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Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Question and Answers

Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP)

Last Update Nov 30, 2025
Total Questions : 1486

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Questions 1

Users require access rights that allow them to view the average salary of groups of employees. Which control would prevent the users from obtaining an individual employee’s salary?

Options:

A.  

Limit access to predefined queries

B.  

Segregate the database into a small number of partitions each with a separate security level

C.  

Implement Role Based Access Control (RBAC)

D.  

Reduce the number of people who have access to the system for statistical purposes

Discussion 0
Questions 2

Which of the following BEST describes an access control method utilizing cryptographic keys derived from a smart card private key that is embedded within mobile devices?

Options:

A.  

Derived credential

B.  

Temporary security credential

C.  

Mobile device credentialing service

D.  

Digest authentication

Discussion 0
Questions 3

Which of the following mobile code security models relies only on trust?

Options:

A.  

Code signing

B.  

Class authentication

C.  

Sandboxing

D.  

Type safety

Discussion 0
Questions 4

Which component of the Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP) specification contains the data required to estimate the severity of vulnerabilities identified automated vulnerability assessments?

Options:

A.  

Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE)

B.  

Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS)

C.  

Asset Reporting Format (ARF)

D.  

Open Vulnerability and Assessment Language (OVAL)

Discussion 0
Questions 5

Who in the organization is accountable for classification of data information assets?

Options:

A.  

Data owner

B.  

Data architect

C.  

Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)

D.  

Chief Information Officer (CIO)

Discussion 0
Questions 6

What is the second phase of Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) key/certificate life-cycle management?

Options:

A.  

Implementation Phase

B.  

Initialization Phase

C.  

Cancellation Phase

D.  

Issued Phase

Discussion 0
Questions 7

The use of private and public encryption keys is fundamental in the implementation of which of the following?

Options:

A.  

Diffie-Hellman algorithm

B.  

Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)

C.  

Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)

D.  

Message Digest 5 (MD5)

Discussion 0
Questions 8

Which technique can be used to make an encryption scheme more resistant to a known plaintext attack?

Options:

A.  

Hashing the data before encryption

B.  

Hashing the data after encryption

C.  

Compressing the data after encryption

D.  

Compressing the data before encryption

Discussion 0
Questions 9

Which security service is served by the process of encryption plaintext with the sender’s private key and decrypting cipher text with the sender’s public key?

Options:

A.  

Confidentiality

B.  

Integrity

C.  

Identification

D.  

Availability

Discussion 0
Questions 10

Options:

A.  

Require the cloud 1AM provider to use declarative security instead of programmatic authentication checks.

B.  

Integrate a Web-Application Firewall (WAF) In reverie-proxy mode in front of the service provider.

C.  

Apply Transport layer Security (TLS) to the cloud-based authentication checks.

D.  

Install an on-premise Authentication Gateway Service (AGS) In front of the service provider.

Discussion 0
Questions 11

Which technique helps system designers consider potential security concerns of their systems and applications?

Options:

A.  

Penetration testing

B.  

Threat modeling

C.  

Manual inspections and reviews

D.  

Source code review

Discussion 0
Questions 12

An employee's home address should be categorized according to which of the following references?

Options:

A.  

The consent form terms and conditions signed by employees

B.  

The organization's data classification model

C.  

Existing employee data classifications

D.  

An organization security plan for human resources

Discussion 0
Questions 13

An attacker has intruded into the source code management system and is able to download but not modify the code. Which of the following aspects of the code theft has the HIGHEST security impact?

Options:

A.  

The attacker could publicly share confidential comments found in the stolen code.

B.  

Competitors might be able to steal the organization's ideas by looking at the stolen code.

C.  

A competitor could run their own copy of the organization's website using the stolen code.

D.  

Administrative credentials or keys hard-coded within the stolen code could be used to access sensitive data.

Discussion 0
Questions 14

Which of the following is used to ensure that data mining activities Will NOT reveal sensitive data?

Options:

A.  

Implement two-factor authentication on the underlying infrastructure.

B.  

Encrypt data at the field level and tightly control encryption keys.

C.  

Preprocess the databases to see if inn …… can be disclosed from the learned patterns.

D.  

Implement the principle of least privilege on data elements so a reduced number of users can access the database.

Discussion 0
Questions 15

During a Disaster Recovery (DR) simulation, it is discovered that the shared recovery site lacks adequate data restoration capabilities to support the implementation of multiple plans simultaneously. What would be impacted by this fact if left unchanged?

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 16

Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of software forensics?

Options:

A.  

To perform cyclic redundancy check (CRC) verification and detect changed applications

B.  

To review program code to determine the existence of backdoors

C.  

To analyze possible malicious intent of malware

D.  

To determine the author and behavior of the code

Discussion 0
Questions 17

Which of the following is the strongest physical access control?

Options:

A.  

Biometrics and badge reader

B.  

Biometrics, a password, and personal identification number (PIN)

C.  

Individual password for each user

D.  

Biometrics, a password, and badge reader

Discussion 0
Questions 18

In which process MUST security be considered during the acquisition of new software?

Options:

A.  

Contract negotiation

B.  

Request for proposal (RFP)

C.  

Implementation

D.  

Vendor selection

Discussion 0
Questions 19

When are security requirements the LEAST expensive to implement?

Options:

A.  

When identified by external consultants

B.  

During the application rollout phase

C.  

During each phase of the project cycle

D.  

When built into application design

Discussion 0
Questions 20

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for selecting the appropriate level of detail for audit record generation?

Options:

A.  

Lower costs throughout the System Development Life Cycle (SDLC)

B.  

Facilitate a root cause analysis (RCA)

C.  

Enable generation of corrective action reports

D.  

Avoid lengthy audit reports

Discussion 0
Questions 21

The Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA) algorithm is BEST suited for which of the following operations?

Options:

A.  

Bulk data encryption and decryption

B.  

One-way secure hashing for user and message authentication

C.  

Secure key exchange for symmetric cryptography

D.  

Creating digital checksums for message integrity

Discussion 0
Questions 22

Which of the following phases in the software acquisition process does developing evaluation criteria take place?

Options:

A.  

Follow-On

B.  

Planning

C.  

Contracting

D.  

Monitoring and Acceptance

Discussion 0
Questions 23

What is the benefit of using Network Admission Control (NAC)?

Options:

A.  

Operating system (OS) versions can be validated prior to allowing network access.

B.  

NAC supports validation of the endpoint's security posture prior to allowing the session to go into an authorized state.

C.  

NAC can require the use of certificates, passwords, or a combination of both before allowing network admission.

D.  

NAC only supports Windows operating systems (OS).

Discussion 0
Questions 24

Which of the following is the BEST method a security practitioner can use to ensure that systems and sub-systems gracefully handle invalid input?

Options:

A.  

Unit testing

B.  

Integration testing

C.  

Negative testing

D.  

Acceptance testing

Discussion 0
Questions 25

Which of the following is used by the Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) to determine packet formats?

Options:

A.  

Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)

B.  

Link Control Protocol (LCP)

C.  

Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)

D.  

Packet Transfer Protocol (PTP)

Discussion 0
Questions 26

At what level of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model is data at rest on a Storage Area Network (SAN) located?

Options:

A.  

Link layer

B.  

Physical layer

C.  

Session layer

D.  

Application layer

Discussion 0
Questions 27

When is a Business Continuity Plan (BCP) considered to be valid?

Options:

A.  

When it has been validated by the Business Continuity (BC) manager

B.  

When it has been validated by the board of directors

C.  

When it has been validated by all threat scenarios

D.  

When it has been validated by realistic exercises

Discussion 0
Questions 28

What should be the FIRST action to protect the chain of evidence when a desktop computer is involved?

Options:

A.  

Take the computer to a forensic lab

B.  

Make a copy of the hard drive

C.  

Start documenting

D.  

Turn off the computer

Discussion 0
Questions 29

What is the MOST important step during forensic analysis when trying to learn the purpose of an unknown application?

Options:

A.  

Disable all unnecessary services

B.  

Ensure chain of custody

C.  

Prepare another backup of the system

D.  

Isolate the system from the network

Discussion 0
Questions 30

What is the PRIMARY reason for implementing change management?

Options:

A.  

Certify and approve releases to the environment

B.  

Provide version rollbacks for system changes

C.  

Ensure that all applications are approved

D.  

Ensure accountability for changes to the environment

Discussion 0
Questions 31

Recovery strategies of a Disaster Recovery planning (DRIP) MUST be aligned with which of the following?

Options:

A.  

Hardware and software compatibility issues

B.  

Applications’ critically and downtime tolerance

C.  

Budget constraints and requirements

D.  

Cost/benefit analysis and business objectives

Discussion 0
Questions 32

With what frequency should monitoring of a control occur when implementing Information Security Continuous Monitoring (ISCM) solutions?

Options:

A.  

Continuously without exception for all security controls

B.  

Before and after each change of the control

C.  

At a rate concurrent with the volatility of the security control

D.  

Only during system implementation and decommissioning

Discussion 0
Questions 33

A continuous information security monitoring program can BEST reduce risk through which of the following?

Options:

A.  

Collecting security events and correlating them to identify anomalies

B.  

Facilitating system-wide visibility into the activities of critical user accounts

C.  

Encompassing people, process, and technology

D.  

Logging both scheduled and unscheduled system changes

Discussion 0
Questions 34

Which of the following types of business continuity tests includes assessment of resilience to internal and external risks without endangering live operations?

Options:

A.  

Walkthrough

B.  

Simulation

C.  

Parallel

D.  

White box

Discussion 0
Questions 35

Which of the following is the FIRST step in the incident response process?

Options:

A.  

Determine the cause of the incident

B.  

Disconnect the system involved from the network

C.  

Isolate and contain the system involved

D.  

Investigate all symptoms to confirm the incident

Discussion 0
Questions 36

A Business Continuity Plan/Disaster Recovery Plan (BCP/DRP) will provide which of the following?

Options:

A.  

Guaranteed recovery of all business functions

B.  

Minimization of the need decision making during a crisis

C.  

Insurance against litigation following a disaster

D.  

Protection from loss of organization resources

Discussion 0
Questions 37

What is the expected outcome of security awareness in support of a security awareness program?

Options:

A.  

Awareness activities should be used to focus on security concerns and respond to those concerns

accordingly

B.  

Awareness is not an activity or part of the training but rather a state of persistence to support the program

C.  

Awareness is training. The purpose of awareness presentations is to broaden attention of security.

D.  

Awareness is not training. The purpose of awareness presentation is simply to focus attention on security.

Discussion 0
Questions 38

What is the PRIMARY objective for conducting an internal security audit?

Options:

A.  

Verify that all systems and Standard Operating Procedures (SOP) are properly documented.

B.  

Verify that all personnel supporting a system are knowledgeable of their responsibilities.

C.  

Verify that security controls are established following best practices.

D.  

Verify that applicable security controls are implemented and effective.

Discussion 0
Questions 39

Proven application security principles include which of the following?

Options:

A.  

Minimizing attack surface area

B.  

Hardening the network perimeter

C.  

Accepting infrastructure security controls

D.  

Developing independent modules

Discussion 0
Questions 40

Which of the following is mobile device remote fingerprinting?

Options:

A.  

Installing an application to retrieve common characteristics of the device

B.  

Storing information about a remote device in a cookie file

C.  

Identifying a device based on common characteristics shared by all devices of a certain type

D.  

Retrieving the serial number of the mobile device

Discussion 0
Questions 41

When adopting software as a service (Saas), which security responsibility will remain with remain with the adopting organization?

Options:

A.  

Physical security

B.  

Data classification

C.  

Network control

D.  

Application layer control

Discussion 0
Questions 42

Which of the following is the weakest form of protection for an application that handles Personally Identifiable Information (PII)?

Options:

A.  

Transport Layer Security (TLS)

B.  

Ron Rivest Cipher 4 (RC4) encryption

C.  

Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML)

D.  

Multifactor authentication

Discussion 0
Questions 43

Digital certificates used transport Layer security (TLS) support which of the following?

Options:

A.  

Server identify and data confidentially

B.  

Information input validation

C.  

Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)

D.  

Non-reputation controls and data encryption

Discussion 0
Questions 44

An Internet software application requires authentication before a user is permitted to utilize the resource. Which testing scenario BEST validates the functionality of the application?

Options:

A.  

Reasonable data testing

B.  

Input validation testing

C.  

Web session testing

D.  

Allowed data bounds and limits testing

Discussion 0
Questions 45

Match the level of evaluation to the correct common criteria (CC) assurance level.

Drag each level of evaluation on the left to is corresponding CC assurance level on the right

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 46

What is the PRIMARY purpose for an organization to conduct a security audit?

Options:

A.  

To ensure the organization is adhering to a well-defined standard

B.  

To ensure the organization is applying security controls to mitigate identified risks

C.  

To ensure the organization is configuring information systems efficiently

D.  

To ensure the organization is documenting findings

Discussion 0
Questions 47

Which of the following is a web application control that should be put into place to prevent exploitation of Operating System (OS) bugs?

Options:

A.  

Check arguments in function calls

B.  

Test for the security patch level of the environment

C.  

Include logging functions

D.  

Digitally sign each application module

Discussion 0
Questions 48

A Java program is being developed to read a file from computer A and write it to computer B, using a third computer C. The program is not working as expected. What is the MOST probable security feature of Java preventing the program from operating as intended?

Options:

A.  

Least privilege

B.  

Privilege escalation

C.  

Defense in depth

D.  

Privilege bracketing

Discussion 0
Questions 49

What is the BEST approach to addressing security issues in legacy web applications?

Options:

A.  

Debug the security issues

B.  

Migrate to newer, supported applications where possible

C.  

Conduct a security assessment

D.  

Protect the legacy application with a web application firewall

Discussion 0
Questions 50

Which of the following is the BEST method to prevent malware from being introduced into a production environment?

Options:

A.  

Purchase software from a limited list of retailers

B.  

Verify the hash key or certificate key of all updates

C.  

Do not permit programs, patches, or updates from the Internet

D.  

Test all new software in a segregated environment

Discussion 0
Questions 51

Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk with using open source software in a commercial software construction?

Options:

A.  

Lack of software documentation

B.  

License agreements requiring release of modified code

C.  

Expiration of the license agreement

D.  

Costs associated with support of the software

Discussion 0
Questions 52

The configuration management and control task of the certification and accreditation process is incorporated in which phase of the System Development Life Cycle (SDLC)?

Options:

A.  

System acquisition and development

B.  

System operations and maintenance

C.  

System initiation

D.  

System implementation

Discussion 0
Questions 53

When in the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) MUST software security functional requirements be defined?

Options:

A.  

After the system preliminary design has been developed and the data security categorization has been performed

B.  

After the vulnerability analysis has been performed and before the system detailed design begins

C.  

After the system preliminary design has been developed and before the data security categorization begins

D.  

After the business functional analysis and the data security categorization have been performed

Discussion 0
Questions 54

Why MUST a Kerberos server be well protected from unauthorized access?

Options:

A.  

It contains the keys of all clients.

B.  

It always operates at root privilege.

C.  

It contains all the tickets for services.

D.  

It contains the Internet Protocol (IP) address of all network entities.

Discussion 0
Questions 55

What is the FIRST step in developing a security test and its evaluation?

Options:

A.  

Determine testing methods

B.  

Develop testing procedures

C.  

Identify all applicable security requirements

D.  

Identify people, processes, and products not in compliance

Discussion 0
Questions 56

When implementing controls in a heterogeneous end-point network for an organization, it is critical that

Options:

A.  

hosts are able to establish network communications.

B.  

users can make modifications to their security software configurations.

C.  

common software security components be implemented across all hosts.

D.  

firewalls running on each host are fully customizable by the user.

Discussion 0
Questions 57

Contingency plan exercises are intended to do which of the following?

Options:

A.  

Train personnel in roles and responsibilities

B.  

Validate service level agreements

C.  

Train maintenance personnel

D.  

Validate operation metrics

Discussion 0
Questions 58

Which of the following is an attacker MOST likely to target to gain privileged access to a system?

Options:

A.  

Programs that write to system resources

B.  

Programs that write to user directories

C.  

Log files containing sensitive information

D.  

Log files containing system calls

Discussion 0
Questions 59

The goal of software assurance in application development is to

Options:

A.  

enable the development of High Availability (HA) systems.

B.  

facilitate the creation of Trusted Computing Base (TCB) systems.

C.  

prevent the creation of vulnerable applications.

D.  

encourage the development of open source applications.

Discussion 0
Questions 60

In Business Continuity Planning (BCP), what is the importance of documenting business processes?

Options:

A.  

Provides senior management with decision-making tools

B.  

Establishes and adopts ongoing testing and maintenance strategies

C.  

Defines who will perform which functions during a disaster or emergency

D.  

Provides an understanding of the organization's interdependencies

Discussion 0
Questions 61

When implementing a data classification program, why is it important to avoid too much granularity?

Options:

A.  

The process will require too many resources

B.  

It will be difficult to apply to both hardware and software

C.  

It will be difficult to assign ownership to the data

D.  

The process will be perceived as having value

Discussion 0
Questions 62

Which one of the following affects the classification of data?

Options:

A.  

Assigned security label

B.  

Multilevel Security (MLS) architecture

C.  

Minimum query size

D.  

Passage of time

Discussion 0
Questions 63

Which of the following BEST describes the responsibilities of a data owner?

Options:

A.  

Ensuring quality and validation through periodic audits for ongoing data integrity

B.  

Maintaining fundamental data availability, including data storage and archiving

C.  

Ensuring accessibility to appropriate users, maintaining appropriate levels of data security

D.  

Determining the impact the information has on the mission of the organization

Discussion 0
Questions 64

Which of the following is an initial consideration when developing an information security management system?

Options:

A.  

Identify the contractual security obligations that apply to the organizations

B.  

Understand the value of the information assets

C.  

Identify the level of residual risk that is tolerable to management

D.  

Identify relevant legislative and regulatory compliance requirements

Discussion 0
Questions 65

Which of the following is an effective control in preventing electronic cloning of Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) based access cards?

Options:

A.  

Personal Identity Verification (PIV)

B.  

Cardholder Unique Identifier (CHUID) authentication

C.  

Physical Access Control System (PACS) repeated attempt detection

D.  

Asymmetric Card Authentication Key (CAK) challenge-response

Discussion 0
Questions 66

Which of the following is MOST important when assigning ownership of an asset to a department?

Options:

A.  

The department should report to the business owner

B.  

Ownership of the asset should be periodically reviewed

C.  

Individual accountability should be ensured

D.  

All members should be trained on their responsibilities

Discussion 0
Questions 67

In a data classification scheme, the data is owned by the

Options:

A.  

system security managers

B.  

business managers

C.  

Information Technology (IT) managers

D.  

end users

Discussion 0
Questions 68

An organization has doubled in size due to a rapid market share increase. The size of the Information Technology (IT) staff has maintained pace with this growth. The organization hires several contractors whose onsite time is limited. The IT department has pushed its limits building servers and rolling out workstations and has a backlog of account management requests.

Which contract is BEST in offloading the task from the IT staff?

Options:

A.  

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

B.  

Identity as a Service (IDaaS)

C.  

Desktop as a Service (DaaS)

D.  

Software as a Service (SaaS)

Discussion 0
Questions 69

Refer to the information below to answer the question.

An organization experiencing a negative financial impact is forced to reduce budgets and the number of Information Technology (IT) operations staff performing basic logical access security administration functions. Security processes have been tightly integrated into normal IT operations and are not separate and distinct roles.

When determining appropriate resource allocation, which of the following is MOST important to monitor?

Options:

A.  

Number of system compromises

B.  

Number of audit findings

C.  

Number of staff reductions

D.  

Number of additional assets

Discussion 0
Questions 70

Which of the following secure startup mechanisms are PRIMARILY designed to thwart attacks?

Options:

A.  

Timing

B.  

Cold boot

C.  

Side channel

D.  

Acoustic cryptanalysis

Discussion 0
Questions 71

The use of proximity card to gain access to a building is an example of what type of security control?

Options:

A.  

Legal

B.  

Logical

C.  

Physical

D.  

Procedural

Discussion 0
Questions 72

Which of the following is a critical factor for implementing a successful data classification program?

Options:

A.  

Executive sponsorship

B.  

Information security sponsorship

C.  

End-user acceptance

D.  

Internal audit acceptance

Discussion 0
Questions 73

What is the MAIN feature that onion routing networks offer?

Options:

A.  

Non-repudiation

B.  

Traceability

C.  

Anonymity

D.  

Resilience

Discussion 0
Questions 74

Refer to the information below to answer the question.

Desktop computers in an organization were sanitized for re-use in an equivalent security environment. The data was destroyed in accordance with organizational policy and all marking and other external indications of the sensitivity of the data that was formerly stored on the magnetic drives were removed.

After magnetic drives were degaussed twice according to the product manufacturer's directions, what is the MOST LIKELY security issue with degaussing?

Options:

A.  

Commercial products often have serious weaknesses of the magnetic force available in the degausser product.

B.  

Degausser products may not be properly maintained and operated.

C.  

The inability to turn the drive around in the chamber for the second pass due to human error.

D.  

Inadequate record keeping when sanitizing mediA.

Discussion 0
Questions 75

According to best practice, which of the following is required when implementing third party software in a production environment?

Options:

A.  

Scan the application for vulnerabilities

B.  

Contract the vendor for patching

C.  

Negotiate end user application training

D.  

Escrow a copy of the software

Discussion 0
Questions 76

Which of the following is the BEST reason to review audit logs periodically?

Options:

A.  

Verify they are operating properly

B.  

Monitor employee productivity

C.  

Identify anomalies in use patterns

D.  

Meet compliance regulations

Discussion 0
Questions 77

Which of the following MOST influences the design of the organization's electronic monitoring policies?

Options:

A.  

Workplace privacy laws

B.  

Level of organizational trust

C.  

Results of background checks

D.  

Business ethical considerations

Discussion 0
Questions 78

According to best practice, which of the following groups is the MOST effective in performing an information security compliance audit?

Options:

A.  

In-house security administrators

B.  

In-house Network Team

C.  

Disaster Recovery (DR) Team

D.  

External consultants

Discussion 0
Questions 79

Refer to the information below to answer the question.

A new employee is given a laptop computer with full administrator access. This employee does not have a personal computer at home and has a child that uses the computer to send and receive e-mail, search the web, and use instant messaging. The organization’s Information Technology (IT) department discovers that a peer-to-peer program has been installed on the computer using the employee's access.

Which of the following solutions would have MOST likely detected the use of peer-to-peer programs when the computer was connected to the office network?

Options:

A.  

Anti-virus software

B.  

Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)

C.  

Anti-spyware software

D.  

Integrity checking software

Discussion 0
Questions 80

Which of the following is a detective access control mechanism?

Options:

A.  

Log review

B.  

Least privilege

C.  

Password complexity

D.  

Non-disclosure agreement

Discussion 0
Questions 81

Which of the following BEST describes Recovery Time Objective (RTO)?

Options:

A.  

Time of data validation after disaster

B.  

Time of data restoration from backup after disaster

C.  

Time of application resumption after disaster

D.  

Time of application verification after disaster

Discussion 0
Questions 82

Which of the following violates identity and access management best practices?

Options:

A.  

User accounts

B.  

System accounts

C.  

Generic accounts

D.  

Privileged accounts

Discussion 0
Questions 83

Refer to the information below to answer the question.

An organization has hired an information security officer to lead their security department. The officer has adequate people resources but is lacking the other necessary components to have an effective security program. There are numerous initiatives requiring security involvement.

Which of the following is considered the MOST important priority for the information security officer?

Options:

A.  

Formal acceptance of the security strategy

B.  

Disciplinary actions taken against unethical behavior

C.  

Development of an awareness program for new employees

D.  

Audit of all organization system configurations for faults

Discussion 0
Questions 84

What is the MOST important consideration from a data security perspective when an organization plans to relocate?

Options:

A.  

Ensure the fire prevention and detection systems are sufficient to protect personnel

B.  

Review the architectural plans to determine how many emergency exits are present

C.  

Conduct a gap analysis of a new facilities against existing security requirements

D.  

Revise the Disaster Recovery and Business Continuity (DR/BC) plan

Discussion 0
Questions 85

Which of the following represents the GREATEST risk to data confidentiality?

Options:

A.  

Network redundancies are not implemented

B.  

Security awareness training is not completed

C.  

Backup tapes are generated unencrypted

D.  

Users have administrative privileges

Discussion 0
Questions 86

An important principle of defense in depth is that achieving information security requires a balanced focus on which PRIMARY elements?

Options:

A.  

Development, testing, and deployment

B.  

Prevention, detection, and remediation

C.  

People, technology, and operations

D.  

Certification, accreditation, and monitoring

Discussion 0
Questions 87

Which of the following actions will reduce risk to a laptop before traveling to a high risk area?

Options:

A.  

Examine the device for physical tampering

B.  

Implement more stringent baseline configurations

C.  

Purge or re-image the hard disk drive

D.  

Change access codes

Discussion 0
Questions 88

What is the BEST approach for controlling access to highly sensitive information when employees have the same level of security clearance?

Options:

A.  

Audit logs

B.  

Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)

C.  

Two-factor authentication

D.  

Application of least privilege

Discussion 0
Questions 89

A manufacturing organization wants to establish a Federated Identity Management (FIM) system with its 20 different supplier companies. Which of the following is the BEST solution for the manufacturing organization?

Options:

A.  

Trusted third-party certification

B.  

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

C.  

Security Assertion Markup language (SAML)

D.  

Cross-certification

Discussion 0
Questions 90

What would be the MOST cost effective solution for a Disaster Recovery (DR) site given that the organization’s systems cannot be unavailable for more than 24 hours?

Options:

A.  

Warm site

B.  

Hot site

C.  

Mirror site

D.  

Cold site

Discussion 0
Questions 91

Which of the following is a PRIMARY advantage of using a third-party identity service?

Options:

A.  

Consolidation of multiple providers

B.  

Directory synchronization

C.  

Web based logon

D.  

Automated account management

Discussion 0
Questions 92

An organization is found lacking the ability to properly establish performance indicators for its Web hosting solution during an audit. What would be the MOST probable cause?

Options:

A.  

Absence of a Business Intelligence (BI) solution

B.  

Inadequate cost modeling

C.  

Improper deployment of the Service-Oriented Architecture (SOA)

D.  

Insufficient Service Level Agreement (SLA)

Discussion 0
Questions 93

Which of the following is generally indicative of a replay attack when dealing with biometric authentication?

Options:

A.  

False Acceptance Rate (FAR) is greater than 1 in 100,000

B.  

False Rejection Rate (FRR) is greater than 5 in 100

C.  

Inadequately specified templates

D.  

Exact match

Discussion 0
Questions 94

Are companies legally required to report all data breaches?

Options:

A.  

No, different jurisdictions have different rules.

B.  

No, not if the data is encrypted.

C.  

No, companies' codes of ethics don't require it.

D.  

No, only if the breach had a material impact.

Discussion 0
Questions 95

Data leakage of sensitive information is MOST often concealed by which of the following?

Options:

A.  

Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)

B.  

Secure Hash Algorithm (SHA)

C.  

Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)

D.  

Secure Post Office Protocol (POP)

Discussion 0
Questions 96

Which of the following roles has the obligation to ensure that a third party provider is capable of processing and handling data in a secure manner and meeting the standards set by the organization?

Options:

A.  

Data Custodian

B.  

Data Owner

C.  

Data Creator

D.  

Data User

Discussion 0
Questions 97

In the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model, which layer is responsible for the transmission of binary data over a communications network?

Options:

A.  

Application Layer

B.  

Physical Layer

C.  

Data-Link Layer

D.  

Network Layer

Discussion 0
Questions 98

A Simple Power Analysis (SPA) attack against a device directly observes which of the following?

Options:

A.  

Static discharge

B.  

Consumption

C.  

Generation

D.  

Magnetism

Discussion 0
Questions 99

Which of the following command line tools can be used in the reconnaisance phase of a network vulnerability assessment?

Options:

A.  

dig

B.  

ifconfig

C.  

ipconfig

D.  

nbtstat

Discussion 0
Questions 100

Which of the following BEST describes a Protection Profile (PP)?

Options:

A.  

A document that expresses an implementation independent set of security requirements for an IT product that meets specific consumer needs.

B.  

A document that is used to develop an IT security product from its security requirements definition.

C.  

A document that expresses an implementation dependent set of security requirements which contains only the security functional requirements.

D.  

A document that represents evaluated products where there is a one-to-one correspondence between a PP and a Security Target (ST).

Discussion 0
Questions 101

Which one of the following operates at the session, transport, or network layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model?

Options:

A.  

Data at rest encryption

B.  

Configuration Management

C.  

Integrity checking software

D.  

Cyclic redundancy check (CRC)

Discussion 0
Questions 102

How can lessons learned from business continuity training and actual recovery incidents BEST be used?

Options:

A.  

As a means for improvement

B.  

As alternative options for awareness and training

C.  

As indicators of a need for policy

D.  

As business function gap indicators

Discussion 0
Questions 103

An employee of a retail company has been granted an extended leave of absence by Human Resources (HR). This information has been formally communicated to the access provisioning team. Which of the following is the BEST action to take?

Options:

A.  

Revoke access temporarily.

B.  

Block user access and delete user account after six months.

C.  

Block access to the offices immediately.

D.  

Monitor account usage temporarily.

Discussion 0
Questions 104

What does the Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD) determine?

Options:

A.  

The estimated period of time a business critical database can remain down before customers are affected.

B.  

The fixed length of time a company can endure a disaster without any Disaster Recovery (DR) planning

C.  

The estimated period of time a business can remain interrupted beyond which it risks never recovering

D.  

The fixed length of time in a DR process before redundant systems are engaged

Discussion 0
Questions 105

A security architect plans to reference a Mandatory Access Control (MAC) model for implementation. This indicates that which of the following properties are being prioritized?

Options:

A.  

Confidentiality

B.  

Integrity

C.  

Availability

D.  

Accessibility

Discussion 0
Questions 106

A proxy firewall operates at what layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model?

Options:

A.  

Transport

B.  

Data link

C.  

Network

D.  

Application

Discussion 0
Questions 107

The goal of a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) is to determine which of the following?

Options:

A.  

Cost effectiveness of business recovery

B.  

Cost effectiveness of installing software security patches

C.  

Resource priorities for recovery and Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD)

D.  

Which security measures should be implemented

Discussion 0
Questions 108

During the Security Assessment and Authorization process, what is the PRIMARY purpose for conducting a hardware and software inventory?

Options:

A.  

Calculate the value of assets being accredited.

B.  

Create a list to include in the Security Assessment and Authorization package.

C.  

Identify obsolete hardware and software.

D.  

Define the boundaries of the information system.

Discussion 0
Questions 109

Which of the following are effective countermeasures against passive network-layer attacks?

Options:

A.  

Federated security and authenticated access controls

B.  

Trusted software development and run time integrity controls

C.  

Encryption and security enabled applications

D.  

Enclave boundary protection and computing environment defense

Discussion 0
Questions 110

Which of the following would BEST describe the role directly responsible for data within an organization?

Options:

A.  

Data custodian

B.  

Information owner

C.  

Database administrator

D.  

Quality control

Discussion 0
Questions 111

In general, servers that are facing the Internet should be placed in a demilitarized zone (DMZ). What is MAIN purpose of the DMZ?

Options:

A.  

Reduced risk to internal systems.

B.  

Prepare the server for potential attacks.

C.  

Mitigate the risk associated with the exposed server.

D.  

Bypass the need for a firewall.

Discussion 0
Questions 112

A company was ranked as high in the following National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) functions: Protect, Detect, Respond and Recover. However, a low maturity grade was attributed to the Identify function. In which of the following the controls categories does this company need to improve when analyzing its processes individually?

Options:

A.  

Asset Management, Business Environment, Governance and Risk Assessment

B.  

Access Control, Awareness and Training, Data Security and Maintenance

C.  

Anomalies and Events, Security Continuous Monitoring and Detection Processes

D.  

Recovery Planning, Improvements and Communications

Discussion 0
Questions 113

Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of using a formalized security testing report format and structure?

Options:

A.  

Executive audiences will understand the outcomes of testing and most appropriate next steps for corrective actions to be taken

B.  

Technical teams will understand the testing objectives, testing strategies applied, and business risk associated with each vulnerability

C.  

Management teams will understand the testing objectives and reputational risk to the organization

D.  

Technical and management teams will better understand the testing objectives, results of each test phase, and potential impact levels

Discussion 0
Questions 114

Which of the following is of GREATEST assistance to auditors when reviewing system configurations?

Options:

A.  

Change management processes

B.  

User administration procedures

C.  

Operating System (OS) baselines

D.  

System backup documentation

Discussion 0
Questions 115

In which of the following programs is it MOST important to include the collection of security process data?

Options:

A.  

Quarterly access reviews

B.  

Security continuous monitoring

C.  

Business continuity testing

D.  

Annual security training

Discussion 0
Questions 116

A Virtual Machine (VM) environment has five guest Operating Systems (OS) and provides strong isolation. What MUST an administrator review to audit a user’s access to data files?

Options:

A.  

Host VM monitor audit logs

B.  

Guest OS access controls

C.  

Host VM access controls

D.  

Guest OS audit logs

Discussion 0
Questions 117

Which of the following could cause a Denial of Service (DoS) against an authentication system?

Options:

A.  

Encryption of audit logs

B.  

No archiving of audit logs

C.  

Hashing of audit logs

D.  

Remote access audit logs

Discussion 0
Questions 118

When determining who can accept the risk associated with a vulnerability, which of the following is MOST

important?

Options:

A.  

Countermeasure effectiveness

B.  

Type of potential loss

C.  

Incident likelihood

D.  

Information ownership

Discussion 0
Questions 119

As part of the security assessment plan, the security professional has been asked to use a negative testing strategy on a new website. Which of the following actions would be performed?

Options:

A.  

Use a web scanner to scan for vulnerabilities within the website.

B.  

Perform a code review to ensure that the database references are properly addressed.

C.  

Establish a secure connection to the web server to validate that only the approved ports are open.

D.  

Enter only numbers in the web form and verify that the website prompts the user to enter a valid input.

Discussion 0
Questions 120

Which of the following steps should be performed FIRST when purchasing Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) software?

Options:

A.  

undergo a security assessment as part of authorization process

B.  

establish a risk management strategy

C.  

harden the hosting server, and perform hosting and application vulnerability scans

D.  

establish policies and procedures on system and services acquisition

Discussion 0
Questions 121

Which security access policy contains fixed security attributes that are used by the system to determine a

user’s access to a file or object?

Options:

A.  

Mandatory Access Control (MAC)

B.  

Access Control List (ACL)

C.  

Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

D.  

Authorized user control

Discussion 0
Questions 122

The core component of Role Based Access Control (RBAC) must be constructed of defined data elements.

Which elements are required?

Options:

A.  

Users, permissions, operations, and protected objects

B.  

Roles, accounts, permissions, and protected objects

C.  

Users, roles, operations, and protected objects

D.  

Roles, operations, accounts, and protected objects

Discussion 0
Questions 123

Extensible Authentication Protocol-Message Digest 5 (EAP-MD5) only provides which of the following?

Options:

A.  

Mutual authentication

B.  

Server authentication

C.  

User authentication

D.  

Streaming ciphertext data

Discussion 0
Questions 124

What Is the FIRST step in establishing an information security program?

Options:

A.  

Establish an information security policy.

B.  

Identify factors affecting information security.

C.  

Establish baseline security controls.

D.  

Identify critical security infrastructure.

Discussion 0
Questions 125

A company receives an email threat informing of an Imminent Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack

targeting its web application, unless ransom is paid. Which of the following techniques BEST addresses that threat?

Options:

A.  

Deploying load balancers to distribute inbound traffic across multiple data centers

B.  

Set Up Web Application Firewalls (WAFs) to filter out malicious traffic

C.  

Implementing reverse web-proxies to validate each new inbound connection

D.  

Coordinate with and utilize capabilities within Internet Service Provider (ISP)

Discussion 0
Questions 126

Which of the following is a common feature of an Identity as a Service (IDaaS) solution?

Options:

A.  

Single Sign-On (SSO) authentication support

B.  

Privileged user authentication support

C.  

Password reset service support

D.  

Terminal Access Controller Access Control System (TACACS) authentication support

Discussion 0
Questions 127

Which one of the following is an advantage of an effective release control strategy form a configuration control standpoint?

Options:

A.  

Ensures that a trace for all deliverables is maintained and auditable

B.  

Enforces backward compatibility between releases

C.  

Ensures that there is no loss of functionality between releases

D.  

Allows for future enhancements to existing features

Discussion 0
Questions 128

What are the steps of a risk assessment?

Options:

A.  

identification, analysis, evaluation

B.  

analysis, evaluation, mitigation

C.  

classification, identification, risk management

D.  

identification, evaluation, mitigation

Discussion 0
Questions 129

Which of the following methods of suppressing a fire is environmentally friendly and the MOST appropriate for a data center?

Options:

A.  

Inert gas fire suppression system

B.  

Halon gas fire suppression system

C.  

Dry-pipe sprinklers

D.  

Wet-pipe sprinklers

Discussion 0
Questions 130

An organization recently conducted a review of the security of its network applications. One of the

vulnerabilities found was that the session key used in encrypting sensitive information to a third party server had been hard-coded in the client and server applications. Which of the following would be MOST effective in mitigating this vulnerability?

Options:

A.  

Diffle-Hellman (DH) algorithm

B.  

Elliptic Curve Cryptography (ECC) algorithm

C.  

Digital Signature algorithm (DSA)

D.  

Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA) algorithm

Discussion 0
Questions 131

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of implementing data-in-use controls?

Options:

A.  

If the data is lost, it must be decrypted to be opened.

B.  

If the data is lost, it will not be accessible to unauthorized users.

C.  

When the data is being viewed, it can only be printed by authorized users.

D.  

When the data is being viewed, it must be accessed using secure protocols.

Discussion 0
Questions 132

The PRIMARY characteristic of a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack is that it

Options:

A.  

exploits weak authentication to penetrate networks.

B.  

can be detected with signature analysis.

C.  

looks like normal network activity.

D.  

is commonly confused with viruses or worms.

Discussion 0
Questions 133

Which Web Services Security (WS-Security) specification handles the management of security tokens and the underlying policies for granting access? Click on the correct specification in the image below.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 134

What is the PRIMARY difference between security policies and security procedures?

Options:

A.  

Policies are used to enforce violations, and procedures create penalties

B.  

Policies point to guidelines, and procedures are more contractual in nature

C.  

Policies are included in awareness training, and procedures give guidance

D.  

Policies are generic in nature, and procedures contain operational details

Discussion 0
Questions 135

Which of the following is the BEST method to assess the effectiveness of an organization's vulnerability management program?

Options:

A.  

Review automated patch deployment reports

B.  

Periodic third party vulnerability assessment

C.  

Automated vulnerability scanning

D.  

Perform vulnerability scan by security team

Discussion 0