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Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM)® Question and Answers

Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM)®

Last Update May 2, 2024
Total Questions : 704

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Questions 1

Which of the following is an input to Control Scope?

Options:

A.  

Project schedule

B.  

Organizational process assets updates

C.  

Project document updates

D.  

Work performance information

Discussion 0
Questions 2

An input of the Create WBS process is:

Options:

A.  

requirements documentation.

B.  

scope baseline.

C.  

project charter.

D.  

validated deliverables.

Discussion 0
Questions 3

Which tool within the Perform Quality Control process identifies whether or not a process has a predictable performance?

Options:

A.  

Cause and effect diagram

B.  

Control charts

C.  

Pareto chart

D.  

Histogram

Discussion 0
Questions 4

The Project Management Process Group in which performance is observed and measured regularly from project initiation through completion is:

Options:

A.  

Executing.

B.  

Initiating,

C.  

Monitoring and Controlling.

D.  

Planning.

Discussion 0
Questions 5

When addressing roles and responsibilities,which item ensures that the staff has the skills required to complete project activities?

Options:

A.  

Authority

B.  

Role

C.  

Competency

D.  

Responsibility

Discussion 0
Questions 6

Which written document helps monitor who is responsible for resolving specific problems and concerns by a target date?

Options:

A.  

Project Plan

B.  

Responsibility Matrix

C.  

Issue Log

D.  

Scope Document

Discussion 0
Questions 7

Which Perform Quality Control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate?

Options:

A.  

Control chart

B.  

Flowchart

C.  

Run chart

D.  

Pareto chart

Discussion 0
Questions 8

In the Develop Project Team process, which of the following is identified as a critical factor for a project's success?

Options:

A.  

Team meetings

B.  

Subcontracting teams

C.  

Virtual teams

D.  

Teamwork

Discussion 0
Questions 9

The definition of operations is a/an:

Options:

A.  

organizational function performing the temporary execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service.

B.  

temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.

C.  

organization that provides oversight for an administrative area.

D.  

organizational function performing the ongoing execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service.

Discussion 0
Questions 10

Changes to formally controlled documentation, plans, etc. to reflect modified or additional ideas or content are known as:

Options:

A.  

updates.

B.  

defect repairs.

C.  

preventive actions.

D.  

corrective actions.

Discussion 0
Questions 11

In the basic communication model, which term refers to the method that is used to convey the message?

Options:

A.  

Decode

B.  

Encode

C.  

Medium

D.  

Noise

Discussion 0
Questions 12

An input to the Collect Requirements process is the:

Options:

A.  

stakeholder register.

B.  

project management plan.

C.  

project scope statement.

D.  

requirements management plan.

Discussion 0
Questions 13

Which of the following are an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Identify Risks process?

Options:

A.  

Work performance reports

B.  

Assumptions logs

C.  

Network diagrams

D.  

Academic studies

Discussion 0
Questions 14

At which stage of team development do members begin to work together, adjust work habits, and trust each other?

Options:

A.  

Forming

B.  

Storming

C.  

Norming

D.  

Performing

Discussion 0
Questions 15

How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and low interest be grouped in a power/interest grid during stakeholder analysis?

Options:

A.  

Keep satisfied

B.  

Keep informed

C.  

Manage closely

D.  

Monitor

Discussion 0
Questions 16

Requirements documentation, requirements management plan, and requirements traceability matrix are all outputs of which process?

Options:

A.  

Control Scope

B.  

Collect Requirements

C.  

Create WBS

D.  

Define Scope

Discussion 0
Questions 17

Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:

Options:

A.  

feasibility study, concept development, design, and prototype.

B.  

initiate, plan, execute, and monitor.

C.  

Develop Charter, Define Activities, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Report Performance.

D.  

Identify Stakeholders, develop concept, build, and test.

Discussion 0
Questions 18

Which of the following response strategies are appropriate for negative risks or threats?

Options:

A.  

Share, Accept, Transfer, or Mitigate

B.  

Exploit, Enhance, Share, or Accept

C.  

Mitigate, Share, Avoid, or Accept

D.  

Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer, or Accept

Discussion 0
Questions 19

The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:

Options:

A.  

assumption log.

B.  

quality checklist.

C.  

risk register.

D.  

contract type.

Discussion 0
Questions 20

Exhibit A is an example of which of the following types of Sequence Activities?

Options:

A.  

Activity-on-arrow diagramming

B.  

Precedence diagramming

C.  

Project schedule network diagramming

D.  

Mathematical analysis diagramming

Discussion 0
Questions 21

Which of the following is a group decision-making technique?

Options:

A.  

Brainstorming

B.  

Focus groups

C.  

Affinity diagram

D.  

Plurality

Discussion 0
Questions 22

Plan-do-check-act is also known as:

Options:

A.  

prevention over inspection.

B.  

statistical sampling.

C.  

management responsibility,

D.  

continuous improvement.

Discussion 0
Questions 23

Expected monetary value (EMV) is computed by which equation?

Options:

A.  

Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of occurrence

B.  

Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of non-occurrence

C.  

Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of occurrence and adding the products together

D.  

Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of non-occurrence and adding the products together

Discussion 0
Questions 24

Which of the following is an estimating technique that uses the values of parameters from previous similar projects for estimating the same parameter or measure for a current project?

Options:

A.  

Reserve analysis

B.  

Three-point estimating

C.  

Parametric estimating

D.  

Analogous estimating

Discussion 0
Questions 25

Which type of diagram includes groups of information and shows relationships between factors, causes, and objectives?

Options:

A.  

Affinity

B.  

Scatter

C.  

Fishbone

D.  

Matrix

Discussion 0
Questions 26

Which is an output of the Collect Requirements process?

Options:

A.  

Requirements traceability matrix

B.  

Project scope statement

C.  

WBS dictionary

D.  

Work performance measurements

Discussion 0
Questions 27

The completion of the project scope is measured against the:

Options:

A.  

requirements documentation.

B.  

project scope statement.

C.  

project management plan.

D.  

work performance measurements.

Discussion 0
Questions 28

Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements process?

Options:

A.  

Project statement of work

B.  

Selected sellers

C.  

Risk register updates

D.  

Teaming agreements

Discussion 0
Questions 29

In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance?

Options:

A.  

Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)

B.  

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP-EPA)

C.  

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)

D.  

Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)

Discussion 0
Questions 30

In Plan Risk Management, which of the management plans determines who will be available to share information on various risks and responses at different times and locations?

Options:

A.  

Schedule

B.  

Quality

C.  

Communications

D.  

Cost

Discussion 0
Questions 31

Co-location is a tool and technique of:

Options:

A.  

Develop Human Resource Plan.

B.  

Manage Project Team.

C.  

Develop Project Team.

D.  

Acquire Project Team.

Discussion 0
Questions 32

When calculating the cost of quality (COQ) for a product or service, money spent for cost of conformance would include the areas of:

Options:

A.  

training, testing, and warranty work.

B.  

equipment, rework, and scrap.

C.  

training, document processes, and inspections.

D.  

inspections, rework, and warranty work.

Discussion 0
Questions 33

Managing procurement relationships and monitoring contract performance are part of which process?

Options:

A.  

Conduct Procurements

B.  

Plan Procurements

C.  

Administer Procurements

D.  

Close Procurements

Discussion 0
Questions 34

The key benefit of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group is the ability to:

Options:

A.  

establish and manage project communication channels, both external and internal to the project team.

B.  

influence the stakeholders that want to circumvent integrated change control so that their changes are implemented.

C.  

monitor the ongoing project team against the team performance assessments and the project performance baseline.

D.  

observe and measure project performance regularly and consistently to identify variances from the project management plan.

Discussion 0
Questions 35

Which of the following types of a dependency determination is used to define the sequence of activities?

Options:

A.  

Legal

B.  

Discretionary

C.  

Internal

D.  

Resource

Discussion 0
Questions 36

Which category of contracts are sellers legally obligated to complete, with possible financial damages if the project objectives are not met?

Options:

A.  

Cost-reimbursable contracts

B.  

Time and Material contracts (T&M)

C.  

Fixed-price contracts

D.  

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contracts (CPFF)

Discussion 0
Questions 37

Which technique is commonly used for the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?

Options:

A.  

Brainstorming

B.  

Strategies for opportunities

C.  

Decision tree analysis

D.  

Risk data quality assessment

Discussion 0
Questions 38

A project manager should document the escalation path for unresolved project risks in the:

Options:

A.  

Change control plan

B.  

Stakeholder register

C.  

Risk log

D.  

Communications management plan

Discussion 0
Questions 39

Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process provides guidance on how stakeholders can best be involved in a project?

Options:

A.  

Feedback analysis

B.  

Stakeholder analysis

C.  

Communication management plan

D.  

Stakeholder management plan

Discussion 0
Questions 40

When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?

Options:

A.  

Interactive communication

B.  

Claims administration

C.  

Conflict management

D.  

Performance reporting

Discussion 0
Questions 41

Stakeholder satisfaction should be managed as a key project:

Options:

A.  

Benefit

B.  

Initiative

C.  

Objective

D.  

Process

Discussion 0
Questions 42

Which process involves subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable portions?

Options:

A.  

Develop Schedule

B.  

Create VVBS

C.  

Estimate Activity Resources

D.  

Define Scope

Discussion 0
Questions 43

An element of the project scope statement is:

Options:

A.  

Acceptance criteria.

B.  

A stakeholder list.

C.  

A summary budget,

D.  

High-level risks.

Discussion 0
Questions 44

During which process does a project manager review all prior information to ensure that all project work is completed and that the project has met its objectives?

Options:

A.  

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.  

Perform Quality Assurance

C.  

Close Project or Phase

D.  

Control Scope

Discussion 0
Questions 45

Which type of project management office (PMO) supplies templates, best practices, and training to project teams?

Options:

A.  

Supportive

B.  

Directive

C.  

Controlling

D.  

Instructive

Discussion 0
Questions 46

The basis of identification for current or potential problems to support later claims or new procurements is provided by:

Options:

A.  

A risk urgency assessment.

B.  

The scope baseline.

C.  

Work performance information.

D.  

Procurement audits.

Discussion 0
Questions 47

Updates to organizational process assets such as procurement files, deliverable acceptances, and lessons learned documentation are typical outputs of which process?

Options:

A.  

Close Project or Phase

B.  

Conduct Procurements

C.  

Control Procurements

D.  

Close Procurements

Discussion 0
Questions 48

Which tool or technique is used to manage change requests and the resulting decisions?

Options:

A.  

Change control tools

B.  

Expert judgment

C.  

Delphi technique

D.  

Change log

Discussion 0
Questions 49

An input to the Identify Stakeholders process is:

Options:

A.  

The project management plan.

B.  

The stakeholder register.

C.  

Procurement documents.

D.  

Stakeholder analysis.

Discussion 0
Questions 50

In the Define Activities process, the schedule management plan is used to:

Options:

A.  

Capture the lessons learned from other projects for comparison.

B.  

Contain the standard activity list.

C.  

Document and support the project change requests.

D.  

Prescribe the level of detail needed to manage the work.

Discussion 0
Questions 51

Stakeholders can be identified in later stages of the project because the Identify Stakeholders process should be:

Options:

A.  

Continuous

B.  

Discrete

C.  

Regulated

D.  

Arbitrary

Discussion 0
Questions 52

Which basic quality tool explains a change in the dependent variable in relationship to a change observed in the corresponding independent variable?

Options:

A.  

Cause-and-effect diagram

B.  

Histogram

C.  

Control chart

D.  

Scatter diagram

Discussion 0
Questions 53

Project deliverables that have been completed and checked for correctness through the Control Quality process are known as:

Options:

A.  

Verified deliverables.

B.  

Validated deliverables.

C.  

Acceptance criteria.

D.  

Activity resource requirements.

Discussion 0
Questions 54

Technical capability, past performance, and intellectual property rights are examples of:

Options:

A.  

performance measurement criteria

B.  

source selection criteria

C.  

product acceptance criteria

D.  

phase exit criteria

Discussion 0
Questions 55

A tool and technique used in the Develop Project Charter process is:

Options:

A.  

change control tools

B.  

expert judgment

C.  

meetings

D.  

analytical techniques

Discussion 0
Questions 56

Perform Integrated Change Control is the process of:

Options:

A.  

Reviewing, approving, and managing all change requests

B.  

Facilitating change management, manuals, or automation tools

C.  

Comparing actual results with planned results in order to expand or change a project

D.  

Documenting changes according to the change control system by the change control board

Discussion 0
Questions 57

Which document describes the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment?

Options:

A.  

Cost baseline

B.  

Service level agreement

C.  

Memorandum of understanding

D.  

Business case

Discussion 0
Questions 58

Which stakeholder classification model groups stakeholders based on their level of authority and their active involvement in the project?

Options:

A.  

Power/influence grid

B.  

Power/interest grid

C.  

Influence/impact grid

D.  

Salience model

Discussion 0
Questions 59

Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and trend analysis are examples of which tool or technique?

Options:

A.  

Expert judgment

B.  

Forecasting methods

C.  

Earned value management

D.  

Analytical techniques

Discussion 0
Questions 60

Which Define Activities output extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple components associated with each activity?

Options:

A.  

Project document updates

B.  

Activity list

C.  

Activity attributes

D.  

Project calendars

Discussion 0
Questions 61

Which Plan Schedule Management tool or technique may involve choosing strategic options to estimate and schedule the project?

Options:

A.  

Facilitation techniques

B.  

Expert judgment

C.  

Analytical techniques

D.  

Variance analysis

Discussion 0
Questions 62

A temporary endeavor that creates a unique product or service is called a:

Options:

A.  

Project

B.  

Plan

C.  

Program

D.  

Portfolio

Discussion 0
Questions 63

What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?

Options:

A.  

0.50

B.  

0.67

C.  

1.50

D.  

2.00

Discussion 0
Questions 64

A project manager builds consensus and overcomes obstacles by employing which communication technique?

Options:

A.  

Listening

B.  

Facilitation

C.  

Meeting management

D.  

Presentation

Discussion 0
Questions 65

A project team member agrees to change a project deliverable after a conversation with an external stakeholder. It is later discovered that the change has had an adverse effect on another deliverable. This could have been avoided if the project team had implemented:

Options:

A.  

Quality assurance.

B.  

A stakeholder management plan.

C.  

Project team building.

D.  

Integrated change control.

Discussion 0
Questions 66

Skills necessary for project management such as motivating to provide encouragement; listening actively; persuading a team to perform an action; and summarizing, recapping, and identifying next steps are known as:

Options:

A.  

organizational skills

B.  

technical skills

C.  

communication skills

D.  

hard skills

Discussion 0
Questions 67

The purpose of the Project Communications Management Knowledge Area is to:

Options:

A.  

Monitor and control communications throughout the entire project life cycle.

B.  

Maintain an optimal flow of information among all project participants.

C.  

Develop an appropriate approach for project communications.

D.  

Ensure timely and appropriate collection of project information.

Discussion 0
Questions 68

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The shortest non-critical path for the project is how many days in duration?

Options:

A.  

10

B.  

12

C.  

14

D.  

16

Discussion 0
Questions 69

For a stakeholder with low interest and high power, the project manager should:

Options:

A.  

Monitor the stakeholder.

B.  

Manage the stakeholder closely.

C.  

Keep the stakeholder satisfied.

D.  

Keep the stakeholder informed.

Discussion 0
Questions 70

In a typical project, project managers spend most of their time:

Options:

A.  

Estimating

B.  

Scheduling

C.  

Controlling

D.  

Communicating

Discussion 0
Questions 71

Every project creates a unique product, service, or result that may be:

Options:

A.  

tangible

B.  

targeted

C.  

organized

D.  

variable

Discussion 0
Questions 72

Impacts to other organizational areas, levels of service, and acceptance criteria are typical components of which document?

Options:

A.  

Business case

B.  

Work breakdown structure

C.  

Requirements documentation

D.  

Risk register

Discussion 0
Questions 73

Which of the following is an example of schedule compression?

Options:

A.  

Activity sequencing

B.  

Resource leveling

C.  

Lead and lag adjusting

D.  

Crashing

Discussion 0
Questions 74

Testing falls into which of the following categories of cost of quality?

Options:

A.  

Internal failure costs

B.  

Prevention costs

C.  

Appraisal costs

D.  

External failure costs

Discussion 0
Questions 75

In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information?

Options:

A.  

Project Scope Management

B.  

Project Time Management

C.  

Project Communications Management

D.  

Project Quality Management

Discussion 0
Questions 76

Which process should be conducted from the project inception through completion?

Options:

A.  

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.  

Perform Quality Control

C.  

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.  

Monitor and Control Risks

Discussion 0
Questions 77

When sequencing activities, what does the common acronym FF stand for?

Options:

A.  

Fixed Fee

B.  

Free Float

C.  

Fixed Finish

D.  

Finish-to-Finish

Discussion 0
Questions 78

Plan Communications Management develops an approach and plan for project communications based on stakeholders' needs and requirements and:

Options:

A.  

Available organizational assets

B.  

Project staff assignments

C.  

Interpersonal skills

D.  

Enterprise environmental factors

Discussion 0
Questions 79

A project requires a component with well-understood specifications. Performance targets are established at the outset, and the final contract price is determined after completion of all work based on the seller's performance. The most appropriate agreement with the supplier is:

Options:

A.  

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF).

B.  

Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF).

C.  

Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF).

D.  

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment (FP-EPA).

Discussion 0
Questions 80

Correlated and contextualized information on how closely the scope is being maintained relative to the scope baseline is contained within:

Options:

A.  

project documents updates.

B.  

project management plan updates.

C.  

change requests.

D.  

work performance information.

Discussion 0
Questions 81

At the completion of a project, a report is prepared that details the outcome of the research conducted on a global trend during the project. Which item did this project create?

Options:

A.  

Result

B.  

Product

C.  

Service

D.  

Improvement

Discussion 0
Questions 82

A project manager who communicates to the project team though email is using which type of communication?

Options:

A.  

Formal

B.  

Informal r

C.  

Horizontal

D.  

Unofficial

Discussion 0
Questions 83

A projects purpose or justification, measurable project objectives and related success criteria, a summary milestone schedule, and a summary budget are all components of which document?

Options:

A.  

Work breakdown structure

B.  

Requirements document

C.  

Project charter

D.  

Project management plan

Discussion 0
Questions 84

Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis?

Options:

A.  

Nominal group technique

B.  

Idea/mind mapping

C.  

Affinity diagram

D.  

Brainstorming

Discussion 0
Questions 85

What is one of the objectives of Project Risk Management?

Options:

A.  

Decrease the probability and impact of an event on project objectives.

B.  

Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a risk mitigation plan can be put in place.

C.  

Increase the probability and impact of positive events.

D.  

Removal of project risk.

Discussion 0
Questions 86

Change requests are an output from which Project Integration Management process?

Options:

A.  

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.  

Develop Project Management Plan

C.  

Close Project

D.  

Develop Project Charter

Discussion 0
Questions 87

Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?

Options:

A.  

Requested changes

B.  

Approved change requests

C.  

Work performance information

D.  

Implemented defect repair

Discussion 0
Questions 88

Managing ongoing production of goods and services to ensure business continues efficiently describes which type of management?

Options:

A.  

Portfolio

B.  

Project

C.  

Program

D.  

Operations

Discussion 0
Questions 89

Which tool or technique of Plan Quality involves comparing actual or planned practices to those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis by which to measure performance?

Options:

A.  

Histogram

B.  

Quality audits

C.  

Benchmarking

D.  

Performance measurement analysis

Discussion 0
Questions 90

An electronics firm authorizes a new project to develop a faster, cheaper, and smaller laptop after improvements in the industry and electronics technology. With which of the following strategic considerations is this project mainly concerned?

Options:

A.  

Customer request

B.  

Market demand

C.  

Technological advance

D.  

Strategic opportunity

Discussion 0
Questions 91

When is a Salience Model used?

Options:

A.  

In a work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.  

During quality assurance

C.  

In stakeholder analysis

D.  

During quality control (QC)

Discussion 0
Questions 92

Who, along with the project manager, is supposed to direct the performance of the planned project activities and manage the various technical and organizational interfaces that exist within the project?

Options:

A.  

The customer and functional managers

B.  

The risk owners and stakeholders

C.  

The sponsors and stakeholders

D.  

The project management team

Discussion 0
Questions 93

Which illustrates the connection between work that needs to be done and its project team members?

Options:

A.  

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.  

Network diagrams

C.  

Staffing management plan

D.  

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

Discussion 0
Questions 94

What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria?

Options:

A.  

Decomposition

B.  

Benchmarking

C.  

Inspection

D.  

Checklist analysis

Discussion 0
Questions 95

Which action should a project manager take to ensure that the project management plan is effective and current?

Options:

A.  

Conduct periodic project performance reviews.

B.  

Identify quality project standards.

C.  

Follow ISO 9000 quality standards.

D.  

Complete the quality control checklist.

Discussion 0
Questions 96

Outputs of the Control Communications process include:

Options:

A.  

expert judgment and change requests

B.  

work performance information and change requests

C.  

project management plan updates and work performance information

D.  

issue logs and organizational process assets updates

Discussion 0
Questions 97

Which defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?

Options:

A.  

Procurement management plan

B.  

Evaluation criteria

C.  

Work breakdown structure

D.  

Procurement statement of work

Discussion 0
Questions 98

Sharing good practices introduced or implemented in similar projects in the organization and/or industry is an example of:

Options:

A.  

quality audits

B.  

process analysis

C.  

statistical sampling

D.  

benchmarking

Discussion 0
Questions 99

Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages?

Options:

A.  

Estimate Costs

B.  

Estimate Activity Resources

C.  

Control Costs

D.  

Determine Budget

Discussion 0
Questions 100

Projects can be divided into phases to provide better management control. Collectively, what are these phases known as?

Options:

A.  

Complete project phase

B.  

Project life

C.  

The project life cycle

D.  

Project cycle

Discussion 0
Questions 101

During which process group is the quality policy determined?

Options:

A.  

Initiating

B.  

Executing

C.  

Planning

D.  

Controlling

Discussion 0
Questions 102

Which of the following processes are part of the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.  

Develop Project Management Plan, Collect Requirements, Create WBS

B.  

Develop Project Management Plan, Control Scope, Develop Schedule

C.  

Develop Project Charter, Define Scope, Estimate Costs

D.  

Develop Project Charter, Direct and Manage Project Execution, Close Project or Phase

Discussion 0
Questions 103

What is the definition of Direct and Manage Project Execution?

Options:

A.  

Integrating all planned activities

B.  

Performing the activities included in the plan

C.  

Developing and maintaining the plan

D.  

Execution of deliverables

Discussion 0
Questions 104

Which of the following statements correctly characterizes pull communication?

Options:

A.  

It includes letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes.

B.  

It requires recipients to access communication content at their own discretion.

C.  

It is the most efficient way to ensure a common understanding among all participants.

D.  

It is primarily used when the volume of information to be transferred is minimal.

Discussion 0
Questions 105

Which type of estimating can produce higher levels of accuracy, depending upon the sophistication and underlying data built into the model?

Options:

A.  

Bottom-up

B.  

Three-point

C.  

Parametric

D.  

Analogous

Discussion 0