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CISI UAE Financial Rules and Regulations Exam Question and Answers

CISI UAE Financial Rules and Regulations Exam

Last Update Oct 12, 2026
Total Questions : 186

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Questions 1

A public joint-stock company is automatically prevented by the regulations from executing a buyback transaction if it:

Options:

A.  

is formally classed as an insurance company

B.  

has been designated a company of State importance

C.  

issued shares in a public offer in the last six months

D.  

was incorporated in the last three years

Discussion 0
Questions 2

The role of the authorised agent of the exchange-traded fund (ETF) is to:

Options:

A.  

announce the net value of the unit’s assets on a daily basis

B.  

regularly announce the indicative value of the net value of assets

C.  

update sell and buy orders

D.  

ensure that the transfer of ownership of units is completed

Discussion 0
Questions 3

Which of the following is the criminal penalty for any person who uses proceeds for the financing of terrorism?

Options:

A.  

Life imprisonment or temporary imprisonment of no less than ten years, and a penalty of no less than AED 300,000 and no more than AED 10,000,000

B.  

Temporary imprisonment of no less than ten years, and a penalty of no less than AED 300,000 and no more than AED 10,000,000

C.  

Life imprisonment and a penalty of no less than AED 500,000 and no more than AED 10,000,000

D.  

Life imprisonment and a penalty of no less than AED 300,000 and no more than AED 1,000,000

Discussion 0
Questions 4

The main purpose of the committee established by the Authority to monitor companies on the watch list is to ensure that they:

Options:

A.  

Publish regular updates on their accumulated losses

B.  

Follow all money laundering and terrorist financing laws

C.  

Comply with the disclosure and listing requirements

D.  

Treat all shareholders on a fair and equitable basis

Discussion 0
Questions 5

In which of the following circumstances is a brokerage company, which is both a trading and clearing member, allowed to freeze a client's securities?

Options:

A.  

The client's account has been inactive for over two years

B.  

The company has reasonable grounds to suspect money laundering

C.  

The client no longer has a permanent residence inside the State

D.  

The action is taken in accordance with the market procedures

Discussion 0
Questions 6

A Special Purpose Acquisition Company deposited 95% of its public subscription proceeds into an escrow account. It is permitted to use this money to:

Options:

A.  

Meet recovery requests by the investors

B.  

Finance an internal restructuring programme

C.  

Hedge against adverse market movements

D.  

Fund the issue of additional shares

Discussion 0
Questions 7

The Authority suspects a person offering crypto assets of violating regulations and wants to examine the firm's computer systems, computer equipment and data traffic. Which of these does it have the power to access and inspect?

Options:

A.  

Systems and equipment only

B.  

Equipment and data traffic only

C.  

Data traffic and systems only

D.  

Systems, equipment and data traffic

Discussion 0
Questions 8

The minimum price movement for an MSCI India Index Futures (INR) contract is:

Options:

A.  

0.5 index points

B.  

US$0.01

C.  

US$1.00

D.  

0.25 index points

Discussion 0
Questions 9

Within what maximum period following approval of the listing of a security must the Depository Centre install a terminal device giving the listing entity access to the register?

Options:

A.  

3 days

B.  

1 week

C.  

15 days

D.  

3 weeks

Discussion 0
Questions 10

DFM brokerage firms are required to ensure that employees have appropriate professional experience if they:

Options:

A.  

are on full-time or substantial part-time contracts

B.  

are new to the company or the industry

C.  

are employed to deal with clients or on their behalf

D.  

are employed to operate an electronic trading or clearing system

Discussion 0
Questions 11

If the mid-point is used to determine the theoretical auction price for a pre-closing session of the DFM, it is:

Options:

A.  

rounded to one decimal place

B.  

rounded to two decimal places

C.  

rounded up to the nearest price tick

D.  

rounded down to the nearest price tick

Discussion 0
Questions 12

The role of the safe custodian in relation to exchange-traded funds (ETFs) is to:

Options:

A.  

Announce the net value of the unit's assets on a daily basis

B.  

Implement the investment policy

C.  

Update sell and buy orders

D.  

Ensure that the transfer of ownership of units is completed

Discussion 0
Questions 13

An Authority resolution was passed by the Chairman alone. Why was this possible?

Options:

A.  

It was impossible to hold a meeting with all Board members present

B.  

The Chairman holds a casting vote which can be used whenever considered appropriate

C.  

It was an exceptional case where a quick decision needed to be taken, and it was impossible to hold a meeting of the Board

D.  

Board members abstained due to a conflict of interest

Discussion 0
Questions 14

Under the DFM's Professional Code of Conduct, a broker must wait to publish verified information relating to the status of a market-listed entity until:

Options:

A.  

The Authority grants approval for the publication

B.  

The details are made public by the relevant entity

C.  

The firm signs a conflict-of-interest disclaimer

D.  

The likely impact of the data is assessed

Discussion 0
Questions 15

The DFM’s Professional Code of Conduct requires brokerage firms to take reasonable steps to determine the identity of their clients. For natural persons, this should include:

Options:

A.  

full name of portfolio manager

B.  

profession, exact address, PO Box and phone number

C.  

commercial register number and commercial licence

D.  

nature of the entity, its legal form, type and capital

Discussion 0
Questions 16

When a firm applies for a licence, it is only necessary to provide an exit strategy plan covering contract termination with an outsourced party if the firm intends to:

Options:

A.  

Use cloud computing services

B.  

Use a service based outside the State

C.  

Enter into a contract for five or more years

D.  

Enter into a contract which is not legally enforceable

Discussion 0
Questions 17

Customer due diligence measures require management approval if the natural person involved is:

Options:

A.  

under the age of 21

B.  

registered as disabled

C.  

normally resident outside the State

D.  

a politically exposed person

Discussion 0
Questions 18

A real estate investment fund may borrow no more than what percentage of its total assets value?

Options:

A.  

10%

B.  

25%

C.  

50%

D.  

75%

Discussion 0
Questions 19

During a trading session, if an order is not fully executed, then:

Options:

A.  

the order will be dealt with at the next trading session

B.  

the transaction is executed at the price set on the other side of the transaction

C.  

the remaining unexecuted volume is cancelled and a new order is placed, at the last executed price

D.  

the remaining unexecuted volume stays on the trading system, at the last executed price

Discussion 0
Questions 20

The DFM's Professional Code of Conduct requires brokerage firms to take reasonable steps to determine the identity of their clients. For corporate persons, this should include:

Options:

A.  

Full name and nationality of any portfolio manager

B.  

Profession, exact address, PO Box and phone number

C.  

Commercial register number and commercial licence

D.  

Nature of the entity, its legal form, type and capital

Discussion 0
Questions 21

In order to deal in securities, what minimum level of paid-up capital must a firm have?

Options:

A.  

AED 10 million

B.  

AED 20 million

C.  

AED 30 million

D.  

AED 50 million

Discussion 0
Questions 22

When a licensed firm refers a client complaint to another body, it must:

Options:

A.  

Notify the complainant by telephone or email

B.  

Continue handling any part of the complaint that was not referred

C.  

Suspend handling any part of the complaint that was not referred

D.  

Advise the complainant that they have 30 days to appeal this action

Discussion 0
Questions 23

What is the maximum term of imprisonment that can be imposed on a person who attempts to commit the crime of money laundering?

Options:

A.  

Three years

B.  

Five years

C.  

Seven years

D.  

Ten years

Discussion 0
Questions 24

The Authority will only grant a licence to operate a crypto fundraising platform in the UAE if the applicant is a legal person in the form of:

Options:

A.  

an exchange licensed by the Authority in the UAE

B.  

a sophisticated trader or a qualified investor

C.  

a company incorporated under Shariah law

D.  

an exchange licensed by a market in the UAE

Discussion 0
Questions 25

Membership of an Authority regulated market is obligatory for which of the following entities?

Options:

A.  

Licensed brokers

B.  

Listed joint-stock companies and licensed brokers

C.  

Listed joint-stock companies, licensed brokers and other listed entities

D.  

Listed joint-stock companies, licensed brokers and any other type of business entity

Discussion 0
Questions 26

Where debt instruments are held by cash investment funds, the credit rating of these instruments must reach what minimum threshold?

Options:

A.  

BB

B.  

BB+

C.  

BBB

D.  

BBB+

Discussion 0
Questions 27

When a company applies to become a Special Purpose Acquisition Company, its sponsors must prepare proposals to:

Options:

A.  

manage conflicts of interest

B.  

identify potential money laundering

C.  

reduce the risk to investors

D.  

deal with succession planning

Discussion 0
Questions 28

Following an IPO, within how many business days from the date of the registration certificate issued by the Authority must the Special Purpose Acquisition Company submit a request to the market to list the shares and warrants issued by it?

Options:

A.  

One

B.  

Two

C.  

Three

D.  

Five

Discussion 0
Questions 29

The conciliation process allows the Authority to impose what alternative to criminal prosecution?

Options:

A.  

Suspension of activities for a specified period

B.  

Payment of a prescribed amount of money

C.  

Referral to the Central Bank

D.  

Negotiated out-of-court settlement

Discussion 0
Questions 30

A licensed body submitted a requested document to the Authority and a short time later noticed that it was incomplete. How soon must it notify the Authority of this issue?

Options:

A.  

Immediately

B.  

Within a maximum of 48 hours

C.  

Within a maximum of 72 hours

D.  

By the end of that working week

Discussion 0
Questions 31

The disclosure of a licensed body’s legal status, including the fact that it is licensed by the Authority, is important because:

Options:

A.  

it ensures that no clients suffer from perceived or actual misbehaviour at the hands of a firm which is regulated

B.  

it enables those that might suffer from perceived or actual misbehaviour at the hands of a firm to raise their concerns with the regulator

C.  

it forces firms to disclose their regulatory status and that they are subject to the Authority’s control and supervision

D.  

it allows third party firms to use, utilise, or copy the Authority’s logo for any reason and this reassures clients

Discussion 0
Questions 32

Where an existing public company wants to issue further shares via a rights issue, this must be announced at least what minimum period before the start date of the subscription?

Options:

A.  

20 business days

B.  

28 calendar days

C.  

40 business days

D.  

56 calendar days

Discussion 0
Questions 33

Which of the following conditions must an individual satisfy if they are to carry out an evaluation for an in-kind share transfer?

Options:

A.  

They must have at least three years' experience evaluating this type of asset

B.  

They must be on an Authority list of provisionally or fully approved evaluators

C.  

They must be a qualified accountant or auditor

D.  

They must sign a declaration of impartiality

Discussion 0
Questions 34

Which of the following acts is considered to constitute the crime of money laundering?

Options:

A.  

Investigating internal reports where concerns of illegal activities are raised by staff

B.  

Transferring or moving proceeds or conducting any transaction with the aim of highlighting or opening their source to scrutiny

C.  

Investigating or checking on the true nature, source or location of proceeds as well as the method involving their ownership

D.  

Acquiring, possessing or using proceeds from an unverified source

Discussion 0
Questions 35

Which of the following is a sanction available to the Authority in the event of a violation of its provisions?

Options:

A.  

Impose a financial fine of not more than AED 100,000

B.  

Impose a financial fine of not less than AED 100,000

C.  

Suspend the licensed body for a period of two years

D.  

Suspend any financial activity practised during an investigation

Discussion 0
Questions 36

In cases where securities are bought and sold during the same trading session, the client must have in its cash account enough:

Options:

A.  

credit to cover the value of purchase

B.  

credit to cover the value of sale

C.  

credit to cover the value of any losses

D.  

securities to the value of purchase

Discussion 0
Questions 37

A key reason why the regulator applies financial promotion rules is to ensure that:

Options:

A.  

the market is kept competitive

B.  

the customers are treated fairly

C.  

the impact of operational risk is avoided

D.  

the available product range is maximised

Discussion 0
Questions 38

An obligor with a retail primary listing of Sukuk immediately notified the Authority when one of its board directors was replaced. Why was the obligor considered to be in breach of its continuing obligations?

Options:

A.  

The obligor failed to give 14 days' notice

B.  

The obligor failed to also notify the market

C.  

The new director held a foreign passport

D.  

The new director had less than 5 years' experience

Discussion 0
Questions 39

Where a local investment fund is established by an entity licensed to conduct family investment management, what minimum proportion of the units must be owned by family members?

Options:

A.  

51%

B.  

75%

C.  

90%

D.  

100%

Discussion 0
Questions 40

Designated non-financial businesses and professions are banned under the regulations from dealing with which type of organisation?

Options:

A.  

Shell banks

B.  

Mutual co-operatives

C.  

Benefit corporations

D.  

Non-profit organisations

Discussion 0
Questions 41

A fund manager is considering investing in medium-term bonds, commercial papers, and deposit certificates. Under the regulations, which of these can be held under a cash investment fund?

Options:

A.  

Medium-term bonds and commercial papers only

B.  

Commercial papers and deposit certificates only

C.  

Deposit certificates and medium-term bonds only

D.  

Medium-term bonds, commercial papers and deposit certificates

Discussion 0
Questions 42

In what circumstances may representatives of a broker or employees of brokerage firms trade for their own accounts?

Options:

A.  

Only through the account of a spouse or family member, with written approval of the brokerage firm manager and the Authority

B.  

Only through their own firms and upon written approval of the brokerage firm manager and the Authority

C.  

Only through their own firms and upon written approval of the brokerage firm manager and the DFM

D.  

Only through other firms and upon written approval of the brokerage firm manager and the Authority

Discussion 0
Questions 43

Firms providing investment management services must also provide periodic statements, unless:

Options:

A.  

The client's portfolio is leveraged

B.  

The client requests not to receive them

C.  

Investments are higher-risk securities

D.  

They are provided by another party

Discussion 0
Questions 44

Which of the following features of a previous order can be changed with the order remaining valid?

Options:

A.  

Share category

B.  

Market

C.  

Order type

D.  

Volume

Discussion 0
Questions 45

The watch list, which is monitored by an Authority-established committee, consists of which group of companies?

Options:

A.  

Companies in the first category

B.  

Companies in the second category

C.  

All private companies which have declared losses in the last 12 months

D.  

All public companies which have declared losses in the last 12 months

Discussion 0
Questions 46

If the perpetrator of a money laundering crime is a repeat offender, what impact does this have on the minimum fine compared to a first offence?

Options:

A.  

It is increased by 50%

B.  

It is doubled

C.  

It is tripled

D.  

It is quadrupled

Discussion 0
Questions 47

Where a trust agreement is established in connection with a primary listing of Sukuk, a key function of this agreement is to ensure that:

Options:

A.  

The Sukuk holders receive a guaranteed level of income

B.  

The Sukuk holders do not suffer from any conflict of interest

C.  

The trustees have the right to obtain all the necessary information

D.  

The trustees have a contractual relationship with the regulator

Discussion 0
Questions 48

The approved job for conducting securities dealing is:

Options:

A.  

Trading Manager

B.  

Operations Manager

C.  

Broker Representative

D.  

Category Manager

Discussion 0
Questions 49

Where the fund prospectus for an investment fund discloses the provision of in-kind shares, it must also state the:

Options:

A.  

Possibility of subsequent fluctuations in their value

B.  

Alternative assets that were considered

C.  

Reason why an evaluation report was not required

D.  

Specific legislation under which this is permitted

Discussion 0
Questions 50

In order to be authorised to deal in investments, which of the following professional roles would the Authority expect to see within the firm?

Options:

A.  

Trading Manager

B.  

Compliance Officer

C.  

Operations Manager

D.  

Broker Representative

Discussion 0
Questions 51

The minimum paid-up capital requirement for ranking and advice firms is:

Options:

A.  

none

B.  

AED 5 million

C.  

AED 30 million

D.  

AED 50 million

Discussion 0
Questions 52

What additional rule applies to a venture capital fund once the value of its managed assets reaches AED 180 million?

Options:

A.  

An additional cash buffer must be created

B.  

The assets must be reconciled more frequently

C.  

Quarterly IFRS reporting must be implemented

D.  

A Risk Management Officer must be appointed

Discussion 0
Questions 53

Which of the following financial activities comes under the fifth category licence?

Options:

A.  

Arrangement and advice

B.  

Credit rating agencies

C.  

Dealing in securities

D.  

Dealing in investments

Discussion 0
Questions 54

An applicant for a license from the Authority has submitted a feasibility study and work plan. What method will be used to evaluate this?

Options:

A.  

An operational risk matrix

B.  

Comparison with the same sector

C.  

A stress testing exercise

D.  

SWOT analysis

Discussion 0
Questions 55

If a listed company faces accumulated losses of 50% or more of capital, what is required to happen?

Options:

A.  

It is moved from a second category listing to a first category of listing

B.  

It is moved from a first category listing to a second category of listing

C.  

Its shares are suspended for at least six months

D.  

It is required to be audited more frequently

Discussion 0