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APM Project Fundamentals Qualification (PFQ) Question and Answers

APM Project Fundamentals Qualification (PFQ)

Last Update Nov 30, 2025
Total Questions : 409

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Questions 1

Quality control verifies that:

Options:

A.  

the project follows appropriate processes.

B.  

project outputs are delivered on time.

C.  

the project follows appropriate governance.

D.  

project outputs meet acceptance criteria.

Discussion 0
Questions 2

Which one of the following is NOT part of the handover process during the final phase of a project lifecycle:

Options:

A.  

the acceptance of pertinent documentation relative to project deliverables.

B.  

the definition of acceptance criteria for project deliverables.

C.  

the transfer of responsibility for project deliverables.

D.  

the testing of project deliverables to demonstrate they work in their final operational mode.

Discussion 0
Questions 3

Which one of the following best defines a benefit?

Options:

A.  

A.  

positive result of stakeholder management.

B.  

The successful management of a project.

C.  

An improvement resulting from project deliverables.

D.  

The successful delivery of project reports and updates.

Discussion 0
Questions 4

Once a proposed change is logged it should then be:

Options:

A.  

accepted, rejected or deferred.

B.  

accepted and the project plan updated.

C.  

sent to the project sponsor for approval.

D.  

assessed to determine its potential impact.

Discussion 0
Questions 5

Which one of the following statements best defines the purpose of a Product Breakdown Structure (PBS)?

Options:

A.  

To define the hierarchy of deliverables that are required to be produced on the project.

B.  

To define how the products are produced by identifying derivations and dependencies.

C.  

To establish the extent of work required prior to project commissioning and the handover.

D.  

To identify the health and safety strategies and procedures to be used on the project.

Discussion 0
Questions 6

Which factor is likely to have the biggest influence over the success of communication?

Options:

A.  

The size of the communication plan.

B.  

The method of communication chosen.

C.  

The age range of those communicating.

D.  

The type of project being delivered.

Discussion 0
Questions 7

How many dimensions are included in the business case?

Options:

A.  

Five

B.  

One

C.  

Three

D.  

Four

Discussion 0
Questions 8

Implementation of plans and verification of performance is most likely to occur in:

Options:

A.  

the deployment phase.

B.  

the definition phase

C.  

the concept phase.

D.  

the adoption phase

Discussion 0
Questions 9

What action is essential after a change has been approved?

Options:

A.  

The highlights of the change are communicated directly to the sponsor.

B.  

The actual impact of the change is assessed.

C.  

The next change requested should be reviewed as quickly as possible.

D.  

The related plans must be updated to reflect the change.

Discussion 0
Questions 10

Which statement best describes a responsibility of the project sponsor?

Options:

A.  

Monitoring progress and use of the project resources.

B.  

Analysing the project team's productivity

C.  

Ensuring the benefits of the project are realised.

D Planning project evaluation reviews for lessons learned.

Discussion 0
Questions 11

Which one of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.  

Independent reviews and quality audits form part of quality assurance to ensure the project manager delivers on time and to budget.

B.  

Quality assurance provides confidence to stakeholders that requirements for quality will be exceeded.

C.  

Quality control verifies that the project deliverables conform to specification, are fit for purpose and meet stakeholder expectations.

D.  

Quality planning enables the project manager to manage the trade-off between customer expectations and budget.

Discussion 0
Questions 12

A project communication plan identifies the relevant information that should be communicated to:

Options:

A.  

the project team.

B.  

the project stakeholders.

C.  

the project board.

D.  

the project sponsor

Discussion 0
Questions 13

Configuration management is defined as a process which enables:

Options:

A.  

the creation, maintenance, controlled change and the quality control of a scope of work.

B.  

a structured approach to move an organisation from a current state to a future desired state.

C.  

the safeguarding of stakeholder benefits, outputs and outcomes to requirements.

D.  

the identification of differences would affect successful completion of objectives.

Discussion 0
Questions 14

Which one of the following statements about the project management plan (PMP) is FALSE?

Options:

A.  

The PMP acts as a contract between the Project Manager, the project team and the sponsor.

B.  

The PMP defines the baselines for the project upon which changes are considered.

C.  

The PMP, once defined, will remain unchanged throughout the project.

D.  

The PMP is used as a reference document for managing the project.

Discussion 0
Questions 15

One purpose of a typical project business case is to:

Options:

A.  

carry out earned value analysis.

B.  

allocate resources to the project.

C.  

analyse cost-benefit of the project.

D.  

plan project work packages

Discussion 0
Questions 16

How is it determined whether a deliverable conforms to its requirements and configuration information?

Options:

A.  

A configuration management plan is produced

B.  

A configuration identification reference is allocated to the deliverable.

C.  

A configuration verification audit is performed.

D.  

A status accounting report is produced.

Discussion 0
Questions 17

Which one of the following is a responsibility of the project steering group/board?

Options:

A.  

To identify potential problems for the project team to solve.

B.  

To provide strategic direction and guidance to the sponsor.

C.  

To manage the project team in all daily activities.

D.  

To receive and consider daily reports from team members.

Discussion 0
Questions 18

Which one of the following is an example of a project issue?

Options:

A.  

There are no suppliers that can meet our specification.

B.  

We may not be able to finish on time.

C.  

The project is going to be late.

D.  

A key phase of the project is taking longer than expected

Discussion 0
Questions 19

Configuration management can be used to control documents, information and:

Options:

A.  

users.

B.  

audits.

C.  

stakeholders.

D.  

assets.

Discussion 0
Questions 20

Which of the following is a reason for scheduling?

Options:

A.  

To establish what work needs to be performed.

B.  

To establish the roles and responsibilities of the project team.

C.  

To produce the quality acceptance criteria.

D.  

To produce a project management plan.

Discussion 0
Questions 21

Which of the following responsibilities lies with the project management office?

Options:

A.  

Liaising with end users.

B.  

Managing suppliers.

C.  

Providing technical support.

D.  

Supporting the project sponsor.

Discussion 0
Questions 22

What is the main reason for an initial high-level review of a change request?

Options:

A.  

To consider if the change is feasible to evaluate at this stage.

B.  

To establish who might be the best stakeholders to be involved in the change.

C.  

To ensure that the change request is considered as soon as possible.

D.  

To implement the necessary actions to ensure the change has a smooth implementation.

Discussion 0
Questions 23

What aspect is important to clarify when conducting scope definition?

Options:

A.  

The number of products contained in the PBS,

B.  

The boundaries and interfaces with adjacent projects.

C.  

Who is going to perform the work.

D.  

When the work is going to be performed.

Discussion 0
Questions 24

Which of the following statements refers to how scope is managed in a linear project but not an iterative project?

Options:

A.  

Teams can act on new knowledge to change the scope.

B.  

Teams can re-prioritise requirements within the scope.

C.  

The scope of work is the starting point for the implementation of change control.

D.  

Scope definition is assumed to be fixed for the whole project

Discussion 0
Questions 25

The purpose of project progress reporting is to:

Options:

A.  

ensure a simpler critical path.

B.  

enable the tracking of project deliverables.

C.  

ensure stakeholder acceptance of project deliverables.

D.  

provide an increased total float.

Discussion 0
Questions 26

Which of the following define leadership?

1) Ability to establish vision and direction

2) Developing team skills that enhance project performance3) Empowering and inspiring people to achieve success

4) Ability to influence and align others towards a common purpose

Options:

A.  

1, 2 & 4

B.  

1, 2 & 3

C.  

2, 3 & 4

D.  

1, 3 & 4

Discussion 0
Questions 27

Which of the following would not be considered as part of the post project review?

Options:

A.  

Evaluation of the benefits of the project.

B.  

Identification of the problems that arose and their likely causes.

C.  

Review of the project's performance against the success criteria.

D.  

Review of how the team worked together to solve problems and issues.

Discussion 0
Questions 28

What is a visual representation of a project's planned activities against a calendar called?

Options:

A.  

a Gantt chart.

B.  

a critical path network.

C.  

a product flow diagram.

D.  

a Pareto chart.

Discussion 0
Questions 29

Which one of the following is the correct definition of an issue?

Options:

A.  

Any major problem that the project team has to deal with.

B.  

A. problem that is the responsibility of the Project Manager.

C.  

An uncertain event that should it occur would have an effect on project objectives.

D.  

A. threat to project objectives that cannot be resolved by the Project Manager.

Discussion 0
Questions 30

Which one of the following is NOT typically associated with a project's context?

Options:

A.  

The issues and areas that matter to stakeholders.

B.  

Technical, social or political considerations.

C.  

The environment in which the project is being carried out.

D.  

The sequence and dependencies of activities.

Discussion 0
Questions 31

A member of your team has described being involved in a risk event. Which one of the following would best describe such an event?

Options:

A.  

An action or set of actions to reduce the probability or impact of a threat, or to increase the probability or impact of an opportunity.

B.  

The plan of the response to risks.

C.  

An uncertain event or set of circumstances that if realised would have an effect on project objectives.

D.  

A risk identification workshop.

Discussion 0
Questions 32

Options:

A.  

Cost Breakdown Structure (CBS) shows costs assigned to:

B.  

individual work packages using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).

C.  

individual resources using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).

D.  

individual resources using the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM).

E.  

individual deliverables using the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)

Discussion 0
Questions 33

The purpose of a decision gate is to decide whether:

Options:

A.  

the response to a risk is valid.

B.  

a project is viable in line with the business case.

C.  

the project delivered against the success criteria.

D.  

lessons were effectively learned during the project.

Discussion 0
Questions 34

The question: 'Is the project actually following the processes and procedures as set out in the quality plan?' would be answered by?

Options:

A.  

Quality alignment.

B.  

Quality control.

C.  

Quality assurance.

D.  

Quality improvement.

Discussion 0
Questions 35

How would a project manager use an estimating funnel?

Options:

A.  

Describe the improvement in accuracy in estimations over time.

B.  

Narrow down budgetary options.

C.  

Eliminate unnecessary costs.

D.  

Improve understanding of estimation methods over time.

Discussion 0
Questions 36

Which of the following is a purpose of issue management?

Options:

A.  

To stop issues occurring within the project.

B.  

To address and resolve the issues that occur.

C.  

To address and resolve uncertainty.

D.  

To reschedule activities to reduce costs

Discussion 0
Questions 37

Resource smoothing is used when:

Options:

A.  

quality is more important than cost.

B.  

quality is more important than scope.

C.  

scope is more important than time.

D.  

time is more important than cost.

Discussion 0
Questions 38

When delivering a project the Project Manager has to balance which one of the following constraints:

Options:

A.  

definition and delivery.

B.  

time, cost and quality.

C.  

cost and scope.

D.  

budget, spend and contingency

Discussion 0
Questions 39

The role of a leader includes:

Options:

A.  

effectively managing risks.

B.  

selecting the project team.

C.  

coaching and mentoring project staff.

D.  

producing accurate project reports.

Discussion 0
Questions 40

The primary purpose of a product breakdown structure (PBS) is to:

Options:

A.  

define all the products that the project will produce.

B.  

define precisely what resources will be used on the project.

C.  

detail all the products in order of priority.

D.  

map out the key project elements identified in the business plan

Discussion 0
Questions 41

Which one of the following best describes project success criteria?

Options:

A.  

Actively seeking some senior management support.

B.  

Measures by which the success of the project is judged.

C.  

Achievement of milestones.

D.  

A motivated project team.

Discussion 0
Questions 42

Which of the following would be a benefit to an organization of effective project management?

Options:

A.  

Significant cost savings in the organization’s business as usual activities.

B.  

Guaranteed increased profitability and market share from successful projects.

C.  

Use of resources and greater likelihood of achieving a successful project.

D.  

Having qualified and trained project managers in the organization.

Discussion 0
Questions 43

Which one of the following statements best defines a portfolio?

Options:

A.  

A.  

group of related projects, which may include business-as-usual activities, that delivers change.

B.  

A. timetable of how project activities and project milestones are planned over a period of time.

C.  

A. group of projects that represent the delivery of all, or a discrete part of a new capability.

D.  

A. grouping of an organisation's projects, programmes and related business-as-usual activities.

Discussion 0
Questions 44

Which of the following BEST describes a project issue?

Options:

A.  

An event that may or may not occur

B.  

An opportunity that occurs through change control

C.  

A problem that the project manager has to deal with on a day-to-day basis

D.  

A problem that must be escalated to the appropriate level of management for resolution

Discussion 0
Questions 45

What would be the effect if the resources required for a project's critical path activities were insufficient?

Options:

A.  

It would reduce the project duration.

B.  

It would extend the project duration.

C.  

The quality of the deliverables would suffer.

D.  

Resource smoothing should be applied to the critical path.

Discussion 0
Questions 46

Which of the following are not considered by quality planning?

Options:

A.  

Contingency budget for remedial work.

B.  

Equipment required for quality testing.

C.  

Staff qualified to undertake inspections.

D.  

Processes to obtain stakeholder approvals.

Discussion 0
Questions 47

A project management plan could best be described as:

Options:

A.  

an activity on a network diagram.

B.  

A. Gantt chart.

C.  

A. plan for the programme.

D.  

an overall plan for the project.

Discussion 0
Questions 48

One purpose of risk management is to:

Options:

A.  

adapt the plan to resolve problems.

B.  

minimise threats and maximise opportunities.

C.  

continually improve the project teams' efficiency.

D.  

manage variations in a controlled way

Discussion 0
Questions 49

Which of the following activities is not in an extended project life cycle?

Options:

A.  

Deployment.

B.  

Termination.

C.  

Adoption.

D.  

Transition.

Discussion 0
Questions 50

Which one of the following statements about the project risk register is false?

Options:

A.  

It facilitates the review and monitoring of risks.

B.  

It facilitates the risk appetite.

C.  

It facilitates the recording of risk responses.

D.  

It facilitates the recording of risks.

Discussion 0
Questions 51

On examining a particular risk in the project there is some uncertainty among the project team of how important this risk is to the project. How would you advise the team on how the significance of the risk is to be determined?

Options:

A.  

By assessing its probability of occurrence.

B.  

By assessing its impact on project objectives,

C.  

By assessing both its probability of occurrence and its impact on project objectives.

D.  

By assessing its effect on the business case.

Discussion 0
Questions 52

Which of the following are documented in a risk register?

1) Analysis

2) Priority

3) Ownership

4) Responses

Options:

A.  

1, 3 and 4

B.  

1, 2 and 4

C.  

1, 2 and 3

D.  

2, 3 and 4

Discussion 0
Questions 53

Where in the project life cycle would the project manager typically be appointed?

Options:

A.  

At the start of the concept phase.

B.  

At the start of the definition phase.

C.  

At the start of the development phase.

D.  

At the end of the handover stage.

Discussion 0
Questions 54

Which one of the following best describes stakeholders?

Options:

A.  

Anyone who has heard about the project.

B.  

Anyone who has an opinion about how the project should be managed.

C.  

People wanting to be members of the project team.

D.  

People who are affected by the project in some way.

Discussion 0
Questions 55

A responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) allows the project manager to cross reference:

Options:

A.  

the work breakdown structure (WBS) with the organisational breakdown structure (OBS) to match resources to the tasks.

B.  

the organisational breakdown structure (OBS) with the cost breakdown structure (CBS) to assign A. cost to each resource.

C.  

the product breakdown structure (PBS) with the work breakdown structure (WBS) to assign activities to the products.

D.  

the organisational breakdown structure (OBS) with the product breakdown structure (PBS) to assign resources to deliverables.

Discussion 0
Questions 56

What is the prime advantage of using a parametric estimating method?

Options:

A.  

Accuracy,

B.  

Ability to deal With detailed information.

C.  

Independence from historic data.

D.  

Speed.

Discussion 0
Questions 57

To develop and establish a proper communication plan within a project, the project manager needsto consider which type of analysis?

Options:

A.  

Budget.

B.  

Stakeholder.

C.  

Resource.

D.  

Schedule

Discussion 0
Questions 58

An extended project life cycle can be defined as:

Options:

A.  

an approach that adds operational and termination phases to a linear life cycle.

B.  

an approach that adds adoption and benefits realisation phases to a linear life cycle.

C.  

a framework for conducting a cost-benefit analysis once a project has closed.

D.  

a framework for ensuring the re-deployment of assets post project.

Discussion 0
Questions 59

Where in the project life cycle benefits realization most common?

Options:

A.  

The start of deployment.

B.  

The end of deployment.

C.  

The end of the concept phase prior to handover

D.  

The extended life cycle.

Discussion 0
Questions 60

To ensure communication is most likely to be effective in the project, the project manager should:

Options:

A.  

ensure that everyone is copied On all emails.

B.  

insist on a lower level of paper documents.

C.  

train project staff in the most up-to-date communication techniques

D.  

develop a communication plan.

Discussion 0
Questions 61

What is the main purpose of iterations in an iterative life cycle?

Options:

A.  

To reassure stakeholders that the project will deliver as expected

B.  

To progressively elaborate and improve understanding based on client interaction.

C.  

To allow time for a thorough project management plan to be developed.

D.  

To ensure that the project manager appointed understands exactly what is required

Discussion 0
Questions 62

Governance could best be defined as:

Options:

A.  

the framework of authority and accountability that defines and controls the outputs, outcomes and benefits from projects, programmes and portfolios.

B.  

the framework that structures a review of the project, programme or portfolio and aids a decision to be made about whether to continue with the next phase or stage of progress.

C.  

the framework that is used for selection, prioritisation and control of an organisation's projects and programmes in line with its strategic objectives and capacity to deliver

D the framework used by the organisation and approved by the project board at project initiation that allows the definition of the terms of reference for the project.

Discussion 0
Questions 63

The responsibility for development and production of the business case is primarily with:

Options:

A.  

the project manager

B.  

jointly shared between the project manager and project sponsor.

C.  

the project sponsor.

D.  

the project steering group/committee.

Discussion 0
Questions 64

In project management quality is best defined as:

Options:

A.  

inspection, testing and measurement.

B.  

reviews and audits.

C.  

fitness for purpose of deliverables.

D.  

professionally-bound project reports.

Discussion 0
Questions 65

What is the main reason for having an extended life cycle?

Options:

A.  

Allow the project to have extra time to ensure that that there is enough capacity to realise benefits.

B.  

Allow upfront planning for any supplemental activities and incorporate additional considerations for benefits realisation.

C.  

Allow time for stakeholders to decide how they will use the output to best effect that will realise benefits.

D.  

Allow extra funding to be applied to the project to ensure that sufficient resources exist to maximise benefits realisation.

Discussion 0
Questions 66

Which one of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.  

Business-as-usual activities cannot be improved.

B.  

Business-as-usual activities are more difficult to manage than projects.

C.  

Projects are transient endeavours that bring about change to business-as-usual.

D.  

A project is always the starting point for operation refinement.

Discussion 0
Questions 67

Which one of the following statements BEST defines procurement?

Options:

A.  

A technique to establish the best approach for obtaining the resources for the project

B.  

A group of interrelated resources and activities that transform inputs into outputs

C.  

The description of the purpose, form and components to support delivery of a product

D.  

The process by which products and services required for the project are acquired

Discussion 0
Questions 68

When delivering a project, the project manager has to balance which of the following constraints?

Options:

A.  

Definition and delivery.

B.  

Time, cost and quality.

C.  

Budget, spend and contingency.

D.  

Cost and scope.

Discussion 0
Questions 69

The advantages of communicating using a telephone conference call is:

Options:

A.  

accents are easier to interpret.

B.  

information is easier to understand.

C.  

discussions will be quicker.

D.  

there is less visual distraction.

Discussion 0
Questions 70

What aspects of benefits realisation would be considered as most important to note in the business case?

Options:

A.  

Who is going to be responsible for carrying out each of the projects activities.

B.  

How the benefits will be realised, measured and the stakeholders involved

C.  

What type of contract is going to be used to procure delivery of the project.

D.  

Which benefits should be realised first and then the subsequent order

Discussion 0
Questions 71

What is the main objective of an audit?

Options:

A.  

Provide assurance to the project sponsor that the project is going to finish

on time and within budget.

B.  

Provide feedback to the project manager with regard to their performance in managing the project.

C.  

Provide assurance to the sponsor that the project is being managed using the agreed governance and process.

D.  

Provide a report of the current status of the project regarding cost and schedule performance.

Discussion 0
Questions 72

The purpose of project management is to:

Options:

A.  

organise management plans.

B.  

keep all stakeholders happy.

C.  

control change initiatives.

D.  

effect beneficial change.

Discussion 0
Questions 73

Which phase of the project life cycle will utilize the new project and enable the acceptance and use of the benefits?

Options:

A.  

Adoption.

B.  

Transition.

C.  

Deployment.

D.  

Implementation.

Discussion 0
Questions 74

Which of the following would not be considered as part of the business case?

Options:

A.  

Safety plan for the project.

B.  

Implementation options.

C.  

Stakeholder identification.

D.  

Business benefits.

Discussion 0
Questions 75

Which of the following actions would not help a team leader influence the performance of their team?

Options:

A.  

Creating an exclusive environment.

B.  

Providing clear roles and responsibilities.

C.  

Promoting openness and honesty.

D.  

Developing a trusting relationship.

Discussion 0
Questions 76

Which of these is not part of the linear project life cycle?

Options:

A.  

Concept

B.  

Definition

C.  

Operations

D.  

Transition

Discussion 0
Questions 77

The risk management process is concerned with managing which of the following?

Options:

A.  

Threats and opportunities.

B.  

Risks and issues.

C.  

Issues that have arisen.

D.  

Risk events with negative impact.

Discussion 0
Questions 78

A review most closely linked to the phases Of the project life cycle could be described as a:

Options:

A.  

gate review.

B.  

learning review.

C.  

handover review.

D.  

audit review.

Discussion 0
Questions 79

Which management skill aligns and influences others towards a common purpose and empowers and inspires a team to achieve success?

Options:

A.  

Social sensitivity.

B.  

Leadership.

C.  

Communication.

D.  

Drive.

Discussion 0
Questions 80

Comparative estimating uses:

Options:

A.  

current data from similar projects.

B.  

historic data from all projects.

C.  

historic data from similar projects.

D.  

current data from all projects.

Discussion 0
Questions 81

How does having a business case help an organisation?

Options:

A.  

It provides a documented account of the decisions that have been made and by whom in the planning of the project's finances, ensuring the project's compliance with recognized governance standards

B.  

It provides an overview of how the project will deliver the scheduled progress over the period agreed between the project manager, sponsor and other key stakeholders associated with the project.

C.  

It provides a means by which the sponsor can monitor the project manager's performance in relation to the plans documented in the business case and highlight points at which a change of project manager may be necessary.

D.  

It provides a recognized framework by which project spending proposals can be recorded, reviewed and audited to learn lessons about how efficiently the organisation is deploying funds to achieve its targeted returns.

Discussion 0
Questions 82

Which of the following statements about risks and issues is correct?

Options:

A.  

Issues must be escalated to the project sponsor.

B.  

Risks must be escalated to the project sponsor.

C.  

Issues must be dealt with by the governance board.

D.  

Risks must be dealt with by the governance board.

Discussion 0
Questions 83

Which one of the following would be expected to form the main part of a risk analysis?

Options:

A.  

Deciding on the approach to project risk management.

B.  

Evaluating the risk in terms of severity and relative importance.

C.  

Deciding on how to respond to the risk and who should implement the response.

D.  

Deciding if the risk is a threat or opportunity.

Discussion 0
Questions 84

Three general categories for interpretation of communication could be described as:

Options:

A.  

email, paper, Voice.

B.  

tactile/visual, auditory, written.

C.  

telephone, computer. microphone.

D.  

reception, transmission, interruption.

Discussion 0
Questions 85

Understanding who stakeholders are and their needs is a key duty of

Options:

A.  

the quality manager.

B.  

the key users,

C.  

the project manager.

D.  

the business sponsor.

Discussion 0
Questions 86

Which of the following are challenges for a project manager developing and leading a project team?

1) Issues and incompatibility amongst team members

2) Getting the right skills and attributes amongst team members

3) Co-location of team members in the same geographic area

4) Lack of accountability of team members

Options:

A.  

1, 2 & 3

B.  

1, 2 & 4

C.  

1, 3 & 4

D.  

2, 3 & 4

Discussion 0
Questions 87

What is the estimating method that uses data from a similar project as the basis for the estimate?

Options:

A.  

Evaluative estimating.

B.  

Risk based estimating.

C.  

Analogous estimating.

D.  

Analytical estimating.

Discussion 0
Questions 88

Inspection, measurement and testing to verify that the project outputs meet acceptance criteria is an example of quality:

Options:

A.  

reporting.

B.  

control.

C.  

assurance.

D.  

planning.

Discussion 0
Questions 89

What is the most likely result of providing effective quality management in the project?

Options:

A.  

The project outputs will have been delivered.

B.  

Conformance of the outputs and processes to requirements will result in a product that is fit for purpose.

C.  

The project management plan will have been followed

D.  

Customer expectations will have been exceeded with both outputs and processes

Discussion 0
Questions 90

Scheduling can best be defined as the process used to determine:

Options:

A.  

overall project duration.

B.  

project cost estimating.

C.  

the project management plan.

D.  

sub-contractor's responsibilities

Discussion 0
Questions 91

What aspect of the project will have greatest influence on the estimating method being used?

Options:

A.  

The point in the life cycle where the estimate is being carried out.

B.  

The overall budgeted value of the project being estimated.

C.  

Whether the project is likely to proceed or not.

D.  

The amount of acceptable estimating tolerance that exists.

Discussion 0
Questions 92

Risk management should be initiated...

Options:

A.  

when the Project Management Plan is initiated.

B.  

at the time the Work Breakdown Structure is developed.

C.  

at the start of the project.

D.  

once the project concept is understood.

Discussion 0
Questions 93

Stakeholder analysis supports effective stakeholder engagement by:

Options:

A.  

identifying stakeholders with high levels of power and interest.

B.  

ensuring stakeholder acceptance of project deliverables.

C.  

justifying the preferred project option to stakeholders.

D.  

providing information to all stakeholders.

Discussion 0
Questions 94

How is 'quality' best defined?

Options:

A.  

The process of evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards.

B.  

The fitness for purpose or the degree of conformance of the outputs of a process or the process itself to requirements.

C.  

A. discipline for ensuring the outputs, benefits and the processes by which they are delivered meet stakeholder requirements and are fit for purpose.

D.  

The satisfaction of stakeholder needs measured by the success criteria as identified and agreed at the start of the project.

Discussion 0
Questions 95

The process that evaluates overall project performance to provide confidence is called:

Options:

A.  

quality assurance.

B.  

quality planning.

C.  

quality control.

D.  

quality audit.

Discussion 0
Questions 96

What role does the project manager have in the writing of the business case? The project manager:

Options:

A.  

works with the project sponsor.

B.  

has no involvement.

C.  

must develop it themself.

D.  

works with the end user.

Discussion 0
Questions 97

Which of the following statements about the role of project sponsor is false?

Options:

A.  

A.  

project sponsor is an advocate for the project and the change it brings about.

B.  

A. project sponsor writes and owns the project management plan.

C.  

A. project sponsor is able to work across functional boundaries within an organisation.

D A. project sponsor is prepared to commit sufficient time and effort to support the project.

Discussion 0
Questions 98

Which one of the following is NOT a project change?

Options:

A.  

An approved omission from the agreed project scope.

B.  

The potential for agreed resources to be removed from the project.

C.  

A. requirement for extra expenditure to cover increased supplier costs.

D.  

The removal of work packages from the agreed project scope.

Discussion 0
Questions 99

Which one Of the following statements about project risk is true?

Options:

A.  

Risk is always beneficial to the project.

B.  

Risk is neither beneficial or detrimental to the project

C.  

Risk can be beneficial or detrimental to the project.

D.  

Risk is always detrimental to the project.

Discussion 0
Questions 100

Which one of the following is captured in the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?

Options:

A.  

The life cycle phases.

B.  

The logical order of tasks.

C.  

The scope of the project.

D.  

Project costs.

Discussion 0
Questions 101

A key aspect of managing a project involves:

Options:

A.  

defining which operational systems to put in place.

B.  

identifying routine tasks.

C.  

ensuring ongoing operations are maintained.

D.  

planning to achieve defined objectives.

Discussion 0
Questions 102

In order to be defined as an issue, which of the following conditions must be satisfied?

Options:

A.  

It must result in a set tolerance being exceeded.

B.  

The project manager must be able to resolve it.

C.  

It must have happened because of an identified risk.

D.  

The project team must be able to deal with it internally.

Discussion 0
Questions 103

Project success criteria are best defined as:

Options:

A.  

the qualitative or quantitative measures by which the success of the project is judged.

B.  

the factors that, when present in the project are most conducive to a successful outcome.

C.  

the measures that establish if project activities are ahead or behind schedule.

D.  

the activities or elements of the project which are considered to be critical to success

Discussion 0
Questions 104

What information would you not expect to see in a project management plan?

Options:

A.  

Quality management plan.

B.  

Financial feasibility analysis.

C.  

Risk management plan.

D.  

Details of scope.

Discussion 0
Questions 105

What is defined as "the ability to influence and align others towards a common purpose"?

Options:

A.  

Teamwork.

B.  

Motivation.

C.  

Management.

D.  

Leadership

Discussion 0
Questions 106

A project is typically defined in terms of scope, time, cost and which other parameter?

Options:

A.  

Benefits.

B.  

Quality.

C.  

Tolerance.

D.  

Controls.

Discussion 0
Questions 107

What is one of the main features of using analogous method of estimating?

Options:

A.  

The individual group members use a statistical relationship between historic data and other variables to calculate an estimate.

B.  

The task of producing the estimates will be delegated to those who are actually going to deliver the individual pieces of work or work packages.

C.  

The individual group members, who are tasked with providing the estimates, do this in isolation from each other.

D.  

The individual group members identify a previously delivered project of the same size. complexity and delivery method.

Discussion 0
Questions 108

What is a key role of the project manager?

Options:

A.  

Coordinating the development of the project management plan.

B.  

Conducting benefits realisation reviews.

C.  

Reviewing progress against success criteria and checking that the planned business benefits will be achieved.

D Authorising any changes to the business case.

Discussion 0
Questions 109

In A. RACI coding format, what does 'A' stand for?

Options:

A.  

Available.

B.  

Authorised.

C.  

Accountable.

D.  

Acceptable.

Discussion 0
Questions 110

Once a change has been requested what is the next step in the change control process?

Options:

A.  

Evaluate the change.

B.  

Advise the sponsor.

C.  

Update the change log.

D.  

Update the project plan.

Discussion 0
Questions 111

Which of the following statements about estimating is true?

Options:

A.  

Post project reviews are a prime source of estimating data.

B.  

An estimated cost for a project must be 10 per cent to be any use

C.  

If you cannot estimate task durations to within 20 per cent there is no point in developing a schedule.

D.  

The project manager should always add 10 cent to peoples duration estimates to allow for natural optimism

Discussion 0
Questions 112

Which of the following would be considered most important when carrying out A. detailed evaluation of a change?

Options:

A.  

Impact of change on baseline, risks and business case.

B.  

The number of extra people required to deliver the change.

C.  

How the change will be reported when it is implemented into the project.

D.  

The configuration requirements Of the change when implemented into the project,

Discussion 0
Questions 113

Which Of the following might be a probable cause to consider early project closure?

Options:

A.  

The cost to complete the project is greater than the value to be achieved.

B.  

The project is on schedule but spent less than expected

C.  

The is expected to yield greater value than stated in the business

D.  

The project manager has resigned and an immediate replacement is unavailable

Discussion 0
Questions 114

One of the main purposes of dividing a project into life cycle phases is to:

Options:

A.  

break the work into controllable blocks in terms of effort and size.

B.  

ensure the processes are properly maintained.

C.  

ensure that the workforce is certain of their individual roles.

D.  

provide a means Of producing overall project cost estimates.

Discussion 0
Questions 115

Who would be typically described as the person or organisation best placed to deal with a risk?

Options:

A.  

Risk manager.

B.  

Sponsor.

C.  

Project sponsor.

D.  

Risk owner.

Discussion 0
Questions 116

You have been asked to review the project's quality management plan and in particular the elements of the plan most relevant to quality control. Which one of the following will be your primary focus for consideration?

Options:

A.  

The development of a. strategy for the management of quality in the project.

B.  

Supplying the client with evidence of control to ISO 9000:2000.

C.  

A. review of whether underlying processes and way of working are leading towards product deliverables of the right quality.

D.  

The agreed methods of inspection, measurement and testing to verify that the project outputs meet acceptance criteria defined during quality planning.

Discussion 0
Questions 117

Successful project communications will most likely occur when:

Options:

A.  

the project sponsor takes responsibility for planning all stakeholder communication from the outset.

B.  

email is the primary method used in order to get information to stakeholders in a speedy and efficient manner.

C.  

A. standard project communication format for reports is used to provide feedback to stakeholders.

D.  

the different communication needs of each stakeholder group are fully understood.

Discussion 0
Questions 118

Which one of the following is a generic project management process?

Options:

A.  

Risk management.

B.  

Learning and closing.

C.  

Staff appraisal.

D.  

Quality management.

Discussion 0
Questions 119

What is the most likely reason a stakeholder may object to the project?

Options:

A.  

They have a lack of interest in what the project is they feel it doesn't really affect them.

B.  

They haven't been involved in project manager from the candidates available

C.  

They have misunderstood what the project is trying to achieve and have had very little communication from the project.

D.  

They are a in another project and time to perform the stakeholder role

Discussion 0
Questions 120

Which of the following is not an essential activity to verify the configuration of an output?

Options:

A.  

Plan configuration management process and activities.

B.  

Create records and reports to demonstrate traceability.

C.  

Verify integrity of configuration before use.

D.  

Dissemination of each configuration item.

Discussion 0
Questions 121

Which one of the following statements best describes communication?

Options:

A.  

The giving, receiving, processing and interpretation of information.

B.  

The explanation, understanding, managing and sorting of information.

C.  

The giving, explaining, understanding and interpretation of information.

D.  

The managing, receiving, processing and sorting of information.

Discussion 0
Questions 122

What is the most likely conclusion resulting from a PESTLE analysis?

Options:

A.  

The agreed end date for the project.

B.  

A list of possible stakeholders.

C.  

The number of project phases necessary.

D The size of the project team required.

Discussion 0