply

D.  

show netconf schema | section rpc-reply

Discussion 0
Questions 165

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration change ensures that R1 is the active gateway whenever it is in a functional state for the 172.30.110.0724 network?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 166

A client device roams between access points located on different floors in an atrium. The access points are Joined to the same controller and configured in local mode. The access points are in different AP groups and have different IP addresses, but the client VLAN in the groups is the same. Which type of roam occurs?

Options:

A.  

inter-controller

B.  

inter-subnet

C.  

intra-VLAN

D.  

intra-controller

Discussion 0
Questions 167

What is the responsibility of a secondary WLC?

Options:

A.  

It shares the traffic load of the LAPs with the primary controller.

B.  

It avoids congestion on the primary controller by sharing the registration load on the LAPs.

C.  

It registers the LAPs if the primary controller fails.

D.  

It enables Layer 2 and Layer 3 roaming between Itself and the primary controller.

Discussion 0
Questions 168

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer troubleshoots connectivity issues with an application. Testing is performed from the server gateway, and traffic with the DF bit set is dropped along the path after increasing packet size. Removing the DF bit setting at the gateway prevents the packets from being dropped. What is the cause of this issue?

Options:

A.  

PMTUD does not work due to ICMP Packet Too Big messages being dropped by an ACL

B.  

The remote router drops the traffic due to high CPU load

C.  

The server should not set the DF bit in any type of traffic that is sent toward the network

D.  

There is a CoPP policy in place protecting the WAN router CPU from this type of traffic

Discussion 0
Questions 169

An engineer must enable a login authentication method that allows a user to log in by using local authentication if all other defined authentication methods fail Which configuration should be applied?

Options:

A.  

aaa authentication login CONSOLE group radius local-case enable aaa

B.  

authentication login CONSOLE group radius local enable none

C.  

aaa authentication login CONSOLE group radius local enable

D.  

aaa authentication login CONSOLE group tacacs+ local enable

Discussion 0
Questions 170

An engineer is configuring a GRE tunnel interface in the default mode. The engineer has assigned an IPv4 address on the tunnel and sourced the tunnel from an Ethernet interface. Which option also is required on the tunnel interface before it is operational?

Options:

A.  

(config-if)#tunnel destination

B.  

(config-if)#keepalive

C.  

(config-if)#ip mtu

D.  

(config-if)#ip tcp adjust-mss

Discussion 0
Questions 171

In a Cisco SD-WAN solution, which two functions are performed by OMP? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

advertisement of network prefixes and their attributes

B.  

configuration of control and data policies

C.  

gathering of underlay infrastructure data

D.  

delivery of crypto keys

E.  

segmentation and differentiation of traffic

Discussion 0
Questions 172

Which technology is used as the basis for the cisco sd-access data plane?

Options:

A.  

IPsec

B.  

LISP

C.  

VXLAN

D.  

802.1Q

Discussion 0
Questions 173

Refer to the exhibit.

All switches are configured with the default port priority value. Which two commands ensure that traffic from PC1 is forwarded over Gi1/3 trunk port between DWS1 and DSW2? (Choose two)

Options:

A.  

DSW2(config-if)#spanning-tree port-priority 16

B.  

DSW2(config)#interface gi1/3

C.  

DSW1(config-if)#spanning-tree port-priority 0

D.  

DSW1(config) #interface gi1/3

E.  

DSW2(config-if)#spanning-tree port-priority 128

Discussion 0
Questions 174

What Is a Type 2 hypervisor?

Options:

A.  

installed as an application on an already installed operating system

B.  

runs directly on a physical server and includes its own operating system

C.  

supports over-allocation of physical resources

D.  

also referred to as a "bare metal hypervisor" because it sits directly on the physical server

Discussion 0
Questions 175

An engineer creates the configuration below. Drag and drop the authentication methods from the left into the order of priority on the right. Not all options are used.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 176

An engineer configures a WLAN with fast transition enabled Some legacy clients fail to connect to this WLAN Which feature allows the legacy clients to connect while still allowing other clients to use fast transition based on then OLTIs?

Options:

A.  

over the DS

B.  

adaptive R

C.  

802.11V

D.  

802.11k

Discussion 0
Questions 177

Which OSPF networks types are compatible and allow communication through the two peering devices?

Options:

A.  

broadcast to nonbroadcast

B.  

point-to-multipoint to nonbroadcast

C.  

broadcast to point-to-point

D.  

point-to-multipoint to broadcast

Discussion 0
Questions 178

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of these commands on the BR and HQ tunnel interfaces?

Options:

A.  

The tunnel line protocol goes down when the keepalive counter reaches 6

B.  

The keepalives are sent every 5 seconds and 3 retries

C.  

The keepalives are sent every 3 seconds and 5 retries

D.  

The tunnel line protocol goes down when the keepalive counter reaches 5

Discussion 0
Questions 179

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the routing protocols they describe on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 180

An administrator must enable Telnet access to Router X using the router username and password database for authentication. Which configuration should be applied?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 181

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure HSRP for VLAN 1000 on SW2. The secondary switch must immediately take over the role of active router If the interlink with the primary switch fails. Which command set completes this task?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 182

Which feature does Cisco TrustSec use to provide scalable, secure communication throughout a network?

Options:

A.  

security group tag ACL assigned to each port on a switch

B.  

security group tag number assigned to each port on a network

C.  

security group tag number assigned to each user on a switch

D.  

security group tag ACL assigned to each router on a network

Discussion 0
Questions 183

Based on the router's API output in JSON format below, which Python code will display the value of the "hostname" key?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option

B.  

Option

C.  

Option

D.  

Option

Discussion 0
Questions 184

Which two actions, when applied in the LAN network segment, will facilitate Layer 3 CAPWAP discovery for lightweight AP? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

Utilize DHCP option 17.

B.  

Configure WLC IP address on LAN switch.

C.  

Utilize DHCP option 43.

D.  

Configure an ip helper-address on the router interface

E.  

Enable port security on the switch port

Discussion 0
Questions 185

Refer to the exhibit.

After the code is run on a Cisco IOS-XE router, the response code is 204.

What is the result of the script?

Options:

A.  

The configuration fails because another interface is already configured with IP address 10.10.10.1/24.

B.  

The configuration fails because interface GigabitEthernet2 is missing on the target device.

C.  

The configuration is successfully sent to the device in cleartext.

D.  

Interface GigabitEthernet2 is configured with IP address 10.10.10.1/24

Discussion 0
Questions 186

What is the difference between a RIB and a FIB?

Options:

A.  

The RIB is used to make IP source prefix-based switching decisions

B.  

The FIB is where all IP routing information is stored

C.  

The RIB maintains a mirror image of the FIB

D.  

The FIB is populated based on RIB content

Discussion 0
Questions 187

A customer requests a design that includes GLBP as the FHRP The network architect discovers that the members of the GLBP group have different throughput capabilities Which GLBP load balancing method supports this environment?

Options:

A.  

host dependent

B.  

least connection

C.  

round robin

D.  

weighted

Discussion 0
Questions 188

Refer the exhibit.

Which router is the designated router on the segment 192.168.0.0/24?

Options:

A.  

This segment has no designated router because it is a nonbroadcast network type.

B.  

This segment has no designated router because it is a p2p network type.

C.  

Router Chicago because it has a lower router ID

D.  

Router NewYork because it has a higher router ID

Discussion 0
Questions 189

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must establish eBGP peering between router R3 and router R4. Both routers should use their loopback interfaces as the BGP router ID. Which configuration set accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.  

R3(config)#router bgp 200

R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.4.4.4 remote-as 100

R3(config-router)# neighbor 10.4.4.4 update-source Loopback0

R4(config)#router bgp 100

R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.3.3.3 remote-as 200

R4(config-router)#network 10.3.3.3 update-source Loopback0

B.  

R3(config)#router bgp 200

R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.4 remote-as 100

R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.4 update-source Loopback0

R4(config)#router bgp 100

R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.3 remote-as 200

R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.3 update-source Loopback0

C.  

R3(config)#router bgp 200

R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.4.4.4 remote-as 100

R3(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.3.3.3

R4(config)#router bgp 100

R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.3.3.3 remote-as 200

R4(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.4.4.4

D.  

R3(config)#router bgp 200

R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.4 remote-as 100

R3(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.3.3.3

R4(config)#router bgp 100

R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.3 remote-as 200

R4(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.4.4.4

Discussion 0
Questions 190

Refer to the exhibit. Router BRDR-1 is configured to receive the 0.0.0.0/0 and 172.17.1.0/24 network via BGP and advertise them into OSPF are 0. An engineer has noticed that the OSPF domain is receiving only the 172.17.1.0/24 route and default route 0.0.0.0/0 is still missing. Which configurating must engineer apply to resolve the problem?

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 191

Refer to the exhibit.

What step resolves the authentication issue?

Options:

A.  

use basic authentication

B.  

change the port to 12446

C.  

target 192 168 100 82 in the URI

D.  

restart the vsmart host

Discussion 0
Questions 192

What NTP Stratum level is a server that is connected directly to an authoritative time source?

Options:

A.  

Stratum 0

B.  

Stratum 1

C.  

Stratum 14

D.  

Stratum 15

Discussion 0
Questions 193

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must prevent the R6 loopback from getting into Area 2 and Area 3 from Area 0 Which action must the engineer take?

Options:

A.  

Apply a fitter list inbound on R2 and R9

B.  

Apply a filter list outbound on R3 and R7

C.  

Apply a filter list outbound on R7 only.

D.  

Apply a filter list inbound on R3 and R7

Discussion 0
Questions 194

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineers reaching network 172 16 10 0/24 via the R1-R2-R4 path. Which configuration forces the traffic to take a path of R1-R3-R4?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 195

What does the Cisco DNA Center use to enable the delivery of applications through a network and to yield analytics for innovation?

Options:

A.  

process adapters

B.  

Command Runner

C.  

intent-based APIs

D.  

domain adapters

Discussion 0
Questions 196

An engineer is configuring a new SSID to present users with a splash page for authentication. Which WLAN Layer 3 setting must be configured to provide this functionally?

Options:

A.  

CCKM

B.  

WPA2 Policy

C.  

Local Policy

D.  

Web Policy

Discussion 0
Questions 197

Refer to the Exhibit.

An engineer is installing a new pair of routers in a redundant configuration. When checking on the standby status of each router the engineer notices that the routers are not functioning as expected. Which action will resolve the configuration error?

Options:

A.  

configure matching hold and delay timers

B.  

configure matching key-strings

C.  

configure matching priority values

D.  

configure unique virtual IP addresses

Discussion 0
Questions 198

Refer to the exhibit.

R2 is the neighboring router of R1. R2 receives an advertisement for network 192 168.10.50/32. Which configuration should be applied for the subnet to be advertised with the original /24 netmask?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 199

What occurs when a high bandwidth multicast stream is sent over an MVPN using Cisco hardware?

Options:

A.  

The traffic uses the default MDT to transmit the data only if it isa (S,G) multicast route entry

B.  

A data MDT is created to if it is a (*, G) multicast route entries

C.  

A data and default MDT are created to flood the multicast stream out of all PIM-SM neighbors.

D.  

A data MDT is created to allow for the best transmission through the core for (S, G) multicast route entries.

Discussion 0
Questions 200

Refer to the exhibit.

Cisco DNA Center has obtained the username of the client and the multiple devices that the client is using on the network. How is Cisco DNA Center getting these context details?

Options:

A.  

The administrator had to assign the username to the IP address manually in the user database tool on Cisco DNA Center.

B.  

Those details are provided to Cisco DNA Center by the Identity Services Engine

C.  

Cisco DNA Center pulled those details directly from the edge node where the user connected.

D.  

User entered those details in the Assurance app available on iOS and Android devices

Discussion 0
Questions 201

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configures OSPF and wants to verify the configuration Which configuration is applied to this device?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 202

Refer to the exhibit.

CR2 and CR3 ate configured with OSPF. Which configuration, when applied to CR1. allows CR1 to exchange OSPF Information with CR2 and CR3 but not with other network devices or on new Interfaces that are added to CR1?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 203

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the routing protocols they describe on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 204

Which two items are found in YANG data models? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

HTTP return codes

B.  

rpc statements

C.  

JSON schema

D.  

container statements

E.  

XML schema

Discussion 0
Questions 205

Refer to the exhibit. Which result does the python code achieve?

Options:

A.  

The code encrypts a base64 decrypted password.

B.  

The code converts time to the "year/month/day" time format.

C.  

The code converts time to the yyyymmdd representation.

D.  

The code converts time to the Epoch LINUX time format.

Discussion 0
Questions 206

Refer to the exhibit.

Which JSON syntax is derived from this data?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 207

Which protocol is used to encrypt control plane traffic between SD-WAN controllers and SD-WAN endpoints?

Options:

A.  

DTLS

B.  

IPsec

C.  

PGP

D.  

HTTPS

Discussion 0
Questions 208

Drag and drop the snippets onto the blanks within the code to construct a script that advertises the network prefix 192.168.5.0/24 into a BGP session. Not all options are used

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 209

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must create a configuration that prevents R3from receiving the LSA about 172.16.1.4/32.Which configuration set achieves this goal?

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 210

How is a data modeling language used?

Options:

A.  

To enable data lo be easily structured, grouped, validated, and replicated

B.  

To represent finite and well-defined network elements that cannot be changed

C.  

To model the flows of unstructured data within the infrastructure

D.  

To provide human readability to scripting languages

Discussion 0
Questions 211

A vulnerability assessment highlighted that remote access to the switches is permitted using unsecure and unencrypted protocols Which configuration must be applied to allow only secure and reliable remote access for device administration?

Options:

A.  

line vty 0 15

login local

transport input none

B.  

line vty 0 15

login local

transport input telnet ssh

C.  

line vty 0 15

login local

transport input ssh

D.  

line vty 0 15

login local

transport input all

Discussion 0
Questions 212

Which protocol infers that a YANG data model is being used?

Options:

A.  

SNMP

B.  

NX-API

C.  

REST

D.  

RESTCONF

Discussion 0
Questions 213

How cloud deployments differ from on-prem deployments?

Options:

A.  

Cloud deployments require longer implementation times than on-premises deployments

B.  

Cloud deployments are more customizable than on-premises deployments.

C.  

Cloud deployments require less frequent upgrades than on-premises deployments.

D.  

Cloud deployments have lower upfront costs than on-premises deployments.

Discussion 0
Questions 214

Which two parameters are examples of a QoS traffic descriptor? (Choose two)

Options:

A.  

MPLS EXP bits

B.  

bandwidth

C.  

DSCP

D.  

ToS

E.  

packet size

Discussion 0
Questions 215

What is the function of cisco DNA center in a cisco SD-access deployment?

Options:

A.  

It is responsible for routing decisions inside the fabric

B.  

It is responsible for the design, management, deployment, provisioning and assurance of the fabric network devices.

C.  

It possesses information about all endpoints, nodes and external networks related to the fabric

D.  

It provides integration and automation for all nonfabric nodes and their fabric counterparts.

Discussion 0
Questions 216

An engineer must export the contents of the devices object in JSON format. Which statement must be used?

Options:

A.  

json.repr(Devices)

B.  

json.dumps(Devices)

C.  

json.prints(Devices)

D.  

json.loads(Devices)

Discussion 0
Questions 217

An engineer configures GigabitEthernet 0/1 for VRRP group 115. The router must assume the primary role when it has the highest priority in the group. Which command set is required to complete this task?

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 218

In which two ways does TCAM differ from CAM? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

CAM is used to make Layer 2 forwarding decisions, and TCAM is used for Layer 3 address lookups.

B.  

The MAC address table is contained in CAM, and ACL and QoS Information Is stored in TCAM.

C.  

CAM Is used by routers for IP address lookups, and TCAM is used to make Layer 2 forwarding decisions.

D.  

CAM is used for software switching mechanisms, and TCAM is used for hardware switching mechanisms.

E.  

The MAC address table Is contained in TCAM, and ACL and QoS information is stored in CAM.

Discussion 0
Questions 219

A network engineer configures a WLAN controller with increased security for web access. There is IP connectivity with the WLAN controller, but the engineer cannot start a management session from a web browser. Which action resolves the issued

Options:

A.  

Disable JavaScript on the web browser

B.  

Disable Adobe Flash Player

C.  

Use a browser that supports 128-bit or larger ciphers.

D.  

Use a private or incognito session.

Discussion 0
Questions 220

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is troubleshooting an application running on Apple phones. The application Is receiving incorrect QoS markings. The systems administrator confirmed that ail configuration profiles are correct on the Apple devices. Which change on the WLC optimizes QoS for these devices?

Options:

A.  

Enable Fastlane

B.  

Set WMM to required

C.  

Change the QoS level to Platinum

D.  

Configure AVC Profiles

Discussion 0
Questions 221

Refer to the exhibit.

What does the output confirm about the switch's spanning tree configuration?

Options:

A.  

The spanning-tree mode stp ieee command was entered on this switch

B.  

The spanning-tree operation mode for this switch is IEEE.

C.  

The spanning-tree operation mode for this switch is PVST+.

D.  

The spanning-tree operation mode for this switch is PVST

Discussion 0
Questions 222

Refer to the exhibit. A network operator is attempting to configure an IS-IS adjacency between two routers, but the adjacency cannot be established. To troubleshoot the problem, the operator collects this debugging output. Which interfaces are misconfigured on these routers?

Options:

A.  

The peer router interface is configured as Level 1 only, and the R2 interface is configured as Level 2 only

B.  

The R2 interface is configured as Level 1 only, and the Peer router interface is configured as Level 2 only

C.  

The R2 interface is configured as point-to-point, and the peer router interface is configured as multipoint.

D.  

The peer router interface is configured as point-as-point, and the R2 interface is configured as multipoint.

Discussion 0
Questions 223

Which LISP device is responsible for publishing EID-to-RLOC mappings for a site?

Options:

A.  

ETR

B.  

MR

C.  

ITR

D.  

MS

Discussion 0
Questions 224

Which two GRE features are configured to prevent fragmentation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

TCP MSS

B.  

PMTUD

C.  

DF bit Clear

D.  

MTU ignore

E.  

IP MTU

F.  

TCP window size

Discussion 0
Questions 225

Refer to the exhibit:

An engineer configures VRRP and issues the show commands to verify operation. What does the engineer confirm about VRRP group 1 from the output?

Options:

A.  

There is no route to 10.10.1.1/32 in R2’s routing table

B.  

If R1 reboots, R2 becomes the master virtual router until R2 reboots

C.  

Communication between VRRP members is encrypted using MD5

D.  

R1 is primary if 10.10.1.1/32 is in its routing table

Discussion 0
Questions 226

Refer to the exhibit.

A company requires that all wireless users authenticate using dynamic key generation. Which configuration must be applied?

Options:

A.  

AP(config-if-ssid)# authentication open wep wep_methods

B.  

AP(config-if-ssid)# authentication dynamic wep wep_methods

C.  

AP(config-if-ssid)# authentication dynamic open wep_dynamic

D.  

AP(config-if-ssid)# authentication open eap eap_methods

Discussion 0
Questions 227

Simulation 04

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 228

Refer to the exhibit.

Why does the OSPF neighborship fail between the two interfaces?

Options:

A.  

The IP subnet mask is not the same.

B.  

There is a mismatch in the OSPF interface network type.

C.  

The OSPF timers are different.

D.  

The MTU is nor the same.

Discussion 0
Questions 229

Which two results occur if Cisco DNA Center loses connectivity to devices in the SD-Access fabric? (Choose two)

Options:

A.  

Cisco DNA Center is unable to collect monitoring data in Assurance.

B.  

All devices reload after detecting loss of connection to Cisco DNA Center.

C.  

Already connected users are unaffected, but new users cannot connect

D.  

Users lose connectivity.

E.  

User connectivity is unaffected.

Discussion 0
Questions 230

A wireless administrator must create a new web authentication corporate SSID that will be using ISE as the external RADIUS server. The guest VLAN must be specified after the authentication completes. Which action must be performed to allow the ISE server to specify the guest VLAN?

Options:

A.  

Set AAA Policy name.

B.  

Enable AAA Override

C.  

Set RADIUS Profiling

D.  

Enable Network Access Control State.

Discussion 0
Questions 231

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement is needed to complete the EEM applet and use the Tel script to store the backup file?

Options:

A.  

action 2.0 cli command "write_backup.tcl tcl"

B.  

action 2.0 cli command "flash:write_backup.tcl"

C.  

action 2.0 cli command "write_backup.tcl"

D.  

action 2.0 cli command "telsh flash:write_backup.tcl"

Discussion 0
Questions 232

Which DNS lookup does an access point perform when attempting CAPWAP discovery?

Options:

A.  

CISCO-DNA-CONTROLLER local

B.  

CAPWAP-CONTROLLER local

C.  

CISCO-CONTROLLER local

D.  

CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER local

Discussion 0
Questions 233

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the architectures on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 234

A network administrator is preparing a Python scrip to configure a Cisco IOS XE-based device on the network. The administrator is worried that colleagues will make changes to the device while the script is running. Which operation of he in client manager prevent colleague making changes to the device while the scrip is running?

Options:

A.  

m.lock(config=’running’)

B.  

m.lock(target=’running’)

C.  

m.freeze(target=’running’)

D.  

m.freeze(config=’running’)

Discussion 0
Questions 235

Why does the vBond orchestrator have a public IP?

to enable vBond to team the public IP of WAN Edge devices that are behind NAT gateways or in private address space

Options:

A.  

to facilitate downloading and distribution of operational and security patches

B.  

to allow for global reachability from all WAN Edges in the Cisco SD-WAN and

C.  

to facilitate NAT traversal to provide access

D.  

to Cisco Smart Licensing servers for license enablement

Discussion 0
Questions 236

Refer to the exhibit.

What is achieved by this Python script?

Options:

A.  

It counts JSON data from a website.

B.  

It loads JSON data into an HTTP request.

C.  

It reads JSON data into a formatted list.

D.  

It converts JSON data to an HTML document.

Discussion 0
Questions 237

Refer to the exhibit. What are two results of the NAT configuration? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

Packets with a destination of 200.1.1.1 are translated to 10.1.1.1 or .2. respectively.

B.  

A packet that is sent to 200.1.1.1 from 10.1.1.1 is translated to 209.165.201.1 on R1.

C.  

R1 looks at the destination IP address of packets entering S0/0 and destined for inside hosts.

D.  

R1 processes packets entering E0/0 and S0/0 by examining the source IP address.

E.  

R1 is performing NAT for inside addresses and outside address.

Discussion 0
Questions 238

Which JSON script is properly formatted?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 239

In a wireless network environment, what is calculated using the numencal values of the transmitter power level, cable loss, and antenna gain?

Options:

A.  

EIRP

B.  

RSSI

C.  

SNR

D.  

bBi

Discussion 0
Questions 240

Which LISP infrastructure device provides connectivity between non-sites and LISP sites by receiving non-LISP traffic with a LISP site destination?

Options:

A.  

PETR

B.  

PITR

C.  

map resolver

D.  

map server

Discussion 0
Questions 241

Drag the characteristics from the left onto the routing protocols they describe on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 242

By default, which virtual MAC address does HSRP group 41 use?

Options:

A.  

0c:5e:ac:07:0c:29

B.  

00:05:0c:07:ac:41

C.  

004:41:73:18:84:29

D.  

00:00:0c:07:ac:29

Discussion 0
Questions 243

Which action limits the total amount of memory and CPU that is used by a collection of VMs?

Options:

A.  

Place the collection of VMs in a resource pool.

B.  

Place the collection of VMs in a vApp.

C.  

Limit the amount of memory and CPU that is available to the cluster.

D.  

Limit the amount of memory and CPU that is available to the individual VMs.

Discussion 0
Questions 244

Which solution supports end to end line-rate encryption between two sites?

Options:

A.  

IPsec

B.  

TrustSec

C.  

MACseC

D.  

GRE

Discussion 0
Questions 245

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration must be applied to ensure that the preferred path for traffic from AS 65010 toward AS 65020 uses the R2 to R4 path?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 246

An engineer applies this EEM applet to a router:

What does the applet accomplish?

Options:

A.  

It generates a syslog message every 600 seconds on the status of the specified MAC address.

B.  

It checks the MAC address table every 600 seconds to see if the specified address has been learned.

C.  

It compares syslog output to the MAC address table every 600 seconds and generates an event when there is a match.

D.  

It compares syslog output to the MAC address table every 600 seconds and generates an event when no match is found.

Discussion 0
Questions 247

Refer to the exhibit. Which two configurations enable R1 and R2 to advertise routes into OSPF? (Choose two)

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

E) Option E

Discussion 0
Questions 248

What is the purpose of the weight attribute in an EID-lo-RLOC mapping?

Options:

A.  

it indicates the preference for using LISP over native IP connectivity.

B.  

it determines the administrative distance of LISP generated routes in the RIB

C.  

It identifies the preferred RLOC address family.

D.  

it indicates the load-balancing ratio between CTRs of 9m earns priority.

Discussion 0
Questions 249

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the switching architectures on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 250

Which security measure mitigates a man-in-the-middle attack of a REST API?

Options:

A.  

SSL certificates

B.  

biometric authentication

C.  

password hash

D.  

non repudiotion feature

Discussion 0
Questions 251

Refer lo the exhibit.

Which address type is 10.10.10.10 configured for?

Options:

A.  

inside global

B.  

outside local

C.  

outside global

D.  

inside local

Discussion 0
Questions 252

Refer to the exhibit.

Which antenna emits this radiation pattern?

Options:

A.  

omnidirectional

B.  

Yagi

C.  

RP-TNC

D.  

dish

Discussion 0