Refer to the exhibit.

Which next-hop IP address has the least desirable metric when sourced from R1?

Refer to the exhibit.

Which per-hop QoS behavior is R1 applying to incoming packets?

What is a difference between an IPv6 multicast address and an IPv6 anycast address?

Which protocol is used in Software Defined Access (SDA) to provide a tunnel between two edge nodes in different fabrics?

Refer to the exhibit.

Which IP route command created the best path for a packet destined for 10.10.10.3?

Refer to the exhibit.

In which structure does the word "warning" directly reside?

Drag and drop the Cisco IOS attack mitigation features from the left onto the types of network attack they mitigate on the right.

Refer to the exhibit.

A newly configured PC fails to connect to the internet using TCP port 80 to www cisco com Which setting must be modified for the connection to work?

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration for RTR-1 deniess SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Which functionality is provided by the console connection on a Cisco WLC?

A WLC sends alarms about a rogue AP, and the network administrator verifies that the alarms are caused by a legitimate autonomous AP.

What must be considered before deploying virtual machines?

What is a similarity OM3 and OM4 fiber optical cable?

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure router R2 so it is elected as the DR on the WAN subnet. Which command sequence must be configured?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Which advantage does the network assurance capability of Cisco DNA Center provide over traditional campus management?

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is checking the routing table in the main router to identify the path to a server on the network. Which route does the router use to reach the server at 192.168.2.2?

Why is TCP desired over UDP for application that require extensive error checking, such as HTTPS?

What does a switch search for in the CAM table when forwarding a frame?

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

Refer to the exhibit.

All interfaces are in the same VLAN. All switches are configured with the default STP priorities. During the STP electronics, which switch becomes the root bridge?

What is the purpose of configuring different levels of syslog for different devices on the network?

In a cloud-computing environment what is rapid elasticity?

Which interface IP address serves as the tunnel source for CAPWAP packets from the WLC to an AP?

Refer to the exhibit. Each router must be configured with the last usable IP address in the subnet. Which configuration fulfills this requirement?

Which type of IPv4 address type helps to conserve the globally unique address classes?

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer is configuring a WLAN to connect with the 172.16.10.0/24 network on VLAN 20. The engineer wants to limit the number of devices that connect to the WLAN on the USERWL SSID to 125. Which configuration must the engineer perform on the WLC?

When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller, what is the minimum number of characters that is required in ASCII format?

What is a benefit of using private IPv4 addressing?

Refer to the exhibit.

Refer to the exhibit. The IPv6 address for the LAN segment on router R1 must be configured using the EUI-64 format. When configured which ipv6 address is produced by the router?

Which type of encryption does WPA1 use for data protection?

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is updating the management access configuration of switch SW1 to allow secured, encrypted remote configuration. Which two commands or command sequences must the engineer apply to the switch? (Choose two.)

What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol on a specific subnet?

Drag and drop the AAA lerms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

What is a characteristic of cloud-based network topology?

Drag and drop the functions of DHCP from the left onto any of the positions on the right Not all functions are used

An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company's security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code. Which type of security program is in place?

What is an advantage of using auto mode versus static mode for power allocation when an access point is connected to a PoE switch port?

Refer to the exhibit.

A)

B)

C)

D)

A network engineer is upgrading a small data center to host several new applications, including server backups that are expected to account for up to 90% of the bandwidth during peak times. The data center connects to the MPLS network provider via a primary circuit and a secondary circuit. How does the engineer inexpensively update the data center to avoid saturation of the primary circuit by traffic associated with the backups?

Which implementation provides the strongest encryption combination for the wireless environment?

Drag and drop the descriptions of file-transfer protocols from the left onto the correct protocols on the right.

A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two)

Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32?

Refer to the exhibit.

If the network environment is operating normally, which type of device must be connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1?

What is a DNS lookup operation?

Refer to the exhibit.

PC1 is trying to ping PC3 for the first time and sends out an ARP to S1 Which action is taken by S1?

What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol in a specific subnet?

Where is the interface between the control plane and data plane within the software-defined architecture?

When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two)

Which two command sequences must you configure on switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two )

Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (choose two.)

What are two functions of an SDN controller? (Choose two)

What software defined architecture plane assists network devices with making packet-forwarding decisions by providing Layer 2 reachability and Layer 3 routing information?

When DHCP is configured on a router, which command must be entered so the default gateway is automatically distributed?

What are network endpoints?

An engineer must configure Interswitch VLAN communication between a Cisco switch and a third-party switch. Which action should be taken?

Which state does the switch port move to when PortFast is enabled?

A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software which is only used occasionally Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend?

Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in preshared key mode?

Which network action occurs within the data plane?

Drag and drop the DNS lookup components from the left onto the functions on the right.

What does physical access control regulate?

What is a function of Wireless LAN Controller?

Refer to the exhibit.

What two conclusions should be made about this configuration? (Choose two )

Drag and drop the IPv6 address type characteristics from the left to the right.

Refer to the exhibit.

After running the code in the exhibit, which step reduces the amount of data that the NETCONF server returns to the NETCONF client, to only the interface's configuration?

Refer to Exhibit.

The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the loopback3 interface of the Washington router. Which two static host routes must be configured on the NEW York router? (Choose two)

Drag and drop the SNMP manager and agent identifier commands from the left onto the functions on the right

What is a function of the Cisco DNA Center Overall Health Dashboard?

Aside from discarding, which two states does the switch port transition through while using RSTP (802.1w)? (Choose two)

Which configuration ensures that the switch is always the root for VLAN 750?

Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two)

What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?

What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?

Refer to the Exhibit.

After the switch configuration the ping test fails between PC A and PC B Based on the output for switch 1. which error must be corrected?

Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol SW1 is set to Dynamic Desirable

What is the result of this configuration?

Which two WAN architecture options help a business improve scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two.)

What uses HTTP messages to transfer data to applications residing on different hosts?

What is a function of a remote access VPN?

Which type of security program is violated when a group of employees enters a building using the ID badge of only one person?

What are two functions of a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two)

What criteria is used first during the root port selection process?

All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and

inaccessible. R4's WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.

Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.

1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to

reach only PCI on R4's LAN

2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take

an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along

the primary path

3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured

1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends

2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.

4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.

Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.

1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.

2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.

3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.

IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.

1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.

2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.

3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.

4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.

IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:

1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.

2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.

3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.

4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.

Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.

1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.

2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.

3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.

4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.

5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.

Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.

1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.

2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.

3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.

4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.

All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.

1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.

2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.

3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.

4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.

5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.

All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.

The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.

1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

Using the second subnet

• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1

• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102

2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

c Using the second subnet

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on e0/0 on Sw101

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on eO/O on swi02

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,

and the network connectivity between them must be configured.

I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it

between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and

Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.

2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.

4. Configure VLAN 'MONITORING' as the untagged VLAN of the

EtherChannel.

==================

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.

The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:

VLAN 110: MARKETING

VLAN 210: FINANCE

1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.

2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

An engineer requires a scratch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of this configuration?

Refer to the exhibit.

Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue?

Why does a switch flood a frame to all ports?

An engineer must configure an OSPF neighbor relationship between router R1 and R3 The authentication configuration has been configured and the connecting interfaces are in the same 192.168 1.0/30 sublet. What are the next two steps to complete the configuration? (Choose two.)

Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the MAC address of that interface?

Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. what is the reason for the problem?

How does WPA3 improve security?

An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor What command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently?

What is a difference between RADIUS and TACACS+?

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router1 The new circuit uses eBGP and teams the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path What s the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25?

Refer to the exhibit.

The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which two tasks must be performed so that the Serial0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers can reach one another?

(Choose two.)

Refer to the exhibit.

Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A?

Refer to the exhibit.

To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two prefixes are included in this routing table entry? (Choose two.)

What is the effect when loopback interfaces and the configured router ID are absent during the OSPF Process configuration?

Refer to the exhibit.

Which change to the configuration on Switch?

allows the two switches to establish an GtherChannel?

The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration?

Refer to the exhibit.

Only four switches are participating in the VLAN spanning-tree process.

Branch-1 priority 614440

Branch-2: priority 39082416

Branch-3: priority 0

Branch-4: root primary

Which switch becomes the permanent root bridge for VLAN 5?

An engineer is configuring NAT to translate the source subnet of 10.10.0.0/24 to any of three addresses 192.168.30.1, 192.168.3.2, 192.168.3.3 Which configuration should be used?

What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks?

An implementer is preparing hardware for virtualization to create virtual machines on a host. What is needed to provide communication between hardware and virtual machines?

Refer to the exhibit.

Between which zones do wireless users expect to experience intermittent connectivity?

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer deploys a topology in which R1 obtains its IP configuration from DHCP. If

the switch and DHCP server configurations are complete and correct. Which two sets of commands must be configured on R1 and R2 to complete the task? (Choose two)

What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?

What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?

Which two primary drivers support the need for network automation? (Choose two.)

When a WLAN with WPA2 PSK is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller GUI which format is supported?

When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?

Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two)

Which command must be entered to configure a DHCP relay?

R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS. OSPF, RIP. and Internal EIGRP Under normal operating conditions, which routing protocol is installed in the routing table?

When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network, how does it select a route?

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192 168.16.2?

Refer to the exhibit.

For security reasons, automatic neighbor discovery must be disabled on the R5 Gi0/1 interface. These tasks must be completed:

• Disable all neighbor discovery methods on R5 interface GiO/1.

• Permit neighbor discovery on R5 interface GiO/2.

• Verify there are no dynamically learned neighbors on R5 interface Gi0/1.

• Display the IP address of R6*s interface Gi0/2.

Which configuration must be used?

What prevents a workstation from receiving a DHCP address?

Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?

Which two protocols must be disabled to increase security for management connections to a Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose two )

Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

If a switch port receives a new frame while it is actively transmitting a previous frame, how does it process the frames?

Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and is unable to route on the Internet?

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is tasked with verifying network configuration parameters on a client workstation to report back to the team lead. Drag and drop the node identifiers from the left onto the network parameters on the right.

Which protocol does an access point use to draw power from a connected switch?

What is the function of a server?

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface?

Which technology can prevent client devices from arbitrarily connecting to the network without state remediation?

What is a function of TFTP in network operations?

Which port type supports the spanning-tree portfast command without additional configuration?

How does a Cisco Unified Wireless network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap?

Refer to the exhibit.

If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.161.1, to which IP address does it send the packet?

Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?

Drag and drop the application protocols from the left onto the transport protocols that it uses on the right

What is the benefit of configuring PortFast on an interface?

Which type of IPv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as IPv4 public address?

Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true?

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring the HO router. Which IPv6 address configuration must be applied to the router fa0'1 interface for the router to assign a unique 64-brt IPv6 address to Itself?

Where does wireless authentication happen?

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that each of the four Gigabit interfaces has the same route to 10.10.0.0/16. Which interface will R1 choose to send traffic to reach the route?

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)

Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?

Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding slate actions from the loft to the right. Not all actions are used.

Refer to the exhibit.

How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?

What is a function of Opportunistic Wireless Encryption in an environment?

Which PoE mode enables powered-device detection and guarantees power when the device is detected?

Refer to the exhibit.

The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?

A)

B)

C)

D)

What is the difference between IPv6 unicast and anycast addressing?

Refer to the exhibit.

Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone and PC A on Gi0/1 must be configured for the appropriate VLANs to establish connectivity between the PCs. Which command set fulfills the requirement?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Which field within the access-request packet is encrypted by RADIUS?

Refer to the exhibit.

Which network prefix was learned via EIGRP?

How does Rapid PVST+ create a fast loop-free network topology?

Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch becomes the root of a spanning tree for VLAN 20 if all li links are of equal speed?

What is a requirement when configuring or removing LAG on a WLC?

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer assumes a configuration task from a peer Router A must establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with neighbor 172 1 1 1 The output displays the status of the adjacency after 2 hours. What is the next step in the configuration process for the routers to establish an adjacency?

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is updating the R1 configuration to connect a new server to the management network. The PCs on the management network must be blocked from pinging the default gateway of the new server. Which command must be configured on R1 to complete the task?

Refer to the exhibit.

Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 learns all routes via OSPF Which command configures a backup static route on R1 to reach the 192 168.20.0/24 network via R3?

Drag and drop the descriptions of AAA services from the left onto the corresponding services on the right.

Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)

What is a function of a Next-Generation IPS?

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel using LACP between Switches 1 and 2 Which configuration must be applied so that only Switch 1 sends LACP initiation packets?

What is a function of an endpoint on a network?

What is the purpose of the ip address dhcp command?

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands must be added to update the configuration of router R1 so that it accepts only encrypted connections? (Choose two )

Refer to the exhibit.

A static route must be configured on R14 to forward traffic for the 172 21 34 0/25 network that resides on R86 Which command must be used to fulfill the request?

Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the VLANs?

Refer to the exhibit.

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209 165 201 1 Each route is present within the routing table Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.1.1.19?

Refer to the exhibit.

The link between PC1 and the switch is up. but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?

What is one reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency while acting as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

Routers R1 and R3 have the default configuration The router R2 priority is set to 99 Which commands on R3 configure it as the DR in the 10.0 4.0/24 network?

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command configures OSPF on the point-to-point link between routers R1 and R2?

Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address but is assigned to multiple devices on the same network at the same time?

Refer to the exhibit.

Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802. 11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building What must be the configuration of the connection?

A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is remotely reachable via SSH. The engineer has already configured the host name on the router. Which additional command must the engineer configure before entering the command to generate the RSA key?

A Cisco engineer is configuring a factory-default router with these three passwords:

• The user EXEC password for console access is p4ssw0rd1

• The user EXEC password for Telnet access is s3cr3t2

• The password for privileged EXEC mode is pnv4t3p4ss Which command sequence must the engineer configured

A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands must be configured on router R1 to enable the router to accept secure remote-access connections? (Choose two)

Refer to the exhibit.

The DHCP server and clients are connected to the same switch. What is the next step to complete the DHCP configuration to allow clients on VLAN 1 to receive addresses from the DHCP server?

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?

Refer to the exhibit.

All traffic enters the CPE router from interface Serial0/3 with an IP address of 192 168 50 1 Web traffic from the WAN is destined for a LAN network where servers are load-balanced An IP packet with a destination address of the HTTP virtual IP of 192 1681 250 must be forwarded Which routing table entry does the router use?

Which action is taken by the data plane within a network device?

An engineer must configure R1 for a new user account. The account must meet these requirements:

* It must be configured in the local database.

* The username is engineer.

* It must use the strongest password configurable. Which command must the engineer configure on the router?

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer has started to configure replacement switch SW1. To verify part of the configuration, the engineer issued the commands as shown and noticed that the entry for PC2 is missing. Which change must be applied to SW1 so that PC1 and PC2 communicate normally?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route must be configured on R1 so that OSPF routing is used when OSPF is up. but the server is still reachable when OSPF goes down?

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two configurations must the engineer apply on this network so that R1 becomes the DR? (Choose two.)

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Refer to the exhibit.

Which plan must be Implemented to ensure optimal QoS marking practices on this network?

Refer to the exhibit.

An IP subnet must be configured on each router that provides enough addresses for the number of assigned hosts and anticipates no more than 10% growth for now hosts. Which configuration script must be used?

A)

B)

C)

D)

R1 as an NTP server must have:

• NTP authentication enabled

• NTP packets sourced from Interface loopback 0

• NTP stratum 2

• NTP packets only permitted to client IP 209.165 200 225

How should R1 be configured?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. Which command sequence must be applied to complete the configuration?

What is the function of northbound API?

Which two transport layer protocols carry syslog messages? (Choose two.)

Refer to the exhibit.

The network engineer is configuring a new WLAN and is told to use a setup password for authentication instead of the RADIUS servers. Which additional set of tasks must the engineer perform to complete the configuration?

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is asked to confère router R1 so that it forms an OSPF single-area neighbor relationship with R2. Which command sequence must be implemented to configure the router?

What is a benefit of a point-to-point leased line?

What are two features of the DHCP relay agent? (Choose two.)

Refer to the exhibit. Local access for R4 must be established and these requirements must be met:

• Only Telnet access is allowed.

• The enable password must be stored securely.

• The enable password must be applied in plain text.

• Full access to R4 must be permitted upon successful login.

Which configuration script meets the requirements?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator must prevent the switch Cat9K-2 IP address from being visible in LLDP without disabling the protocol. Which action must be taken must be taken to complete the task?

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer started to configure two directly-connected routers as shown. Which command sequence must the engineer configure on R2 so that the two routers become OSPF neighbors?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Which Windows command is used instead of the route print command to display the contents of the IP routing table?

What is the primary purpose of private address space?

Refer to the exhibit. User traffic originating within site 0 is failing to reach an application hosted on IP address 192.168 0 10. Which is located within site A What is determined by the routing table?

Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic from R1 to the 10.10.2.0/24 subnet uses 192.168.1.2 as its next hop. An network engineer wants to update the R1 configuration so that traffic with destination 10.10.2.1 passes through router R3, and all other traffic to the 10.10.20/24 subnet passes through r2. Which command must be used?

Drag and drop the DNS commands from the left onto their effects on the right.

Drag and drop the functions of AAA supporting protocols from the left onto the protocols on the right.

Refer to the exhibit.

The Router1 routing table has multiple methods to reach 10.10.10.0/24 as shown. The default Administrative Distance is used. Drag and drop the network conditions from the left onto the routing methods that Router1 uses on the right.

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

What is a benefit for external users who consume public cloud resources?

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the prefix length for the route that router1 will use to reach host A?

Refer to the exhibit. What is represented by “R1” and “SW1” within the JSON output?

How do UTP and STP cables compare?

A network engineer must configure two new subnets using the address block 10 70 128 0/19 to meet these requirements:

• The first subnet must support 24 hosts

• The second subnet must support 472 hosts

• Both subnets must use the longest subnet mask possible from the address block

Which two configurations must be used to configure the new subnets and meet a requirement to use the first available address in each subnet for the router interfaces? (Choose two )

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?

What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?

Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?