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PRM Certification - Exam III: Risk Management Frameworks, Operational Risk, Credit Risk, Counterparty Risk, Market Risk, ALM, FTP - 2015 Edition Question and Answers

PRM Certification - Exam III: Risk Management Frameworks, Operational Risk, Credit Risk, Counterparty Risk, Market Risk, ALM, FTP - 2015 Edition

Last Update Oct 15, 2025
Total Questions : 362

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Questions 1

Which of the following is not a tool available to financial institutions for managing credit risk:

Options:

A.  

Collateral

B.  

Cumulative accuracy plot

C.  

Third party guarantees

D.  

Credit derivatives

Discussion 0
Questions 2

Which loss event type is the loss of personally identifiable client information classified as under the Basel II framework?

Options:

A.  

Technology risk

B.  

Clients, products and business practices

C.  

Information security

D.  

External fraud

Discussion 0
Questions 3

Which of the following statements is true:

Options:

A.  

Both total expected losses and total unexpected losses are less than the sum of expected and unexpected losses on underlying exposures respectively

B.  

Total expected losses are equal to the sum of individual underlying exposures while total unexpected losses are greater than the sum of unexpected losses on underlying exposures

C.  

Total expected losses are equal to the sum of expected losses in the individual underlying exposures while total unexpected losses are less than the sum of unexpected losses on underlying exposures

D.  

Total expected losses are greater than the sum of individual underlying exposures while total unexpected losses are less than the sum of unexpected losses on underlying exposures

Discussion 0
Questions 4

The key difference between 'top down models' and 'bottom up models' for operational risk assessment is:

Options:

A.  

Top down approaches to operational risk are based upon an analysis of key risk drivers, while bottom up approaches consider causality in risk scenarios.

B.  

Bottom up approaches to operational risk are based upon an analysis of key risk drivers, while top down approaches consider causality in risk scenarios.

C.  

Bottom up approaches to operational risk calculate the implied operational risk using available data such as income volatility, capital etc; while top down approaches use causal factors, risk drivers and other factors to get an aggregated estimate of risk.

D.  

Top down approaches to operational risk calculate the implied operational risk using available data such as income volatility, capital etc; while bottom up approaches use causal factors, risk drivers and other factors to get an aggregated estimate of risk.

Discussion 0
Questions 5

Assuming all other factors remain the same, an increase in the volatility of the returns on the assets of a firm causes which of the following outcomes?

Options:

A.  

An increase in the value of the equity of the firm

B.  

An increase in the value of the callable debt of the firm

C.  

A decrease in the value of the implicit put in in the debt of the firm

D.  

A decrease in the value of the non-callable debt issued by the firm

Discussion 0
Questions 6

For the purposes of calculating VaR, an interest rate swap can be modeled as a combination of:

Options:

A.  

two zero coupon bonds

B.  

a fixed coupon bond and a floating rate note

C.  

a fixed rate bond and a zero coupon bond

D.  

a zero coupon bond and an interest rate swap

Discussion 0
Questions 7

If the odds of default are 1:5, what is the probability of default?

Options:

A.  

16.67%

B.  

20.00%

C.  

12.00%

D.  

50.00%

Discussion 0
Questions 8

The standalone economic capital estimates for the three business units of a bank are $100, $200 and $150 respectively. What is the combined economic capital for the bank, assuming the risks of the three business units are perfectly correlated?

Options:

A.  

450

B.  

269

C.  

21

D.  

72500

Discussion 0
Questions 9

Which of the following is not a measure of risk sensitivity of some kind?

Options:

A.  

PL01

B.  

Convexity

C.  

CR01

D.  

Delta

Discussion 0
Questions 10

Which of the following distributions is generally not used for frequency modeling for operational risk

Options:

A.  

Binomial

B.  

Poisson

C.  

Gamma

D.  

Negative binomial

Discussion 0
Questions 11

Which of the following was not a policy response introduced by Basel 2.5 in response to the global financial crisis:

Options:

A.  

Comprehensive Risk Model (CRM)

B.  

Comprehensive Capital Analysis and Review (CCAR)

C.  

Stressed VaR (SVaR)

D.  

Incremental Risk Charge (IRC)

Discussion 0
Questions 12

Which of the following is a cause of model risk in risk management?

Options:

A.  

Programming errors

B.  

Misspecification of the model

C.  

Incorrect parameter estimation

D.  

All of the above

Discussion 0
Questions 13

Which of the following statements is the most appropriate description of feedback effects:

Options:

A.  

The amplification of smaller initial shocks to one risk factor creating larger subsequent shocks through system-wide interactions between other risks, creating self-perpetuating downward stresses in the markets

B.  

The lack of a comprehensive view of risk across credit, market and liquidity risks leading to an underestimation of correlations that tend to spike up in the event of a crisis

C.  

The spread of contagion from the bankruptcy of one participant leading to a similar outcome for other market participants

D.  

The revision of stress testing scenarios based upon management, business unit and regulatory feedback on the plausibility or otherwise of stress scenarios.

Discussion 0
Questions 14

Which of the following correctly describes a reverse stress test:

Options:

A.  

Stress tests that start from a known stress test outcome and then ask what events could lead to such an outcome for the bank

B.  

A stress test that considers only qualitative factors that go beyond mathematical modeling to examine feedback loops and the effect of macro-economic fundamentals

C.  

Stress tests that are prescribed and conducted by a regulator in addition to the tests done by a bank

D.  

A stress test that requires a role reversal between risk managers and the risk taking business units in order to determine credible scenarios

Discussion 0
Questions 15

Which of the following is the most accurate description of EPE (Expected Positive Exposure):

Options:

A.  

The maximum average credit exposure over a period of time

B.  

The price that would be received to sell an asset or paid to transfer a liability in an orderly transaction between market participants at the measurement date

C.  

Weighted average of the future positive expected exposure across a time horizon.

D.  

The average of the distribution of positive exposures at a specified future date

Discussion 0
Questions 16

When doing stress tests based on historical scenarios, if no appropriate historical scenarios exist for a security, it is most INAPPROPRIATE to:

Options:

A.  

Estimate a shock factor based on other instruments that might be considered as proxies for such a security

B.  

Leave the position unshocked

C.  

Estimate a shock factor based upon extrapolation

D.  

Estimate a shock factor based upon interpolation

Discussion 0
Questions 17

Which of the following is NOT true in respect of bilateral close out netting:

Options:

A.  

The net amount due is immediately receivable or payable

B.  

All transactions are immediately closed out upon the occurrence of a credit event for either of the counterparties

C.  

All transactions are netted against each other

D.  

Transactions are separated by transaction type and immediately settled separately at each's replacement value

Discussion 0
Questions 18

The sensitivity (delta) of a portfolio to a single point move in the value of the S&P500 is $100. If the current level of the S&P500 is 2000, and has a one day volatility of 1%, what is the value-at-risk for this portfolio at the 99% confidence and a horizon of 10 days? What is this method of calculating VaR called?

Options:

A.  

$14,736, parametric VaR

B.  

$4,660, Monte Carlo simulation VaR

C.  

$14,736, historical simulation VaR

D.  

$4,660, parametric VaR

Discussion 0
Questions 19

When compared to a low severity high frequency risk, the operational risk capital requirement for a medium severity medium frequency risk is likely to be:

Options:

A.  

Zero

B.  

Lower

C.  

Higher

D.  

Unaffected by differences in frequency or severity

Discussion 0
Questions 20

For an option position with a delta of 0.3, calculate VaR if the VaR of the underlying is $100.

Options:

A.  

100

B.  

130

C.  

30

D.  

33.33

Discussion 0
Questions 21

Which of the following statements are true ?

I. Risk governance structures distribute rights and responsibilities among stakeholders in the corporation

II. Cybernetics is the multidisciplinary study of cyber risk and control systems underlying information systems in an organization

III. Corporate governance is a subset of the larger subject of risk governance

IV. The Cadbury report was issued in the early 90s and was one of the early frameworks for corporate governance

Options:

A.  

I, II and IV

B.  

I and IV

C.  

II and III

D.  

All of the above

Discussion 0
Questions 22

A corporate bond has a cumulative probability of default equal to 20% in the first year, and 45% in the second year. What is the monthly marginal probability of default for the bond in the second year, conditional on there being no default in the first year?

Options:

A.  

3.07%

B.  

2.60%

C.  

15.00%

D.  

31.25%

Discussion 0
Questions 23

Under the standardized approach to calculating operational risk capital under Basel II, negative regulatory capital charges for any of the business units:

Options:

A.  

Should be ignored completely

B.  

Should be offset against positive capital charges from other business units

C.  

Should be included after ignoring the negative sign

D.  

Should be excluded from capital calculations

Discussion 0
Questions 24

Which of the following is not a consideration in determining the liquidity needs of a firm (as opposed to determining the time horizon for liquidity risk)?

Options:

A.  

Speed with which new equity can be issued to the owners

B.  

Collateral

C.  

Off balance sheet items

D.  

The firm's business model

Discussion 0
Questions 25

Which of the following are ordered correctly in the order of debt seniority in a bankruptcy situation?

I. Equity, Subordinate debt, Senior debt

II. Senior debt, Preferred stock, Equity

III. Secured debt, Accounts payable, Preferred stock

IV. Secured debt, DIP financing, Equity

Options:

A.  

II and III

B.  

I and IV

C.  

I

D.  

II, III and IV

Discussion 0
Questions 26

Which of the following is true in relation to Principal Component Analysis (PCA)?

I. An n x n positive definite square matrix will have n-1 eigenvectors

II. The eigenvalues for a correlation matrix can be derived from the corresponding values for the covariance matrix

III. Principal components are uncorrelated to each other

IV. PCA is useful as it allows 100% of the variation in a complex system to be explained by the first three principal components

Options:

A.  

I and III

B.  

I, II and IV

C.  

III and IV

D.  

III

Discussion 0
Questions 27

If E denotes the expected value of a loan portfolio at the end on one year and U the value of the portfolio in the worst case scenario at the 99% confidence level, which of the following expressions correctly describes economic capital required in respect of credit risk?

Options:

A.  

E - U

B.  

U/E

C.  

U

D.  

E

Discussion 0
Questions 28

As part of designing a reverse stress test, at what point should a bank's business plan be considered unviable (ie the point where it can be considered to have failed)?

Options:

A.  

Where EBITDA for the year is forecast to be negative

B.  

Where large known losses have been incurred on the bank's positions

C.  

When the regulatory capital of the bank has been exhausted

D.  

When the realization of risks leads market participants to lose confidence in the bank as a counterparty or a business worthy of funding

Discussion 0
Questions 29

Pick underlying risk factors for a position in an equity index option:

I. Spot value for the index

II. Risk free interest rate

III. Volatility of the underlying

IV. Strike price for the option

Options:

A.  

I and IV

B.  

I, II and III

C.  

II and II

D.  

All of the above

Discussion 0
Questions 30

A risk management function is best organized as:

Options:

A.  

integrated with the risk taking functions as risk management should be a pervasive activity carried out at all levels of the organization.

B.  

report independently of the risk taking functions

C.  

reporting directly to the traders, as to be closest to the point at which risks are being taken

D.  

a part of the trading desks and other risk taking teams

Discussion 0
Questions 31

Which of the following are valid criticisms of value at risk:

I. There are many risks that a VaR framework cannot model

II. VaR does not consider liquidity risk

III. VaR does not account for historical market movements

IV. VaR does not consider the risk of contagion

Options:

A.  

I, II and IV

B.  

I and III

C.  

II and IV

D.  

All of the above

Discussion 0
Questions 32

A key problem with return on equity as a measure of comparative performance is:

Options:

A.  

that return on equity is not adjusted for risk

B.  

that return on equity are not adjusted for cash flows being different from accounting earnings

C.  

that return on equity measures do not account for interest and taxes

D.  

that return on equity ignores the effect of leverage on returns to shareholders

Discussion 0
Questions 33

According to the Basel framework, shareholders' equity and reserves are considered a part of:

Options:

A.  

Tier 3 capital

B.  

Tier 1 capital

C.  

Tier 2 capital

D.  

All of the above

Discussion 0
Questions 34

When modeling operational risk using separate distributions for loss frequency and loss severity, which of the following is true?

Options:

A.  

Loss severity and loss frequency are considered independent

B.  

Loss severity and loss frequency distributions are considered as a bivariate model with positive correlation

C.  

Loss severity and loss frequency are modeled using the same units of measurement

D.  

Loss severity and loss frequency are modeled as conditional probabilities

Discussion 0
Questions 35

For identical mean and variance, which of the following distribution assumptions will provide a higher estimate of VaR at a high level of confidence?

Options:

A.  

A distribution with kurtosis = 8

B.  

A distribution with kurtosis = 0

C.  

A distribution with kurtosis = 2

D.  

A distribution with kurtosis = 3

Discussion 0
Questions 36

A bullet bond and an amortizing loan are issued at the same time with the same maturity and with the same principal. Which of these would have a greater credit exposure halfway through their life?

Options:

A.  

Indeterminate with the given information

B.  

They would have identical exposure half way through their lives

C.  

The amortizing loan

D.  

The bullet bond

Discussion 0
Questions 37

If F be the face value of a firm's debt, V the value of its assets and E the market value of equity, then according to the option pricing approach a default on debt occurs when:

Options:

A.  

F > V

B.  

V < E

C.  

F < V

D.  

F - E < V

Discussion 0
Questions 38

Which of the following statements is true

I. If no loss data is available, good quality scenarios can be used to model operational risk

II. Scenario data can be mixed with observed loss data for modeling severity and frequency estimates

III. Severity estimates should not be created by fitting models to scenario generated loss data points alone

IV. Scenario assessments should only be used as modifiers to ILD or ELD severity models.

Options:

A.  

I

B.  

I and II

C.  

III and IV

D.  

All statements are true

Discussion 0
Questions 39

A stock that follows the Weiner process has its future price determined by:

Options:

A.  

its current price, expected return and standard deviation

B.  

its standard deviation and past technical movements

C.  

its expected return and standard deviation

D.  

its expected return alone

Discussion 0
Questions 40

Which of the following is not an approach proposed by the Basel II framework to compute operational risk capital?

Options:

A.  

Basic indicator approach

B.  

Factor based approach

C.  

Standardized approach

D.  

Advanced measurement approach

Discussion 0
Questions 41

If A and B be two debt securities, which of the following is true?

Options:

A.  

The probability of simultaneous default of A and B is greatest when their default correlation is +1

B.  

The probability of simultaneous default of A and B is not dependent upon their default correlations, but on their marginal probabilities of default

C.  

The probability of simultaneous default of A and B is greatest when their default correlation is negative

D.  

The probability of simultaneous default of A and B is greatest when their default correlation is 0

Discussion 0
Questions 42

Which of the following credit risk models includes a consideration of macro economic variables such as unemployment, balance of payments etc to assess credit risk?

Options:

A.  

KMV's EDF based approach

B.  

The CreditMetrics approach

C.  

The actuarial approach

D.  

CreditPortfolio View

Discussion 0
Questions 43

The difference between true severity and the best approximation of the true severity is called:

Options:

A.  

Approximation error

B.  

Fitting error

C.  

Total error

D.  

Estimation error

Discussion 0
Questions 44

For a loan portfolio, expected losses are charged against:

Options:

A.  

Economic capital

B.  

Regulatory capital

C.  

Credit reserves

D.  

Economic credit capital

Discussion 0
Questions 45

Which of the following is true for the actuarial approach to credit risk modeling (CreditRisk+):

Options:

A.  

Default correlations between obligors are accounted for using a multivariate normal model

B.  

The number of defaults is modeled using a binomial distribution where the number of defaults are considered discrete events

C.  

The approach considers only default risk, and ignores the risk to portfolio value from credit downgrades

D.  

The approach is based upon historical rating transition matrices

Discussion 0
Questions 46

Which of the following are true:

I. Delta hedges need to be rebalanced frequently as deltas fluctuate with fluctuating prices.

II. Portfolio managers are right to focus on primary risks over secondary risks.

III. Increasing the hedge rebalance frequency reduces residual risks but increases transaction costs.

IV. Vega risk can be hedged using options.

Options:

A.  

I and II

B.  

II, III and IV

C.  

I, II, III and IV

D.  

I, II and III

Discussion 0
Questions 47

When combining separate bottom up estimates of market, credit and operational risk measures, a most conservative economic capital estimate results from which of the following assumptions:

Options:

A.  

Assuming that the resulting distributions have a correlation between 0 and 1

B.  

Assuming that market, credit and operational risk estimates are perfectly positively correlated

C.  

Assuming that market, credit and operational risk estimates are perfectly negatively correlated

D.  

Assuming that market, credit and operational risk estimates are uncorrelated

Discussion 0
Questions 48

A Monte Carlo simulation based VaR can be effectively used in which of the following cases:

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 49

If the returns of an asset display a strong tendency for mean reversion, what is the relationship between annualized volatility calculated based on daily versus weekly volatilities (using the square root of time rule)?

Options:

A.  

Either daily or weekly volatility will be greater, depending upon how the week went

B.  

Daily and weekly volatilities will be the same

C.  

Daily volatility will be greater than weekly volatility

D.  

Weekly volatility will be greater than daily volatility

Discussion 0
Questions 50

The Altman credit risk score considers:

Options:

A.  

A historical database of the firms that have defaulted

B.  

A quadratic approximation of the credit risk based on underlying risk factors

C.  

A combination of accounting measures and market values

D.  

A historical database of the firms that have survived

Discussion 0
Questions 51

Which of the following statements is true in relation to a normal mixture distribution:

I. Normal mixtures represent one possible solution to the problem of volatility clustering

II. A normal mixture VaR will always be greater than that under the assumption of normally distributed returns

III. Normal mixtures can be applied to situations where a number of different market scenarios with different probabilities can be expected

Options:

A.  

II and III

B.  

III

C.  

I and II

D.  

I, II and III

Discussion 0
Questions 52

If A and B be two uncorrelated securities, VaR(A) and VaR(B) be their values-at-risk, then which of the following is true for a portfolio that includes A and B in any proportion. Assume the prices of A and B are log-normally distributed.

Options:

A.  

VaR(A+B) > VaR(A) + VaR(B)

B.  

VaR(A+B) = VaR(A) + VaR(B)

C.  

VaR(A+B) < VaR(A) + VaR(B)

D.  

The combined VaR cannot be predicted till the correlation is known

Discussion 0
Questions 53

If two bonds with identical credit ratings, coupon and maturity but from different issuers trade at different spreads to treasury rates, which of the following is a possible explanation:

I. The bonds differ in liquidity

II. Events have happened that have changed investor perceptions but these are not yet reflected in the ratings

III. The bonds carry different market risk

IV. The bonds differ in their convexity

Options:

A.  

I, II and IV

B.  

II and IV

C.  

I and II

D.  

III and IV

Discussion 0
Questions 54

In the case of historical volatility weighted VaR, a higher current volatility when compared to historical volatility:

Options:

A.  

will not affect the VaR estimate

B.  

will increase the confidence interval

C.  

will decrease the VaR estimate

D.  

will increase the VaR estimate

Discussion 0