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International Certificate in Wealth & Investment Management Question and Answers

International Certificate in Wealth & Investment Management

Last Update Apr 15, 2026
Total Questions : 254

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Questions 1

The seller of an option is also known as the:

Options:

A.  

Holder

B.  

Writer

C.  

Taker

D.  

Provider

Discussion 0
Questions 2

Which financial instrument is the corporate equivalent of a Treasury Bill?

Options:

A.  

Bearer Securities

B.  

Bill of Exchange

C.  

Certificates of Deposit

D.  

Commercial Paper

Discussion 0
Questions 3

In the short run, labour and raw materials are:

Options:

A.  

Fixed costs

B.  

Average costs

C.  

Marginal costs

D.  

Variable costs

Discussion 0
Questions 4

Unsecured negotiable bearer securities that are issued by companies with a full stock market listing are known as:

Options:

A.  

Certificates of Deposit

B.  

Commercial Paper

C.  

Bills of Exchange

D.  

Treasury Bills

Discussion 0
Questions 5

Which term is used to describe a dividend payment made by a company with insufficient earnings to do so?

Options:

A.  

An ex-dividend payment

B.  

A proxy dividend payment

C.  

A scrip dividend payment

D.  

An uncovered dividend payment

Discussion 0
Questions 6

Which type of individual is most likely to be subject to enhanced due diligence (EDD) checks?

Options:

A.  

A company director

B.  

A corporate client

C.  

A government official

D.  

A high-net-worth individual

Discussion 0
Questions 7

Why might a portfolio manager use an equity fund rather than direct equity investment within a portfolio?

Options:

A.  

To avoid paying capital gains tax

B.  

To gain exposure to a specialist sector

C.  

In order to reduce ongoing charges

D.  

To benefit from changes in volatility

Discussion 0
Questions 8

Treasury bills are normally issued with a minimum maturity of:

Options:

A.  

1 month

B.  

3 months

C.  

1 year

D.  

3 years

Discussion 0
Questions 9

If a firm operating in a perfect free market is able to make supernormal profit in the short run, what is likely to occur in the long run?

Options:

A.  

It will continue to make supernormal profit

B.  

Other firms will enter the industry until no economic profit is made

C.  

The government will regulate the market

D.  

The firm will cut its prices until no economic profit is made

Discussion 0
Questions 10

Why does money have a time value?

Options:

A.  

Because the purchasing power of money remains constant

B.  

Due to the fact that interest rates vary over time

C.  

Due to its potential earning capacity

D.  

Because investment growth is linear

Discussion 0
Questions 11

The first stage in the investment planning process is to:

Options:

A.  

Gather in client data

B.  

Provide the client with information

C.  

Establish a relationship with the client

D.  

Create an action plan

Discussion 0
Questions 12

Cryptocurrencies were originally introduced:

Options:

A.  

To profit from the internet

B.  

To make internet payments easier

C.  

In order to provide a new form of asset

D.  

Due to a lack of confidence in banks

Discussion 0
Questions 13

The use of a central counterparty CCP during settlement helps to lower risk because the CCP:

Options:

A.  

Settles trades on a delivery versus payment basis

B.  

Interposes itself between the trade counterparties

C.  

Uses an electronic book entry transfer process

D.  

Makes use of dematerialised stock

Discussion 0
Questions 14

A non-profit, whole-of-life assurance policy will pay:

Options:

A.  

A return, linked to the insurance company's units

B.  

A fixed sum, provided death occurs within a pre-determined time

C.  

An amount linked to the prevailing rate of inflation

D.  

A fixed sum chosen at the outset

Discussion 0
Questions 15

Standard deviation is used when analysing portfolios because it:

Options:

A.  

Allows for a comparison of volatility

B.  

Identifies profitable trades

C.  

Makes it easier to track the performance against a benchmark

D.  

Identifies underperforming assets

Discussion 0
Questions 16

When a UK based investor receives overseas equity dividend income, which one of the following types of tax may have been deducted?

Options:

A.  

Stamp Duty

B.  

Withholding Tax

C.  

Value Added Tax

D.  

UK Corporation Tax

Discussion 0
Questions 17

What is the standard settlement period in spot currency markets?

Options:

A.  

T+1

B.  

T+2

C.  

T+3

D.  

T+4

Discussion 0
Questions 18

An execution-only sale usually means a sale where there is an absence of:

Options:

A.  

Charges

B.  

Advice

C.  

Product

D.  

Guarantee

Discussion 0
Questions 19

The management of investment portfolios of collective investment schemes, pension funds, insurance funds, hedge funds, and private equity would normally be considered to fall into the scope of:

Options:

A.  

The retail financial sector

B.  

The wholesale financial sector

C.  

Family offices

D.  

Private banking

Discussion 0
Questions 20

For what reason is holding bearer shares potentially disadvantageous?

Options:

A.  

Investors prefer not being publicly named on a share register

B.  

The loss of the certificate might equal loss of the person’s investment

C.  

They are more difficult to value

D.  

Because it is not possible to sell part of the holding

Discussion 0
Questions 21

Mortgage protection can assist when:

Options:

A.  

Property prices rise very quickly

B.  

Interest rates rise, increasing the cost of mortgage payments

C.  

Illness may prevent the main wage earner from meeting mortgage payments

D.  

Property prices collapse

Discussion 0
Questions 22

A quote-driven system:

Options:

A.  

Prioritises orders in chronological order

B.  

Uses an electronic order book

C.  

Benefits from liquidity provided by market makers

D.  

Matches orders on the basis of price

Discussion 0
Questions 23

According to modern portfolio theory, when a portfolio is effectively diversified:

Options:

A.  

Systematic risk is significantly reduced

B.  

Unsystematic risk is significantly reduced

C.  

Operational risk is replaced by inherent risk

D.  

Inherent risk is replaced by operational risk

Discussion 0
Questions 24

Why is a flat yield measurement regarded as an inaccurate measure of the return on a bond investment?

Options:

A.  

It discounts the effect of taxation

B.  

It ignores any capital gain or loss when it is held to redemption

C.  

It ignores the eroding effect of inflation

D.  

It ignores the compound nature of interest over time

Discussion 0
Questions 25

Once an offshore foundation is established, who will normally be responsible for making ongoing decisions regarding the operational use of the foundation’s assets?

Options:

A.  

The board of directors

B.  

The trustees

C.  

The council

D.  

The beneficiaries

Discussion 0
Questions 26

Which type of life assurance policy is designed to pay a lump sum if the policyholder dies within a specified time period?

Options:

A.  

Term assurance

B.  

Annuity policy

C.  

Whole-of-life assurance

D.  

Endowment assurance

Discussion 0
Questions 27

How does the inclusion of risk in the Capital Asset Pricing Model formula potentially limit its usefulness?

Options:

A.  

It artificially inflates the required return

B.  

It distorts the inherent value of the stock

C.  

It relies on the accuracy of the stock’s beta

D.  

It makes it harder to choose a suitable benchmark

Discussion 0
Questions 28

What term describes the process that enables savings institutions to transform into banks?

Options:

A.  

Demutualisation

B.  

Peer to peer

C.  

Refinancing

D.  

Swap

Discussion 0
Questions 29

Which of the following elements would be included in a recommendation report to a client?

Options:

A.  

Previous arrangements

B.  

Restrictions

C.  

Cost of living

D.  

Rate of inflation

Discussion 0
Questions 30

Stablecoins are less prone to price fluctuations because:

Options:

A.  

They do not use blockchain technology

B.  

Their price is in US Dollars

C.  

Their value is pegged to underlying assets

D.  

They are highly illiquid

Discussion 0
Questions 31

A residence-based worldwide system of taxation, taxes individuals:

Options:

A.  

Regardless of where in the world they reside

B.  

Regardless of where in the world their income and gains arise

C.  

Only on income and gains arising in that country

D.  

Whenever they enter or leave the country

Discussion 0
Questions 32

Measures of Central Tendency include a method whereby a set of numbers are multiplied and then the nth root of the resulting product is taken. This is known as the:

Options:

A.  

Arithmetic mean

B.  

Geometric mean

C.  

Mode

D.  

Median

Discussion 0
Questions 33

How does ‘relief at source’ normally operate in relation to overseas dividend income?

Options:

A.  

A reduced rate of withholding tax is levied

B.  

A tax rebate is paid in cash

C.  

A credit is applied against a separate tax liability

D.  

A staggering of the tax levy is granted

Discussion 0
Questions 34

Which type of investment is associated with providing finance to growing companies with the objective of exiting via a profitable stock market listing?

Options:

A.  

Convertible bonds

B.  

Preference shares

C.  

Private equity

D.  

Structured products

Discussion 0
Questions 35

The effect of gearing within an investment trust company is that it:

Options:

A.  

Reduces the trust’s premium or discount

B.  

Raises initial charges

C.  

Lowers operating expenses

D.  

Magnifies profits and losses

Discussion 0
Questions 36

If a financial adviser issues a report to a client which recommends a specific protection product, what item relating to this product will often be attached to this report?

Options:

A.  

Policy schedule

B.  

Key features document

C.  

Terms of business letter

D.  

Past performance table

Discussion 0
Questions 37

A rise in living standards will tend to:

Options:

A.  

Reduce the demand for commodities

B.  

Have no effect on commodities

C.  

Increase government participation in the commodities markets

D.  

Create an increased demand for commodities

Discussion 0
Questions 38

If someone in a fiduciary position has personal or professional interests that compete with their duty to act in the client’s best interest, this is called:

Options:

A.  

Discretionary management

B.  

A regulatory breach

C.  

Full disclosure

D.  

A conflict of interest

Discussion 0
Questions 39

Why would an investment manager conduct forward-looking security attribution?

Options:

A.  

In order to calculate future profits

B.  

To establish where future risks lie

C.  

To quantify next year's annual charge

D.  

In order to establish by how much they need to outperform the benchmark

Discussion 0
Questions 40

What is the main source of funding for private equity firms?

Options:

A.  

Institutional investment

B.  

Management buyouts

C.  

Initial public offerings

D.  

Placings

Discussion 0
Questions 41

Which of the following details used to determine the risk tolerance of a new client is best described as subjective?

Options:

A.  

The family commitments of the client

B.  

The timescale over which the client is able to invest

C.  

The client’s preferred investment choice

D.  

The client’s current stage of life

Discussion 0
Questions 42

Which of the following types of funds is able to cancel units?

Options:

A.  

Investment trust

B.  

Split capital trust

C.  

Open-ended

D.  

Closed-ended

Discussion 0
Questions 43

When applying the bottom-up active management style to portfolio management, why do managers pay no attention to benchmarks?

Options:

A.  

Because the fund will be characterised by significant tracking error

B.  

Due to the length of time the investments are held for

C.  

Because they are focused on the unique attractions of individual stocks

D.  

Due to the ongoing and dynamic processes related to stock selection

Discussion 0
Questions 44

A new client aged 32 is self-employed and married with three children, aged 8, 6 and 2. Which of the following protection products should normally be considered their highest priority?

Options:

A.  

Long-term care cover

B.  

Inheritance tax cover

C.  

Key person cover

D.  

Sickness cover

Discussion 0
Questions 45

The return from a zero coupon bond, held to maturity, is:

Options:

A.  

Determined by interest rates

B.  

Entirely capital gain

C.  

A mixture of income and capital gain

D.  

Entirely income

Discussion 0
Questions 46

According to economic theory, firms maximize profit by:

Options:

A.  

Creating economies of scale

B.  

Balancing short-run costs against increasing and diminishing returns

C.  

Reaching minimum efficient scale (MES)

D.  

Equating marginal revenue (MR) to marginal cost (MC)

Discussion 0
Questions 47

Which of the following forms part of the Financial Planning Standards Board six step process for financial planning?

Options:

A.  

Analyse client’s financial status

B.  

Challenge client’s risk appetite

C.  

Minimise client’s tax burden

D.  

Organise client’s financial affairs

Discussion 0
Questions 48

When a hedge fund puts together an equity arbitrage position, it will seek to balance respective:

Options:

A.  

Alphas

B.  

Betas

C.  

Deltas

D.  

Gammas

Discussion 0
Questions 49

Which index could be used to measure inflation from the perspective of the seller?

Options:

A.  

Retail price index

B.  

Producer price index

C.  

Consumer price index

D.  

Inflation price index

Discussion 0
Questions 50

A main feature of critical illness cover is that it:

Options:

A.  

Provides a regular income if the policyholder requires long-term care

B.  

Covers the cost of routine medical procedures

C.  

Replaces any income lost due to ill health

D.  

Pays a lump sum upon diagnosis of a specified medical condition

Discussion 0
Questions 51

A market that employs an electronic order book to match buyers with sellers in strict order by price is known as:

Options:

A.  

Order-driven

B.  

Quote-driven

C.  

On-exchange

D.  

Over-the-counter

Discussion 0
Questions 52

The Return on Capital Employed (ROCE) ratio can be used to:

Options:

A.  

Establish trends between accounting periods

B.  

Assist in revaluing fixed assets

C.  

Determine the need for capital

D.  

Calculate the return on ordinary shareholders’ equity

Discussion 0
Questions 53

Setting standards for national anti-money laundering (AML) and counter-terrorist financing (CTF) programs and evaluating how effectively member countries have implemented the standards is the role of which of the following?

Options:

A.  

International Monetary Fund (IMF)

B.  

Interpol

C.  

Financial Action Task Force (FATF)

D.  

National Crime Agency

Discussion 0
Questions 54

Which of the following is a money laundering offence?

Options:

A.  

Avoiding

B.  

Concealing

C.  

Developing

D.  

Producing

Discussion 0
Questions 55

The Arbitrage Pricing Theory (APT) assumes investors can sell short. This involves:

Options:

A.  

Not selling the whole of your shareholding in one trade

B.  

Selling something you do not own, intending to buy it back at a lower price later

C.  

Selling your shares and buying them back a short time later

D.  

Selling lots of securities over a short time frame

Discussion 0
Questions 56

A bullet bond portfolio can have an advantage over a barbell bond portfolio because:

Options:

A.  

It is always riding the yield curve

B.  

It only invests in short-dated bonds

C.  

The gross redemption yield is always higher

D.  

A bullet portfolio does not require regular rebalancing

Discussion 0
Questions 57

According to Modern Portfolio Theory (MPT), portfolios below the efficient frontier are not efficient because:

Options:

A.  

They attract additional charges

B.  

Risk-free assets are not profitable

C.  

The investor assumes proportionately higher risk for lower incremental returns

D.  

A greater return could be achieved for the same risk

Discussion 0
Questions 58

In normal market circumstances, the yield curve slopes upward. Why is this?

Options:

A.  

Longer-dated bonds are generally more sensitive to interest rate changes than short-dated bonds because holders are exposed to risk for a longer period

B.  

As long as the interest being paid on the government bond is near to the interest rate available on the market, there is little risk that the resale value will be significantly different from the purchase price

C.  

The longer an investor ties up capital, the higher the rate of interest they will demand to compensate themselves for the greater risk and opportunity cost on the capital they have invested

D.  

Although bonds are generally less risky than equities, their prices are intrinsically linked to the general level of interest rates and expectations of future changes

Discussion 0
Questions 59

An approach which applies a theoretical price to a company’s shares by discounting the company’s expected future cash flow into infinity. This statement is describing the:

Options:

A.  

Net asset value

B.  

Market value added

C.  

Dividend valuation model

D.  

Economic value added

Discussion 0
Questions 60

Where the fact find process identifies that a client has three competing financial planning needs, what action should the financial adviser normally take?

Options:

A.  

Recommend the cheapest product

B.  

Help the client to determine their priorities

C.  

Seek a second opinion from another adviser

D.  

Conduct a fresh fact find to narrow down options

Discussion 0
Questions 61

The concept of the Sharpe ratio is to measure the:

Options:

A.  

Amount of performance attributable to a benchmark

B.  

Return above a risk-free rate

C.  

Effect the annual charge has on fund performance

D.  

Ability of the fund manager in different scenarios

Discussion 0
Questions 62

What causes the price of a closed-ended investment company to trade at a premium or discount to net asset value (NAV)?

Options:

A.  

The level of charges within the fund

B.  

The tax status of the fund

C.  

Supply and demand

D.  

Current level of interest rates

Discussion 0
Questions 63

An active portfolio manager is deliberately holding securities in a portfolio in differing proportions from that in which they are weighted within the benchmark. Why are they doing this?

Options:

A.  

To increase the liquidity of the fund

B.  

In an attempt to outperform the benchmark

C.  

Because some securities are cheaper to deal in than others

D.  

Because they are anticipating a re-weighting of the benchmark

Discussion 0
Questions 64

One benefit of the Rules-Based model of regulation is that it:

Options:

A.  

Evolves quickly in fast-changing dynamic markets

B.  

Provides a source of guidance on how firms and individuals are expected to act

C.  

Involves a high degree of prescriptive procedures and detailed rules, making it clear what individuals and firms must do to comply

D.  

Offers a unique combination of private interests with government oversight

Discussion 0
Questions 65

Historically, rapid technological change and globalisation have:

Options:

A.  

Decreased urbanisation

B.  

Decreased equity issuance

C.  

Increased inflationary pressure

D.  

Increased bond issuance

Discussion 0
Questions 66

Why would a composite benchmark be needed to measure portfolio performance?

Options:

A.  

It makes it easier for the fund manager

B.  

Because the portfolio spans several asset classes

C.  

Because the portfolio forms part of the investment universe

D.  

To lower the tracking error

Discussion 0
Questions 67

Structured deposits offer the benefit of:

Options:

A.  

Potential higher returns

B.  

Tax free savings

C.  

Guaranteed high returns

D.  

Reduced income tax liability

Discussion 0
Questions 68

If the fact find process is limited only to the collection of hard facts, this is likely to lead to:

Options:

A.  

Information quickly becoming out of date

B.  

Failure to capture the client’s views on risk

C.  

Too much focus on historical performance

D.  

The distortion of historical data

Discussion 0
Questions 69

Performance attribution analysis attempts to explain why a portfolio had a certain return. It does so by breaking down performance based on the decisions made by the fund manager in which of the following?

Options:

A.  

Asset allocation alone

B.  

Asset allocation and sector choice only

C.  

The combination of asset allocation, sector choice, and security selection

D.  

The combination of asset allocation, sector choice, security selection, and risk analysis

Discussion 0
Questions 70

A person who disguises criminal property is committing the offence of:

Options:

A.  

Failure to disclose

B.  

Concealing

C.  

Tipping off

D.  

Arrangements

Discussion 0
Questions 71

Establishing sufficient details about a client in order to give advice is known as:

Options:

A.  

Assessing suitability and affordability

B.  

Determining attitude to risk

C.  

Giving information on status disclosure

D.  

Client fact-finding

Discussion 0
Questions 72

Once a company reaches the point known as the minimum efficient scale, the theory of the firm suggests that the company should:

Options:

A.  

Halt its output expansion

B.  

Accelerate its output expansion

C.  

Increase its unit price

D.  

Decrease its unit price

Discussion 0
Questions 73

Which of the following investments is most suitable for a customer who desires income rather than capital gain and who is risk-averse?

Options:

A.  

Low coupon long-dated gilts

B.  

High coupon short-dated gilts

C.  

Deferred shares

D.  

Convertible preference shares

Discussion 0
Questions 74

An investor deposits £1,000 into an account that pays 3% per annum. If interest is compounded annually, how much will be in the account after 5 years?

Options:

A.  

£1,150.00

B.  

£1,157.63

C.  

£1,159.27

D.  

£1,276.28

Discussion 0
Questions 75

It is a regulatory requirement for financial advisers to explain any potential additional obligations for clients making a transaction in:

Options:

A.  

Bonds

B.  

Commodities

C.  

Derivatives

D.  

Equities

Discussion 0
Questions 76

When calculating business taxes on profits, what figure is used in addition to the profits made from a company’s trading activities?

Options:

A.  

Declared dividends

B.  

Net current assets

C.  

Chargeable gains

D.  

Long term debt

Discussion 0