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Check Point Certified Security Administrator R82 Question and Answers

Check Point Certified Security Administrator R82

Last Update Oct 12, 2026
Total Questions : 192

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Questions 1

Select the correct description of the Identity Collector.

Options:

A.  

Acquires identities using Identity Agents installed on user endpoint computer

B.  

Acquires identities using Identity Agents installed on Active Directory Domain Controllers, Cisco Identity Services Engine Servers or NetlQ eDirectory Servers

C.  

Acquire identities from Identity Agents installed on a Windows-based application server that hosts Terminal Servers, Citrix XenApp. and Citrix XenDesktop services

D.  

Acquires identities seamlessly from Microsoft Active Directory

Discussion 0
Questions 2

Which statement is a best practice concerning a Cleanup rule?

Options:

A.  

A Cleanup rule should be placed at the bottom of the rulebase.

B.  

A Cleanup rule is optional and not considered Best Practice.

C.  

A Cleanup rule could be used to terminate VPN tunnels on purpose.

D.  

A Cleanup rule should be placed at the top of the rulebase to increase security and performance alike.

Discussion 0
Questions 3

Select the correct order of Enforcement for Ordered Layers.

Options:

A.  

When a packet arrives at the Security Gateway if Action of the matching rule is Accept, the Security Gateway stops matching against later rules and accepts the packet.

B.  

When a packet arrives at the Security Gateway if Action of the matching rule is Drop, the Security Gateway stops matching against later rules in current Layer and continues to check rules in the next Ordered Layer

C.  

When a packet arrives at the Security Gateway if Action of the matching rule is Drop, the Security Gateway stops matching against later rules in the Policy Rule Base and drops the packet

D.  

When a packet arrives at the Security Gateway if Action of the matching rule is Accept, the Security Gateway stops matching against later rules in current Layer and continues to check rules in the previous Ordered Layer

Discussion 0
Questions 4

What is the role of real-time updates in Application Control and URL Filtering?

Options:

A.  

They ensure accurate categorization of applications and websites

B.  

They encrypt traffic between gateways

C.  

They manage user authentication

D.  

They reduce the need for HTTPS Inspection

Discussion 0
Questions 5

Which type of Control Model is used in Application Control & URL Filtering and Content Awareness Policy?

Options:

A.  

Permissive Control Model (also known as Whitelist Model)

B.  

Restrictive Control Model (also known as Blacklist Model)

C.  

Positive Control Model (also known as Whitelist Model)

D.  

Negative Control Model (also known as Blacklist Model)

Discussion 0
Questions 6

What is the keyboard shortcut for installing a policy?

Options:

A.  

CTRL+ENTER

B.  

SHIFT+ENTER

C.  

CTRL+S

D.  

CTRL+SHIFT+ENTER

Discussion 0
Questions 7

How many predefined Security Zones as a starting point are available in a newly installed Security Management Server?

Options:

A.  

5

B.  

4

C.  

3

D.  

6

Discussion 0
Questions 8

When a packet arrives at the Security Gateway, the Security Gateway checks it against the rules in the Ordered Layers.

Where does the implied Policy (Implied rules) get checked and enforced?

Options:

A.  

Implied rules First Rules apply to the first Ordered Layer in the Access Control policy. Implied rules Before last and Last are applied only to the last Ordered Layer in the list.

B.  

Implied rules apply to each layer in the Access Control policy.

C.  

Implied rules apply only to the first Ordered Layer only in the Access Control policy.

D.  

Implied rules apply only to the first Ordered Layer in the Access Control policy but if there is an Inline Layer then the Implied rules are checked again if the parent rule is matched and before the Inline Layer is checked.

Discussion 0
Questions 9

What is the advantage of Autonomous Threat Prevention?

Options:

A.  

cheaper licenses than classis threat prevention

B.  

less resource consumption than classis Threat Prevention

C.  

Single-Click configuration

D.  

better protection than manual threat prevention

Discussion 0
Questions 10

Primary capabilities of Autonomous Threat Prevention include the following

Options:

A.  

Automatic configuration updates

B.  

Manual configuration updates

C.  

Complex configuration and deployment

D.  

no customization

Discussion 0
Questions 11

Which of the following is the default role-based shell on Gaia?

Options:

A.  

Expert

B.  

AdvancedCLI

C.  

Supermode

D.  

Clish

Discussion 0
Questions 12

What is the last step involved in the high-level session workflow for administrators?

Options:

A.  

SmartConsole Logout

B.  

Removing the Session ID or take over a session from another administrator

C.  

SmartConsole typing password for the specified administrator account

D.  

Session Discard or Publish

Discussion 0
Questions 13

What is the most appropriate statement about methods of managing objects in SmartConsole?

Options:

A.  

Objects can be managed by various methods like New Menu in Gateways & Servers, Objects Menu, Object Explorer, or, Rules in the Security Policy

B.  

Only Gateway and Management Objects are managed from the New Menu in Gateways and Servers. All other objects can be managed from Objects Menu or Object Explorer. Objects can only be selected in the Rules in Security Policy

C.  

Objects can only be managed from the Object Explorer, however they can be viewed in the Rules in Security Policy

D.  

Objects can be management either from Objects Menu or from Object Explorer. All other methods including the Rules in Security Policy are for view only

Discussion 0
Questions 14

Which of the following best describes how Access Role objects enhance identity-based policies in SmartConsole?

Options:

A.  

They store logs of user activity for auditing

B.  

They replace the need for traditional firewall rules

C.  

They allow grouping of users, computers, and networks into a single rule condition

D.  

They authenticate users before granting access

Discussion 0
Questions 15

Which feature of Autonomous Threat Prevention ensures that organizations benefit from the latest protections without manual configuration?

Options:

A.  

Threat Emulation

B.  

Manual policy tuning

C.  

Automatic configuration updates

D.  

Static NAT enforcement

Discussion 0
Questions 16

What methods could be used with Custom Queries for querying logs?

Options:

A.  

The syntax consists of Boolean operators, wildcards, fields and ranges.

B.  

The syntax is referred to as PCRE which stands for Perl compatible Regular Expression.

C.  

The syntax has to be converted into BASE64 format to randomize some security-relevant parameters.

D.  

The syntax is the same as used in fw monitor or tcpdump.

Discussion 0
Questions 17

What is one main purpose of URL Filtering?

Options:

A.  

Automatic translation of foreign web sites into your preferred language.

B.  

Specify the application which should be blocked during business hours, such as Facebook-Game, Indeed-Chat, among others.

C.  

Synchronizing verdicts on URL Categories for better hit rates.

D.  

Use URL Categories to block access to malicious or non-work-related websites.

Discussion 0
Questions 18

You have been tasked with determining how much resources will be consumed by a potential HTTPS inspection deployment.

Which of the following tools can you use?

Options:

A.  

listening mode

B.  

Learning mode

C.  

inbound HTTPS inspection only

D.  

Full Deployment

Discussion 0
Questions 19

What is the primary purpose of Check Point Identity Awareness?

Options:

A.  

To manage network traffic

B.  

To provide out-of-the-box threat prevention

C.  

To enforce access and audit data based on identity

D.  

To monitor user activity

Discussion 0
Questions 20

How does Application Control identify applications on the network?

Options:

A.  

By decrypting all HTTPS traffic

B.  

By matching IP addresses to known services

C.  

By analyzing DNS queries

D.  

By using traffic signatures regardless of port or protocol

Discussion 0
Questions 21

How should you exit Expert Mode?

Options:

A.  

by typing the " bye " command

B.  

By pressing the С and CTRL Keys

C.  

by typing the " quit " command

D.  

by typing the " exit " command

Discussion 0
Questions 22

What is the purpose of the Cleanup Rule in a security policy?

Options:

A.  

To accept all unmatched traffic

B.  

To log all security events

C.  

To block all known malicious traffic

D.  

To drop or reject all traffic that does not match any rule in the rulebase

Discussion 0
Questions 23

What is the difference between the Positive Control Model and the Negative Control Model?

Options:

A.  

The Positive Control Model allows is what routers use and simply route traffic with no security rules. The Negative Control Model is what firewalls use and they require explicit rules to allow and route traffic.

B.  

The Positive Control Model allows specific, approved actions or traffic and blocks everything else. The Negative Control Model begins by blocking specific, known threats, or unwanted actions and allows everything else.

C.  

The Positive Control Model begins by blocking specific, known threats, or unwanted actions and allows everything else. The Negative Control Model allows specific, approved actions or traffic and blocks everything else.

D.  

The Positive Control Model aims to keep administrators in a positive mind set. The Negative Control Model results in administrators having a negative mind set.

Discussion 0
Questions 24

During a routine audit, an administrator needs to review which users made changes to the security policy.

Which log type should be reviewed?

Options:

A.  

Security Logs

B.  

Audit Logs

C.  

Traffic Logs

D.  

Compliance Logs

Discussion 0
Questions 25

Which profile is optimized for protecting east-west traffic in cloud and on-premises data centers?

Options:

A.  

Cloud/Data Center

B.  

Internal Network

C.  

Guests Network

D.  

Perimeter

Discussion 0
Questions 26

SmartConsole objects can represent _______.

Options:

A.  

server, virtual, or cloud components

B.  

networks, virtual, or cloud components

C.  

physical, virtual, or logical network components

D.  

networks, virtual, or logical network components

Discussion 0
Questions 27

Select the correct description of the Outbound HTTPS Inspection.

Options:

A.  

It protects internal servers by Man in the Middle style interception

B.  

It performs a Man in the Middle style interception on outbound HTTPS connections initiated by an internal users

C.  

It performs a Man in the Middle style interception on outbound HTTPS connections initiated by both internal users and hosts on the Internet

D.  

It performs a Man in the Middle style interception on outbound HTTPS connections initiated by hosts on the Internet

Discussion 0
Questions 28

Choose what best describes how Outbound HTTPS Inspection works.

Options:

A.  

The user’s browser and the web server perform the HTTPS negotiation, which is monitored by the Security Gateway to collect the encryption keys. Once the encrypted communication between the user and the web server begins, the Security Gateway intercepts and decrypts it with the acquired encryption key.

B.  

The Security Gateway impersonates the requested Web Site and completes the HTTPS negotiation. A separate HTTPS-encrypted connection is automatically created between Security Gateway and the web server.

C.  

The user must insert a static encryption key provided by the filewall, into their browser. All HTTPS communication by the user’s browser is always encrypted with this key. As the key is provided by the Security Gateway, it can decrypt the communication between the user and the web server

D.  

When HTTPS Inspection is enabled on the Security Gateway, a JavaScript payload is sent to the user’s browser when a request to connect to HTTPS websites is made. The JavaScript code inserts a Browser Helper Module (BHO) that helps detects and shares the encryption key with the Security Gateway.

Discussion 0
Questions 29

Which type of administrator account is used to log in to the Gaia Portal or Gaia Clish command line?

Options:

A.  

Primary Security Management Server admin account

B.  

Gaia admin account

C.  

API admin account

D.  

SmartConsole admin account

Discussion 0
Questions 30

A company wants to allow access to social media sites but block file uploads through those platforms.

Which combination of features best supports this requirement?

Options:

A.  

Application Control and Content Awareness

B.  

URL Filtering and NAT features

C.  

Identity Awareness and VPN

D.  

HTTPS Inspection and Threat Emulation

Discussion 0
Questions 31

What is the purpose of the Explicit Default Cleanup Rule?

Options:

A.  

To forward unmatched traffic

B.  

To accept unmatched traffic

C.  

To drop unmatched traffic

D.  

To encrypt unmatched traffic

Discussion 0
Questions 32

An administrator wants to simulate threat prevention without impacting traffic.

Which profile should be used?

Options:

A.  

Monitor

B.  

Internal Network

C.  

Guests Network

D.  

Strict Security

Discussion 0
Questions 33

What is the difference between generating logs per connection or per session?

Options:

A.  

Per Session is only available for URL Filtering, whereas the Connection could be applied to URL Filtering as well as Application Control.

B.  

Per connection means that a log is generated for each connection in the session while per session means that only one log per session is generated.

C.  

Per Session means that you will get the name of application in Application Control, although the applications were not specified in the rule base. Per Connections means that you will get the whole list of content in the Content Awareness blade.

D.  

Per session means that a log is collected for each session in a connection while per connection means that only one log is collected per session.

Discussion 0
Questions 34

What is the correct default permission profile?

Options:

A.  

Super Admin

B.  

Super Profile

C.  

Super Permission

D.  

Super User

Discussion 0
Questions 35

How do you match a user or a computer identity in the security policy?

Options:

A.  

Use identity awareness objects in source or destination columns.

B.  

Use the AD Query Object in source or destination column.

C.  

Use a user or a user group object in source or destination column.

D.  

Use Access Role Objects in source or destination columns.

Discussion 0
Questions 36

What is the purpose of the Objects menu in SmartConsole?

Options:

A.  

To monitor network traffic

B.  

To configure system settings

C.  

To install policies

D.  

To create and manage objects

Discussion 0
Questions 37

When Accounting is enabled what is the time interval the logs are being updated?

Options:

A.  

The log is updated in 10-minute intervals.

B.  

The log update interval has to be specified as a firewall kernel parameter.

C.  

The log is updated in 10-minute intervals or if 20 MB of log data is collected.

D.  

The log update interval varies upon the queued user mode processes on the Management Servers, such as FWD, CPD, CPM.

Discussion 0
Questions 38

The Security Gateway uses Implied and Explicit rules to determine whether connections are allowed or denied.

Where can the administrator view the Implied rules?

Options:

A.  

SmartConsole > MANAGE & SETTINGS > Blades > Firewall > Implied rules

B.  

Use the command fw stat --implied-rules or the CLISH command show security-gateway implied-rules

C.  

SmartConsole > SECURITY POLICIES > Actions > Implied rules

D.  

The Implied rules cannot be viewed in the SmartConsole. They are hidden and are there to allow Control Connections, including policy installation and log traffic.

Discussion 0
Questions 39

A company wants to monitor VPN tunnel status and gateway performance in real time.

Which tool should they use?

Options:

A.  

SmartConsole Logs View

B.  

SmartUpdate

C.  

SmartView Monitor

D.  

SmartEvent

Discussion 0
Questions 40

Inline Layers are evaluated against the rules; if none of the rules match _____ is applied.

Options:

A.  

the Accept action

B.  

the Implicit Cleanup Rule

C.  

the Drop action

D.  

the Explicit Cleanup Rule if exists

Discussion 0
Questions 41

Select the correct description of the Explicit Rules.

Options:

A.  

Explicit rules are created by the administrator

B.  

Explicit rules are created in Security Policies by the Security Management Server

C.  

Explicit rules are created by the Security Gateway

D.  

Explicit rules are created in the Global Properties on the Security Management Server

Discussion 0
Questions 42

How is an Autonomous Threat Prevention Policy created?

Options:

A.  

Automatically by AI

B.  

Automatically downloaded from the Threat Cloud Repository.

C.  

Manually downloaded from the Threat Cloud

D.  

Automatically, but the date and time of the updates must be added to a cron job.

Discussion 0
Questions 43

What management solution does Check Point offer as a service to deliver unified management for self-hosted Security Gateways, and ensures secure multifactor authentication access?

Options:

A.  

CloudGuard SaaS

B.  

CloudGuard Network Security

C.  

Smart-1 Cloud

D.  

SMS Cloud Extension Hotfix (SCEH)

Discussion 0
Questions 44

What should be added at the end of each Ordered Layer?

Options:

A.  

Implicit Cleanup Rule

B.  

Explicit Cleanup Rule

C.  

Logging Rule

D.  

NAT Rule

Discussion 0
Questions 45

Application Control and URL Filtering can be combined with which of the Security measures?

Options:

A.  

HTTPS Inspection and Content Awareness.

B.  

Integration with an OPSEC-certified AAA Server

C.  

HTTPS Inspection and Data Integrity Checking.

D.  

OPSEC-certified Reporting Server using LEA and ELA interfaces for bidirectional communication with the Management Server.

Discussion 0
Questions 46

What is the role of the " Perimeter " profile in Autonomous Threat Prevention?

Options:

A.  

It provides aggressive protection for north-south traffic

B.  

To simulate protection without enforcement

C.  

It is a default profile for any security deployment

D.  

It is used to monitor traffic without enforcement

Discussion 0
Questions 47

Identify the default username and password for a newly installed Check Point appliance.

Options:

A.  

admin/password

B.  

admin/Chkp1234

C.  

cpadmin/cpadmin

D.  

admin/admin

Discussion 0
Questions 48

What is the purpose of the " Fail Mode " setting in HTTPS Inspection?

Options:

A.  

To enforce strict NAT policies

B.  

To define how the gateway handles inspection failures

C.  

To disable inspection for internal traffic

D.  

To allow only HTTP traffic

Discussion 0
Questions 49

The Access Control Policy includes which of these features?

Options:

A.  

Firewall, Application & URL Filtering, Content Awareness, IPsec VPN and Mobile Access, Identity Awareness

B.  

Firewall, Application & U RL Filtering, Data Loss Prevention, IPsec VPN and Mobile Access, Identity Awareness

C.  

Firewall, Application & U RL Filtering, antivirus, IPsec VPN and Mobile Access, Identity Awareness

D.  

Firewall, Application & U RL Filtering, file content analysis, IPsec VPN and Mobile Access, Identity Awareness

Discussion 0
Questions 50

In Check Point Security Management, what is the term for a logical grouping of one or more policy types? (For example: Access Control, QoS, Desktop Security, Threat Prevention)

Options:

A.  

Unified Policy

B.  

Global Policy

C.  

Group Policy Object (GPO)

D.  

Policy Package

Discussion 0
Questions 51

What is a benefit of https inspection?

Options:

A.  

Blocking sites

B.  

Filtering malicious content

C.  

Controlling bandwidth

D.  

Monitoring applications

Discussion 0
Questions 52

What is a recommended best practice after deploying Autonomous Threat Prevention?

Options:

A.  

Regularly monitor logs and reports for unusual activity

B.  

Use the same profile for all network segments

C.  

Disable logging to improve performance

D.  

Avoid customizing any profiles

Discussion 0
Questions 53

What is the purpose of the Change Log in SmartConsole?

Options:

A.  

To install security policies

B.  

To manage user sessions

C.  

To keep a record of changes made to objects

D.  

To monitor network traffic

Discussion 0
Questions 54

What is true of the URL Filtering Software Blade?

Options:

A.  

It’s part of HTTPS Inspection Policy

B.  

It’s part of URL Filtering policy

C.  

It’s part of the Access Control Policy

D.  

It’s part of Threat Prevention Policy

Discussion 0
Questions 55

What is the purpose of the Security Policies menu in SmartConsole?

Options:

A.  

To create and manage security policies

B.  

To monitor security logs

C.  

To install policies

D.  

To configure system settings

Discussion 0