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Financial Risk and Regulation (FRR) Series Question and Answers

Financial Risk and Regulation (FRR) Series

Last Update Nov 30, 2025
Total Questions : 387

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Questions 1

John owns a bond portfolio worth $2 million with duration of 10. What positions must he take to hedge this portfolio against a small parallel shifts in the term structure.

Options:

A.  

Long position worth $2 million with duration of 10.

B.  

Long position worth $20 million with duration of 1.

C.  

Short position worth $2 million with duration of 10.

D.  

Short position worth $20 million with duration of 1.

Discussion 0
Questions 2

James Johnson bought a coupon bond yielding 4.7% for $1,000. Assuming that the price drops to $976 when yield increases to 4.71%, what is the PVBP of the bond.

Options:

A.  

$26.

B.  

$76.

C.  

$870.

D.  

$976.

Discussion 0
Questions 3

The operational risk policy should include:

I. The firm's definition of risk

II. The governance of operational risk including who owns it, what it owns, and how issues should be escalated

III. The main activities and elements that are managed by the operational risk function

Options:

A.  

I, II

B.  

I, III

C.  

II, III

D.  

I, II, III

Discussion 0
Questions 4

A trader for EtaBank wants to take a leveraged position in Collateralized Debt Obligations. If these CDOs can be used in a repo transaction at a 20% haircut, what is the maximum leverage factor for a transaction with the CDOs?

Options:

A.  

0.8

B.  

1.5

C.  

3

D.  

5

Discussion 0
Questions 5

The mark-to-market process includes which one of the following activities?

Options:

A.  

Estimating the market value of all the transactions held in the banking book

B.  

Paying cash for the settled portion of the derivatives trade at the market price

C.  

Obtaining and verifying market prices for all the instruments held in the trading book

D.  

Assessing the profitability of each trade compared with the aggregate market

Discussion 0
Questions 6

Which among the following are shortfalls of the static liquidity ladder model?

I. The static model gives a liquidity estimate only after the bank faces the liquidity problem.

II. The static model can only make projections over a few days.

III. The static model does not incorporate uncertainty in the analysis.

Options:

A.  

I, II

B.  

I, III

C.  

I, II, III

D.  

III

Discussion 0
Questions 7

According to Basel II what constitutes Tier 1 capital?

Options:

A.  

Equity capital and core capital

B.  

Profits to reserves and innovative Tier 1 capital

C.  

Equity capital and accrued profits to reserves

D.  

Core capital and innovative Tier 1 capital.

Discussion 0
Questions 8

Oliver McCarthy owns a portfolio of bonds. Which of the following choices equals the modified duration of Oliver's portfolio?

Options:

A.  

Minimum of the modified durations of the component bonds

B.  

Value-weighted average modified duration of the component bonds

C.  

Coupon-weighted average modified duration of the component bonds

D.  

Maximum of the modified durations of component bonds

Discussion 0
Questions 9

To reduce the variability of net interest income, Gamma Bank can swap positions that make its duration gap equal to

Options:

A.  

0

B.  

1

C.  

-1

D.  

0.5

Discussion 0
Questions 10

Since most consumers of natural gas do not have the ability to store it, they contract with gas suppliers to receive a flow of natural gas equal to a specific number of MMBT's per day (MMBT is millions of British Termal Units, the unit in which gas futures are quoted on the U.S. markets). To protect against price increases with a bank, the natural gas consumer, concerned with the average price over the course of the month, will use the following contracts:

Options:

A.  

American options

B.  

Asian options

C.  

Compound options

D.  

Flexible volume options

Discussion 0
Questions 11

What is the role of market risk management function within a bank?

I. Control and minimize the risks the bank should take.

II. Establish a comprehensive market risk policy framework.

III. Define, approve and monitor risk limits.

IV. Perform stress tests and other qualitative risk assessments.

Options:

A.  

I and III

B.  

II and IV

C.  

I, II and III

D.  

II, III, and IV

Discussion 0
Questions 12

In hedging transactions, derivatives typically have the following advantages over cash instruments:

I. Lower credit risk

II. Lower funding requirements

III. Lower dealing costs

IV. Lower capital charges

Options:

A.  

I, II

B.  

I, III

C.  

II, IV

D.  

I, II, III, IV

Discussion 0
Questions 13

It is commonplace for the sellers of a single-name Credit Default Swap to post collateral to the buyer. What determines the amount of collateral posted?

Options:

A.  

The credit standing of the protection buyer and the EAD of the underlying credit

B.  

The credit standing of the protection seller and the RR for the underlying credit

C.  

The credit standing of the protection buyer and the LGD of the underlying credit

D.  

The credit standing of the protection seller and the PD of the underlying credit

Discussion 0
Questions 14

Which one of the four following statements regarding minimum loss data standards is not correct?

Options:

A.  

The loss data entry must include the actual loss amount.

B.  

The loss data program must comprehensively capture all material activities.

C.  

The loss data entry should only include the date when the event was reported.

D.  

The loss data entry may include descriptive information about the drivers or causes of the loss event.

Discussion 0
Questions 15

Which of the following statements about implementation of a successful RCSA program is correct?

Options:

A.  

An RCSA is only complete after all possible mitigating actions have been identified and analyzed as a result of the assessment process.

B.  

Internal loss data help to identify the risks and control weaknesses that need to be addressed in the RCSA; external events are not helpful in informing the discussions around potential risks.

C.  

The RCSA scoring methodology should include only financial impacts and not include reputational, legal, regulatory, client and life safety impacts.

D.  

To ensure that the RCSA is well designed, it is important to interview participants, stakeholders and support functions prior to the launching the RCSA.

Discussion 0
Questions 16

The exercise for an American type option prior to expiration day is virtually certain in the following case:

Options:

A.  

In the event of a high dividend for an in-the-money call option

B.  

In the event of a high dividend for an in-the-money put option

C.  

In the event of a low dividend for an in-the-money call option

D.  

In the event of a low dividend for an in-the-money put option

Discussion 0
Questions 17

A bank owns a portfolio of bonds whose composition is shown below.

What is the modified duration of the portfolio?

Options:

A.  

1.30

B.  

8.5

C.  

2.30

D.  

0.5

Discussion 0
Questions 18

For two variables, which of the following is equal to the average product of the deviations from their respective means?

Options:

A.  

Standard deviation

B.  

Kurtosis

C.  

Correlation

D.  

Covariance

Discussion 0
Questions 19

Which of the following statements depicts a difference between funding liquidity risks and trading liquidity risks?

Options:

A.  

Funding liquidity risks are associated with how fast prices move in the market while trading liquidity risks originate out of bank trades.

B.  

Funding liquidity risks are concerned with the ability of the bank to fund deposits withdrawals while trading liquidity risks are concerned with the change in bid-offer spreads of asset values.

C.  

Funding liquidity risks are short term risks while trading liquidity risks are longer term risks.

D.  

Funding liquidity risks are associated only with the bank assets while trading liquidity risks are associated with both assets and liabilities of the bank.

Discussion 0
Questions 20

Normally, commercial banking can be viewed as a fixed income carry trade since

Options:

A.  

Short-term floating-rate deposits are used to fund long-term fixed rate loans.

B.  

Short-term fixed rate deposits are used to fund long-term floating rate loans.

C.  

Short-term fixed-rate deposits are used to fund short-term floating rate loans.

D.  

Short-term floating-rate deposits are used to fund short-term floating rate loans.

Discussion 0
Questions 21

Unico Delta stock is trading at $20 per share, its annualized dividend yield is 5% and the 12-month LIBOR is 3%. Given these statistics, the 12-month futures contact will trade at:

Options:

A.  

$10.08

B.  

$20.04

C.  

$30.04

D.  

$40.08

Discussion 0
Questions 22

A bank has a Var estimate of $100 million. It is considering a new transaction which has a correlation of 0.35 with the current portfolio and a standalone VaR estimate of $5 million. What would be the new VaR for the bank if it carried out the transaction?

Options:

A.  

$105 million

B.  

$101.86 million

C.  

$100.22 million

D.  

$ 213.67 million

Discussion 0
Questions 23

According to Basel II what constitutes Tier 2 capital?

Options:

A.  

Debt that is not subordinated to equity and innovative capital products that would count as Tier 1 capital and excluding perpetual non-cumulative preference shares.

B.  

Debt that is subordinate to equity.

C.  

Equity capital and debt together.

D.  

Core capital excluding undisclosed reserves and general reserves that the bank may make against its expected loan losses.

Discussion 0
Questions 24

For a bank a 1-year VaR of USD 10 million at 95% confidence level means that:

Options:

A.  

There is a 5% chance that the bank would lose less than USD 10 million in a year.

B.  

There is a 5% chance that the bank would lose more than USD 10 million in a year.

C.  

There is a 5% chance that the worst loss would be USD 10 million in a year.

D.  

There is a 5% chance that the least loss would be USD 10 million in a year.

Discussion 0
Questions 25

A bank considers issuing new capital to increase its Tier 1 capital levels. Which of the following financial instruments would most likely to be considered?

Options:

A.  

Long-term and callable debt convertible to equity

B.  

Convertible preferred shares

C.  

Short-term callable debt

D.  

Short-term debt convertible to non-cumulative preferred shares

Discussion 0
Questions 26

Which one of the following statements accurately describes market risk tolerance?

Options:

A.  

Market risk tolerance is the maximum likely gain in the market value of portfolios over a given period of time.

B.  

Market risk tolerance is the maximum loss in the market value of financial instruments caused by the failure of the counterparty to meet its obligations.

C.  

Market risk tolerance is the maximum loss the bank is willing to bear due to fluctuations in market prices and rates.

D.  

Market risk tolerance is the minimum loss the bank is willing to bear due to fluctuations in market prices and rates.

Discussion 0
Questions 27

Alpha Bank estimates that the annualized standard deviation of its portfolio returns equal 30%; The daily volatility of the portfolio is closest to which of the following?

Options:

A.  

1.0%

B.  

2.0%

C.  

2.5%

D.  

3.0%

Discussion 0
Questions 28

A bank customer can use either a plain vanilla option or an option contract with volumetric flexibility to reduce the following risks:

I. Market Risk

II. Basis Risk

III. Operational Risk

Options:

A.  

I

B.  

II

C.  

I, II

D.  

II, III

Discussion 0
Questions 29

Which of the following are the most common methods to increase liquidity in stressed conditions?

I. Selling or securitizing assets.

II. Obtaining additional credit lines.

III. Securing a better credit rating.

Options:

A.  

I

B.  

I, II

C.  

I, II, III

D.  

II, III

Discussion 0
Questions 30

Using the definitions used by JPMorgan Chase in their annual report, which of the following exposure types would be considered as a non-trading risk exposure?

I. Short term equity investments

II. Loans held to maturity

III. Mortgage servicing rights

IV. Derivatives used to manage asset/liability exposure.

Options:

A.  

I and II

B.  

II and III

C.  

III and IV

D.  

II, III, and IV

Discussion 0
Questions 31

What do option deltas measure?

Options:

A.  

The rate of change of the option value with respect to changes in volatility of the underlying instrument.

B.  

The sensitivity of the option value to changes risk free interest rate.

C.  

The rate of change of the option value with respect to changes in the price of the underlying instrument.

D.  

The sensitivity of the option value to the passage of time.

Discussion 0
Questions 32

Which one of the four following statements about the Risk Adjusted Return on Capital (RAROC) is correct?

RAROC is the ratio of:

Options:

A.  

Risk to the profitability of a trading portfolio or a business unit within the bank.

B.  

Value-at-risk to the profitability of a trading portfolio or a business unit.

C.  

Profitability to the expected return of a trading portfolio or bank business unit.

D.  

Profitability to the risk of a trading portfolio or bank business unit.

Discussion 0
Questions 33

If the yield on the 3-month risk free bonds issued by the U.S government is 0.5%, and the 3-month LIBOR rate is 2.5%, what is the TED spread?

Options:

A.  

0.5%

B.  

-2.0%

C.  

2.0%

D.  

3.0%

Discussion 0
Questions 34

Which one of the four following statements about back testing the VaR models is correct?

Back testing requires

Options:

A.  

Plotting VaR forecasts against the proportion of daily losses exceeding the average loss.

B.  

Comparing the predictive ability of VaR on a daily basis to the realized daily profits and losses.

C.  

Plotting the daily profit and losses along with the ranges predicted by VaR models

D.  

Determining the proportion of daily profits exceeding those predicted by VaR.

Discussion 0
Questions 35

A hedge fund trader buys options to establish an exposure in the currency market, thereby effectively removing the risk of being able to participate in a gapping market. In this case the options premium represents the price paid for eliminating the execution risk of

Options:

A.  

The delta-hedging strategy.

B.  

The gamma-hedging strategy.

C.  

The vega-hedging strategy.

D.  

The theta-hedging strategy.

Discussion 0
Questions 36

To ensure good risk management which of the following should be true about the CRO role and function?

Options:

A.  

The CRO should receive compensation that is directly determined by the profit of the trading desk.

B.  

The CRO should report to the CEO or the Board of Directors.

C.  

The CRO should not be involved with the setting of risk limits.

D.  

To ensure efficient flow of information the CRO should not be independent of business units.

Discussion 0
Questions 37

Which one of the four following non-statistical risk measures are typically not used to quantify market risk?

Options:

A.  

Option sensitivities

B.  

Net closed positions

C.  

Convexity

D.  

Basis point values

Discussion 0
Questions 38

An asset manager just bought a coupon paying bond with principal value $100,000 for $87,000 with a current yield of 4.7%. He assumes that if the yields change to 5.7% the price of the bond would be $84,500. Based on this assumption what is the modified duration of the bond?

Options:

A.  

2,507.

B.  

97.12.

C.  

2.97.

D.  

2.88.

Discussion 0
Questions 39

A risk analyst is considering how to reduce the bank's exposure to rising interest rates. Which of the following strategies will help her achieve this objective?

I. Reducing the average repricing time of its loans

II. Increasing the average repricing time of its deposits

III. Entering into interest rate swaps

IV. Improving earnings capacity and increasing intermediated funds

Options:

A.  

I, II

B.  

III

C.  

IV

D.  

I, II, IV

Discussion 0
Questions 40

The market risk manager of SigmaBank is concerned with the value of the assets in the bank's trading book. Which one of the four following positions would most likely be not included in that book?

Options:

A.  

10,000 shares of IBM worth $10,000,000.

B.  

$10,000,000 loan to IBM worth $9,800,000.

C.  

$10,000,000 bond issued by IBM worth $11,000,000.

D.  

300,000 options on IBM shares worth $10,000,000.

Discussion 0
Questions 41

Which one of the following four statements about hedging is INCORRECT?

Options:

A.  

Traders can hedge their risks by taking an appropriate position in the underlying instrument.

B.  

Traders can hedge their portfolio risks by taking a position in a different instrument.

C.  

For a fully hedged portfolio, any changes in markets prices will typically produce significant changes in the market value of the portfolio.

D.  

A large number of hedge positions is generally required to match the underlying transaction completely.

Discussion 0
Questions 42

Which one of the four following aspects of legal risk is NOT included in the Basel II Accord?

Options:

A.  

Exposure to fines

B.  

Private settlements

C.  

Punitive damages resulting from supervisory actions

D.  

Negative publicity resulting from reputational damages

Discussion 0
Questions 43

Which of the following correctly identifies reasons for collecting internal operational risk event and loss information?

I. Assessing the risk of specific areas of concern.

II. Evaluating risk events and outcomes.

III. Collecting data for capital modeling.

IV. Getting insight into risk events in other firms in the industry.

Options:

A.  

I and II

B.  

II and III

C.  

I, II and III

D.  

II, III, and IV

Discussion 0
Questions 44

Which one of the following four statements about economic capital of a bank is correct?

Options:

A.  

Economic capital measures how the economy is doing compared to the bank.

B.  

Economic capital reflects the possible losses that could occur based on the bank's own estimates of the risks it is taking.

C.  

Economic capital is determined by rules imposed by an external authority.

D.  

Economic capital is the present value of the earnings generated by the bank in the future.

Discussion 0
Questions 45

Which one of the following four statements best describes challenges of delta-normal method of mapping options positions?

Delta-normal method understates

Options:

A.  

Risks of long and short positions for both calls and puts.

B.  

Risks of long option positions for puts and overstates risks of short option positions for calls.

C.  

Risks of long option positions for calls and overstates risks of short option positions for puts.

D.  

Risks of short option positions and overstates risks of long option positions for both calls and puts.

Discussion 0
Questions 46

After one year and spending USD 1.0 million, a bank finally succeeds in recovering USD 10 million on an exposure that, at the time of its default, was valued at USD 20 million. If the recovery discount rate is 10%, what is the estimate of the recovery rate?

Options:

A.  

31%

B.  

36%

C.  

41%

D.  

46%

Discussion 0
Questions 47

Which one of the following four statements presents a challenge of using external loss databases in the operational risk framework?

Options:

A.  

Use of benchmarked data reflects similar data collection standards.

B.  

External events are usually not of interest to senior management.

C.  

If the external data is gathered from news sources, it may only reflect events that are interesting to the press.

D.  

They provide a source of data on what operational loss events will occur.

Discussion 0
Questions 48

On January 1, 2010 the TED (treasury-euro dollar) spread was 0.9%, and on January 31, 2010 the TED spread is 0.4%. As a risk manager, how would you interpret this change?

Options:

A.  

The decrease in the TED spread indicates a decrease in credit risk on interbank loans.

B.  

The decrease in the TED spread indicates an increase in credit risk on interbank loans.

C.  

Increase in interest rates on both interbank loans and T-bills.

D.  

Increase in credit risk on T-bills.

Discussion 0
Questions 49

In analyzing the historical performance of a financial product, you are concerned about "fat tails", the probability of extreme returns compared to realized returns. Which of the following measures should you use to determine if the product return distribution of the product has "fat tails"?

Options:

A.  

Mean

B.  

Standard deviation

C.  

Skewness

D.  

Kurtosis

Discussion 0
Questions 50

Which one of the following four examples would not be considered a typical source of market risk?

Options:

A.  

Unexpected changes in the term structure of interest rates.

B.  

The JPY depreciating against the USD.

C.  

Increased default rate on commercial mortgages due to higher interest rates.

D.  

Changes in the oil price due to the discovery of new oil fields.

Discussion 0
Questions 51

All of the four following exotic options are path-independent options, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.  

Chooser options

B.  

Power options

C.  

Asian options

D.  

Basket options

Discussion 0
Questions 52

From the bank's point of view, repricing the retail debt portfolio will introduce risks of fluctuations in:

I. Duration

II. Loss given default

III. Interest rates

IV. Bank spreads

Options:

A.  

I

B.  

II

C.  

I, II

D.  

III, IV

Discussion 0
Questions 53

ThetaBank has extended substantial financing to two mortgage companies, which these mortgage lenders use to finance their own lending. Individually, each of the mortgage companies have an exposure at default (EAD) of $20 million, with a loss given default (LGD) of 100%, and a probability of default of 10%. ThetaBank's risk department predicts the joint probability of default at 5%. If the default risk of these mortgage companies were modeled as independent risks, the actual probability would be underestimated by:

Options:

A.  

1%

B.  

2%

C.  

3%

D.  

4%

Discussion 0
Questions 54

An asset manager for a large mutual fund is considering forward exchange positions traded in a clearinghouse system and needs to mitigate the risks created as a result of this operation. Which of the following risks will be created as a result of the forward exchange transaction?

Options:

A.  

Exchange rate risk

B.  

Exchange rate and interest rate risk

C.  

Credit risk

D.  

Exchange rate and credit risk

Discussion 0
Questions 55

According to the largest global poll of foreign exchange market participants, which one of the following four global financial institutions was the most active participant in the global foreign exchange market?

Options:

A.  

Citibank

B.  

UBS AG

C.  

Deutsche Bank

D.  

Barclays Capital

Discussion 0
Questions 56

A credit analyst wants to determine if her bank is taking too much credit risk. Which one of the following four strategies will typically provide the most convenient approach to quantify the credit risk exposure for the bank?

Options:

A.  

Assessing aggregate exposure at default at various time points and at various confidence levels

B.  

Simplifying individual credit exposures so that they can be combined into a simplified expression of portfolio risk for the bank

C.  

Using stress testing techniques to forecast underlying macroeconomic factors and bank's idiosyncratic risks

D.  

Analyzing distribution of bank's credit losses and mapping credit risks at various statistical levels

Discussion 0
Questions 57

Which one of the following four parameters is NOT a required input in the Black-Scholes model to price a foreign exchange option?

Options:

A.  

Underlying exchange rates

B.  

Underlying interest rates

C.  

Discrete future stock prices

D.  

Option exercise price

Discussion 0
Questions 58

Alpha Bank determined that Delta Industrial Machinery Corporation has 2% change of default on a one-year no-payment of USD $1 million, including interest and principal repayment. The bank charges 3% interest rate spread to firms in the machinery industry, and the risk-free interest rate is 6%. Alpha Bank receives both interest and principal payments once at the end the year. Delta can only default at the end of the year. If Delta defaults, the bank expects to lose 50% of its promised payment.

What may happen to the Delta's initial credit parameter and the value of its loan if the machinery industry experiences adverse structural changes?

Options:

A.  

Probability of default and loss at default may decrease simultaneously, while duration rises causing the loan value to decrease.

B.  

Probability of default and loss at default may decrease simultaneously, while duration falls causing the loan value to decrease.

C.  

Probability of default and loss at default may increase simultaneously, while duration rises causing the loan value to decrease.

D.  

Probability of default and loss at default may increase simultaneously, while duration falls causing the loan value to decrease.

Discussion 0
Questions 59

Which one of the following four statements regarding bank's exposure to credit and default risk is INCORRECT?

Options:

A.  

The more the bank diversifies its credit portfolio, the better spread its credit risks become.

B.  

In debt management, the value of any loan exposure will change typically in a fashion similar the same way that an equity investment can.

C.  

In debt management, the goal is to minimize the effect of any defaults.

D.  

Default risk cannot be hedged away fully, and it will always exist for the holder of the credit or for the person insuring against the credit or default event.

Discussion 0
Questions 60

Beta Insurance Company is only allowed to invest in investment grade bonds. To maximize the interest income, Beta Insurance Company should invest in bonds with which of the following ratings?

Options:

A.  

AAA

B.  

AA

C.  

A

D.  

B

Discussion 0
Questions 61

Which one of the following four statements correctly defines credit risk?

Options:

A.  

Credit risk is the risk that complements market and liquidity risks.

B.  

Credit risk is a form of performance risk in contractual relationship.

C.  

Credit risk is the risk arising from execution of a company's strategy.

D.  

Credit risk is the risk that summarizes the exposures a company or firm assumes when it attempts to operate within a given field or industry.

Discussion 0
Questions 62

Which one of the following four options correctly identifies the core difference between bonds and loans?

Options:

A.  

These instruments receive a different legal treatment.

B.  

These instruments have different pricing drivers.

C.  

These instruments cannot be used to estimate credit capital under provisions of the Basel II Accord.

D.  

These instruments are subject to different credit counterparty regulations.

Discussion 0
Questions 63

In the United States, Which one of the following four options represents the largest component of securitized debt?

Options:

A.  

Education loans

B.  

Credit card loans

C.  

Real estate loans

D.  

Lines of credit

Discussion 0
Questions 64

Foreign exchange rates are determined by various factors. Considering the drivers of exchange rates, which one of the following changes would most likely strengthen the value of the USD against other foreign currencies?

Options:

A.  

The expected US inflation rate increases

B.  

The global demand for US products decreases

C.  

The economic performance in the US weakens

D.  

The US current account surplus increases

Discussion 0
Questions 65

Which one of the following four models is typically used to grade the obligations of small- and medium-size enterprises?

Options:

A.  

Causal models

B.  

Historical frequency models

C.  

Credit scoring models

D.  

Credit rating models

Discussion 0
Questions 66

Which of the following risk types are historically associated with credit derivatives?

I. Documentation risk

II. Definition of credit events

III. Occurrence of credit events

IV. Enterprise risk

Options:

A.  

I, IV

B.  

I, II

C.  

I, II, III

D.  

II, III, IV

Discussion 0
Questions 67

Most loans and deposits in the interbank market have a maturity of:

Options:

A.  

More than 10 years

B.  

More than 5 years but less than 10 years

C.  

More than 3 years but less than 5 years

D.  

Less than one year

Discussion 0
Questions 68

The potential failure of a manufacturer to honor a warranty might be called ____, whereas the potential failure of a borrower to fulfill its payment requirements, which include both the repayment of the amount borrowed, the principal and the contractual interest payments, would be called ___.

Options:

A.  

Credit risk; market risk

B.  

Market risk; credit risk

C.  

Credit risk; performance risk

D.  

Performance risk; credit risk

Discussion 0
Questions 69

In the United States, during the second quarter of 2009, transactions in foreign exchange derivative contracts comprised approximately what proportion of all types of derivative transactions between financial institutions?

Options:

A.  

2%

B.  

7%

C.  

25%

D.  

43%

Discussion 0
Questions 70

A credit portfolio manager analyzes a large retail credit portfolio. Which of the following factors will represent typical disadvantages of market-linked credit risk drivers?

I. Need to supply a large number of input parameters to the model

II. Slow computation speed due to higher simulation complexity

III. Non-linear nature of the model applicable to a specific type of credit portfolios

IV. Need to estimate a large number of unknown variable and use approximations

Options:

A.  

I

B.  

I, II

C.  

II, III

D.  

III, IV

Discussion 0
Questions 71

To estimate a partial change in option price, a risk manager will use the following formula:

Options:

A.  

Partial change in option price = Delta x Change in underlying price

B.  

Partial change in option price = Delta x (1+ Change in underlying price)

C.  

Partial change in option price = Delta x Gamma x Change in underlying price

D.  

Partial change in option price = Delta x Gamma x (1+ Change in underlying price)

Discussion 0
Questions 72

Alpha Bank determined that Delta Industrial Machinery Corporation has 2% change of default on a one-year no-payment of USD $1 million, including interest and principal repayment. The bank charges 3% interest rate spread to firms in the machinery industry, and the risk-free interest rate is 6%. Alpha Bank receives both interest and principal payments once at the end the year. Delta can only default at the end of the year. If Delta defaults, the bank expects to lose 50% of its promised payment. Six months after Alpha Bank provides USD $1 million loan to the Delta Industrial Machinery Corporation, a new competitor enters the machinery industry, causing Delta to adjust its prices and mark down the value of its inventory. Hence, the probability of defaultincreases from 2% to 10% and the loss given default increases from 50% to 75%. If Alpha Bank can reprice the loan, what should the new rate be?

Options:

A.  

10%

B.  

13%

C.  

16.5%

D.  

20.5%

Discussion 0
Questions 73

To safeguard its capital and obtain insurance if the borrowers cannot repay their loans, Gamma Bank accepts financial collateral to manage its credit risk and mitigate the effect of the borrowers' defaults. Gamma Bank will typically accept all of the following instruments as financial collateral EXCEPT?

Options:

A.  

Unrated bonds issued and traded on a recognized exchange

B.  

Equities and convertible bonds included in a main market index

C.  

Commercial debts owed to a company in a form of receivables

D.  

Mutual fund shares and similar unit investment vehicles subject to daily quotes

Discussion 0
Questions 74

A credit associate extending a loan to an obligor suspects that the obligor may change his behavior after the loan has been originated. The obligor in this case may use the loan proceeds for purposes not sanctioned by the lender, thereby increasing the risk of default. Hence, the credit associate must estimate the probability of default based on the assumptions about the applicability of the following tendency to this lending situation:

Options:

A.  

Speculation

B.  

Short bias

C.  

Moral hazard

D.  

Adverse selection

Discussion 0
Questions 75

Gamma Bank is active in loan underwriting and securitization business, and given its collective credit exposure, it will be typically most interested in the following types of portfolio credit risk:

I. Expected loss

II. Duration

III. Unexpected loss

IV. Factor sensitivities

Options:

A.  

I

B.  

II

C.  

I, III

D.  

I, III, IV

Discussion 0
Questions 76

A bank customer chooses a mortgage with low initial payments and payments that increase over time because the customer knows that she will have trouble making payments in the early years of the loan. The bank makes this type of mortgage with the same default assumptions uses for ordinary mortgages, thus underestimating the risk of default and becoming exposed to:

Options:

A.  

Moral hazard

B.  

Adverse selection

C.  

Banking speculation

D.  

Sampling bias

Discussion 0
Questions 77

Which one of the following four statements correctly defines chooser options?

Options:

A.  

The owner of these options decides if the option is a call or put option only when a predetermined date is reached.

B.  

These options represent a variation of the plain vanilla option where the underlying asset is a basket of currencies.

C.  

These options pay an amount equal to the power of the value of the underlying asset above the strike price.

D.  

These options give the holder the right to exchange one asset for another.

Discussion 0
Questions 78

Which one of the following four options does NOT represent a benefit of compensating balances to the bank?

Options:

A.  

Compensating balances allow the bank to net some of the exposure they may have in case of default, by taking funds from these specific deposit account one the borrower defaults.

B.  

Since the compensating balances cannot be withdrawn at short notice, if at all, they are not considered transaction accounts and are able to provide a stable funding to the bank, reducing its reliance on more volatile external inter-bank based funding sources.

C.  

Compensation balances influence the expected loss rate of the bank given the default obligor and improve capital structure by controlling obligor type and avoiding payment delays.

D.  

Since the compensating balances reduce the next amount lent to the borrower, the earned return on the loan is increased, further widening the bank's interest rate margin and profitability.

Discussion 0
Questions 79

Which one of the following four variables of the Black-Scholes model is typically NOT known at a point in time?

Options:

A.  

The underlying relevant exchange rates

B.  

The underlying interest rates

C.  

The future volatility of the exchange rates

D.  

The time to maturity

Discussion 0
Questions 80

Counterparty credit risk assessment differs from traditional credit risk assessment in all of the following features EXCEPT:

Options:

A.  

Exposures can often be netted

B.  

Exposure at default may be negatively correlated to the probability of default

C.  

Counterparty risk creates a two-way credit exposure

D.  

Collateral arrangements are typically static in nature

Discussion 0
Questions 81

Which one of the following four model types would assign an obligor to an obligor class based on the risk characteristics of the borrower at the time the loan was originated and estimate the default probability based on the past default rate of the members of that particular class?

Options:

A.  

Dynamic models

B.  

Causal models

C.  

Historical frequency models

D.  

Credit rating models

Discussion 0
Questions 82

What is the explanation offered by the liquidity preference theory for the upward sloping yield curve shape?

Options:

A.  

The long term rates must rise enough to get some borrowers to borrow short-term and some lenders to lend long-term.

B.  

The long term rates must rise enough to get some borrowers to borrow long-term and some lenders to lend short-term.

C.  

The short term rates must rise enough to get some borrowers to borrow short-term and some lenders to lend long-term.

D.  

The short term rates must fall enough to get some borrowers to borrow long-term and some lenders to lend short-term.

Discussion 0
Questions 83

By foreign exchange market convention, spot foreign exchange transactions are to be exchanged at the spot date based on the following settlement rule:

Options:

A.  

One-day rule

B.  

Two-day rule

C.  

Three-day rule

D.  

Four-day rule

Discussion 0
Questions 84

Gamma Bank provides a $100,000 loan to Big Bath retail stores at 5% interest rate (paid annually). The loan is collateralized with $55,000. The loan also has an annual expected default rate of 2%, and loss given default at 50%. In this case, what will the bank's expected loss be?

Options:

A.  

$500

B.  

$750

C.  

$1,000

D.  

$1,300

Discussion 0
Questions 85

When looking at the distribution of portfolio credit losses, the shape of the loss distribution is ___ , as the likelihood of total losses, the sum of expected and unexpected credit losses, is ___ than the likelihood of no credit losses.

Options:

A.  

Symmetric; less

B.  

Symmetric; greater

C.  

Asymmetric; less

D.  

Asymmetric; greater

Discussion 0
Questions 86

The pricing of credit default swaps is a function of all of the following EXCEPT:

Options:

A.  

Probability of default

B.  

Duration

C.  

Loss given default

D.  

Market spreads

Discussion 0
Questions 87

In the United States, foreign exchange derivative transactions typically occur between

Options:

A.  

A few large internationally active banks, where the risks become concentrated.

B.  

All banks with international branches, where the risks become widely distributed based on trading exposures.

C.  

Regional banks with international operations, where the risks depend on the specific derivative transactions.

D.  

Thrifts and large commercial banks, where the risks become isolated.

Discussion 0
Questions 88

What is generally true of the relationship between a bond's yield and it's time to maturity when the yield curve is upward sloping?

Options:

A.  

The longer the time to maturity of the bond, the lower its yield.

B.  

The longer the time to maturity of the bond, the higher its yield.

C.  

The shorter the time to maturity of the bond, the higher its yield.

D.  

There is no relationship between the two

Discussion 0
Questions 89

Except for the credit quality of the Credit Default Swap protection seller, the following relationship correctly approximates the yield on a risk-free instrument:

Options:

A.  

Bond + CDS

B.  

Bond + CDS + Market Spread

C.  

Bond - CDS

D.  

Bond - CDS - Market spread

Discussion 0
Questions 90

Which one of the following four statements on factors affecting the value of options is correct?

Options:

A.  

As volatility rises, options increase in value.

B.  

As time passes, options will increase in value.

C.  

As interest rates rise and option's rho is positive, option prices will decrease.

D.  

As the value of underlying security increases, the value of the put option increases.

Discussion 0
Questions 91

Which of the following statements regarding bonds is correct?

I. Interest rates on bonds are typically stated on an annualized rate.

II. Bonds can pay floating coupons that are directly linked to various interest rate indices.

III. Convertible bonds have an element of prepayment risk.

IV. Callable bonds have an element of equity risk.

Options:

A.  

I only

B.  

I and II

C.  

I, II, and III

D.  

II, III, and IV

Discussion 0
Questions 92

Which one of the following four statements does identify correctly the relationship between the value of an option and perceived exchange rate volatility?

Options:

A.  

With increases in perceived future foreign exchange volatility, the value of all foreign exchange

B.  

As the perceived future foreign exchange volatility decreases, the value of all options increases.

C.  

As the perceived future foreign exchange volatility increases, the value of all options increases.

D.  

Option values can only change due to the factors related to the demand for specific options

Discussion 0
Questions 93

Which one of the following four global markets for financial assets or instruments is widely believed to be the most liquid?

Options:

A.  

Equity market.

B.  

Foreign exchange market.

C.  

Fixed income market

D.  

Commodities market

Discussion 0
Questions 94

A financial analyst is trying to distinguish credit risk from market risk. A $100 loan collateralized with $200 in stock has limited ___, but an uncollateralized obligation issued by a large bank to pay an amount linked to the long-term performance of the Nikkei 225 Index that measures the performance of the leading Japanese stocks on the Tokyo Stock Exchange likely has more ___ than ___.

Options:

A.  

Legal risk; market risk; credit risk

B.  

Market risk; market risk; credit risk

C.  

Market risk; credit risk; market risk

D.  

Credit risk, legal risk; market risk

Discussion 0
Questions 95

Changes to which one of the following four factors would typically not increase the cost of credit?

Options:

A.  

Increasing inflation rates in a country.

B.  

Increase in consumption of goods and services.

C.  

Higher risk premium on a fixed income instrument.

D.  

Higher return earned on alternative investments.

Discussion 0
Questions 96

Which one of the following four alternatives lists the three most widely traded currencies on the global foreign exchange market, as of April 2007, in the decreasing order of market share? EUR is the abbreviation of the European euro, JPY is for the Japanese yen, and USD is for the United States dollar, respectively.

Options:

A.  

JPY, EUR, USD

B.  

USD, EUR, JPY

C.  

USD, JPY, EUR

D.  

EUR, USD, JPY

Discussion 0
Questions 97

To estimate the interest charges on the loan, an analyst should use one of the following four formulas:

Options:

A.  

Loan interest = Risk-free rate - Probability of default x Loss given default + Spread

B.  

Loan interest = Risk-free rate + Probability of default x Loss given default + Spread

C.  

Loan interest = Risk-free rate - Probability of default x Loss given default - Spread

D.  

Loan interest = Risk-free rate + Probability of default x Loss given default - Spread

Discussion 0
Questions 98

Which one of the following four statements correctly describes an American call option?

Options:

A.  

An American call option gives the buyer of that call option the right to buy the underlying instrument on any date up to and including the expiry date.

B.  

An American call option gives the buyer of that call option the right to sell the underlying instrument on any date up to and including the expiry date.

C.  

An American call option gives the buyer of that call option the right to buy the underlying instrument on the expiry date.

D.  

An American call option gives the buyer of that call option the right to sell the underlying instrument on the expiry date.

Discussion 0
Questions 99

Which one of the following four statements about the relationship between exchange rates and option values is correct?

Options:

A.  

As the dollar appreciates relative to the pound, the right to buy dollars at a fixed pound exchange rate decreases.

B.  

As the dollar appreciates relative to the pound, the right to buy dollars at a fixed pound exchange rate increases.

C.  

As the dollar depreciates relative to the pound, the right to buy dollars at a fixed pound exchange rate increases.

D.  

As the dollar appreciates relative to the pound, the right to sell dollars at a fixed pound exchange rate increases.

Discussion 0
Questions 100

After entering the securitization business, Delta Bank increases its cash efficiency by selling off the lower risk portions of the portfolio credit risk. This process ___ risk on the residual pieces of the credit portfolio, and as a result it ___ return on equity for the bank.

Options:

A.  

Decreases; increases;

B.  

Increases; increases;

C.  

Increases; decreases;

D.  

Decreases; increases;

Discussion 0
Questions 101

The value of which one of the following four option types is typically dependent on both the final price of its underlying asset and its own price history?

Options:

A.  

Stout options

B.  

Power options

C.  

Chooser options

D.  

Basket options

Discussion 0
Questions 102

Alpha Bank determined that Delta Industrial Machinery Corporation has 2% change of default on a one-year no-payment of USD $1 million, including interest and principal repayment. The bank charges 3% interest rate spread to firms in the machinery industry, and the risk-free interest rate is 6%. Alpha Bank receives both interest and principal payments once at the end the year. Delta can only default at the end of the year. If Delta defaults, the bank expects to lose 50% of its promised payment. What interest rate should Alpha Bank charge on the no-payment loan to Delta Industrial Machinery Corporation?

Options:

A.  

8%

B.  

9%

C.  

10%

D.  

12%

Discussion 0
Questions 103

Gamma Bank provides a $100,000 loan to Big Bath retail stores at 5% interest rate (paid annually). The loan also has an annual expected default rate of 2%, and loss given default at 50%. In this case, what will the bank's expected loss be? What is the expected loss of this loan?

Options:

A.  

$300

B.  

$550

C.  

$750

D.  

$1,050

Discussion 0
Questions 104

Which one of the following four options is NOT a typical component of a currency swap?

Options:

A.  

An initial currency exchange of the notional amount

B.  

Denomination of the original notional amount into a foreign currency

C.  

Periodic exchange of interest payments in different currencies

D.  

A final currency exchange

Discussion 0
Questions 105

Which one of the following changes would typically increase the price of a fixed income instrument, such as a bond?

Options:

A.  

Decrease in inflation rates in a country.

B.  

Increase in time to maturity.

C.  

Increase in risk premium.

D.  

Increase in demand for goods and services.

Discussion 0
Questions 106

Which one of the following four mathematical option pricing models is used most widely for pricing European options?

Options:

A.  

The Black model

B.  

The Black-Scholes model

C.  

The Garman-Kohlhagen model

D.  

The Heston model

Discussion 0
Questions 107

Which one of the following four statements regarding counterparty credit risk is INCORRECT?

Options:

A.  

Counterparty credit risk refers to the inability to realize gains in a contract with a counterparty due to its default.

B.  

The exposure at default is variable due to fluctuations in swap valuations.

C.  

The exposure at default can be negatively correlated to probability of default.

D.  

Dynamic collateral provisions often increase counterparty risk considerably.

Discussion 0
Questions 108

Which of the following factors can cause obligors to default at the same time?

I. Obligors may be harmed by exposures to similar risk factors simultaneously.

II. Obligors may exhibit herd behavior.

III. Obligors may be subject to the sampling bias.

IV. Obligors may exhibit speculative bias.

Options:

A.  

I

B.  

II, III

C.  

I, II

D.  

III, IV

Discussion 0
Questions 109

For non-retail exposures, which one of the following factors must be determined by a bank when using the Foundation Internal Ratings-Based Approach?

Options:

A.  

EAD (Exposure at Default)

B.  

LGD (Loss Given Default)

C.  

PD (Probability of Default)

D.  

M (Maturity)

Discussion 0
Questions 110

Why is economic capital across market, credit and operational risks simply added up to arrive at an estimate of aggregate economic capital in practice?

Options:

A.  

Market, credit and operational risks are perfectly correlated which justifies adding up their associated economic capital.

B.  

In practice, it is very difficult to estimate the correlations between the risk categories and as a result a conservative estimate is obtained by adding up the risks.

C.  

Regulators require banks to add up economic capital across market, credit and operational risks.

D.  

Since market, credit and operational risks are significantly different measures of risk, there is no diversification benefit to computing economic capital to banks across types of risks.

Discussion 0
Questions 111

While contractually, depositors are not required to keep liquid funds on deposit for very long, in fact they tend to leave their deposits for longer periods of time, even if interest rates rise and the bank does not raise its deposit interest rate. What does a bank consider these deposits to be?

Options:

A.  

Credible deposits

B.  

Core deposits

C.  

Permanent deposits

D.  

Tangible equity

Discussion 0
Questions 112

A risk associate is trying to determine the required risk-adjusted rate of return on a stock using the Capital Asset Pricing Model. Which of the following equations should she use to calculate the required return?

Options:

A.  

Required return = risk-free return + beta x market risk

B.  

Required return = (1-risk free return) + beta x market risk

C.  

Required return = risk-free return + beta x (1 – market risk)

D.  

Required return = risk-free return + 1/beta x market risk

Discussion 0
Questions 113

Which one of the following statements is an advantage of using implied volatility as an input when calculating VaR?

Options:

A.  

Implied volatility assumes volatilities are constant which makes it easy to implement in models.

B.  

Current market data is used to determine implied volatilities, which makes them forward looking measures

C.  

Implied volatilities are better at predicting actual volatilities

D.  

Loss probabilities from the standard normal distribution are used to compute implied volatilities, which makes it easy to compute the.

Discussion 0
Questions 114

Why do regulatory standards impose formulaic capital calculations for all of the banks activities?

I. If the banks use different models it is difficult for a regulator to compare results across banks.

II. By imposing standardized calculations regulators can make sure that banks are not missing key risks in their calculations.

III. By imposing standardized calculations regulators can make sure that banks do not use capital calculations to game the banking regulation system.

Options:

A.  

I

B.  

I,II

C.  

II, III

D.  

I,II, III

Discussion 0
Questions 115

Which of the following risk measures are based on the underlying assumption that interest rates across all maturities change by exactly the same amount?

I. Present value of a basis point.

II. Yield volatility.

III. Macaulay's duration.

IV. Modified duration.

Options:

A.  

I and II

B.  

I, II, and III

C.  

I, III, and IV

D.  

I, II, III, and IV

Discussion 0
Questions 116

BetaFin has decided to use the hybrid RCSA approach because it believes that it fits its operational framework. Which of the following could be reasons to use the hybrid RCSA method?

I. BetaFin has previously created series of RCSA workshops, and the results of these workshops can be used to design the questionnaires.

II. BetaFin believes that using the questionnaire approach should be more useful.

III. BetaFin had used the questionnaire approach successfully for certain businesses and the workshop approach for others.

IV. BetaFin had already implemented a sophisticated RCSA IT-system.

Options:

A.  

I and II

B.  

I and III

C.  

III and IV

D.  

II, III, and IV

Discussion 0