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Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (200-301 CCNA) v1.1 Question and Answers

Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (200-301 CCNA) v1.1

Last Update May 30, 2026
Total Questions : 1240

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Questions 1

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure GigabitEthernet1/1 to accommodate voice and data traffic Which configuration accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 2

Refer to the exhibit.

What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?

Options:

A.  

10.10.1.10

B.  

10.10.10.20

C.  

172.16.15.10

D.  

192.168.0.1

Discussion 0
Questions 3

Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information?

Options:

A.  

in the MAC address table

B.  

in the CAM table

C.  

in the binding database

D.  

in the frame forwarding database

Discussion 0
Questions 4

Refer to the exhibit.

How does router R1 handle traffic to the 172.16.1.4/30 subnet?

Options:

A.  

It sends all traffic over the path via 172.16.9.5 using 172.16.4.4 as a backup.

B.  

It sends all traffic over the path via 10.0.1.100.

C.  

It load-balances traffic over 172.16.9.5 and 172.16.4.4.

D.  

It sends all traffic over the path via 172.16.4.4.

Discussion 0
Questions 5

Which protocol does an access point use to draw power from a connected switch?

Options:

A.  

Internet Group Management Protocol

B.  

Adaptive Wireless Path Protocol

C.  

Cisco Discovery Protocol

D.  

Neighbor Discovery Protocol

Discussion 0
Questions 6

Refer to the exhibit.

How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16?

Options:

A.  

It selects the IS-IS route because it has the shortest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

B.  

It selects the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance.

C.  

It selects the OSPF route because it has the lowest cost.

D.  

It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

Discussion 0
Questions 7

Which protocol prompts the Wireless LAN Controller to generate its own local web administration SSL certificate for GUI access?

Options:

A.  

HTTPS

B.  

RADIUS

C.  

TACACS+

D.  

HTTP

Discussion 0
Questions 8

What must be considered when using 802:11 a?

Options:

A.  

It is compatible with 802.11b and 802.11-compliant wireless devices

B.  

It is used in place of 802 11b/g when many nonoverlapping channels are required

C.  

It is susceptible to interference from 2 4 GHz devices such as microwave ovens.

D.  

It is chosen over 802 11b/g when a lower-cost solution is necessary

Discussion 0
Questions 9

which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address?

Options:

A.  

2000::/3

B.  

FC00::/7

C.  

FE80::/10

D.  

FF00::/12

Discussion 0
Questions 10

What benefit does controller-based networking provide versus traditional networking?

Options:

A.  

moves from a two-tier to a three-tier network architecture to provide maximum redundancy

B.  

provides an added layer of security to protect from DDoS attacks

C.  

allows configuration and monitoring of the network from one centralized port

D.  

combines control and data plane functionality on a single device to minimize latency

Discussion 0
Questions 11

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R2 is configured with multiple routes to reach network 10 1.1 0/24 from router R1. What protocol is chosen by router R2 to reach the destination network 10.1 1 0/24?

Options:

A.  

eBGP

B.  

static

C.  

OSPF

D.  

EIGRP

Discussion 0
Questions 12

Which JSON data type is an unordered set of attribute- value pairs?

Options:

A.  

array

B.  

string

C.  

object

D.  

Boolean

Discussion 0
Questions 13

An engineer is configuring an encrypted password for the enable command on a router where the local user database has already been configured Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left into the correct sequence on the right Not all commands are used

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 14

Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. what is the reason for the problem?

Options:

A.  

The OSPF router IDs are mismatched.

B.  

Router2 is using the default helto timer.

C.  

The network statement on Router1 is misconfigured.

D.  

The OSPF process IDs are mismatched.

Discussion 0
Questions 15

After installing a new Cisco ISE server, which task must the engineer perform on the Cisco WLC to connect wireless clients on a specific VLAN based on their credentials?

Options:

A.  

Enable the allow AAA Override

B.  

Enable the Event Driven RRM.

C.  

Disable the LAG Mode or Next Reboot.

D.  

Enable the Authorized MIC APs against auth-list or AAA.

Discussion 0
Questions 16

How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?

Options:

A.  

Cisco DNA Center device management can deploy a network more quickly than traditional campus device management

B.  

Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale more quickly than with Cisco DNA Center device management

C.  

Cisco DNA Center device management can be implemented at a lower cost than most traditional campus device management options

D.  

Traditional campus device management schemes can typically deploy patches and updates more quickly than Cisco DNA Center device management

Discussion 0
Questions 17

Drag and drop the statement about networking from the left into the Corresponding networking types on the right. Not all statements are used.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 18

Drag and drop the functions of DHCP from the left onto any of the positions on the right Not all functions are used

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 19

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two prefixes are included in this routing table entry? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

192.168.1.17

B.  

192.168.1.61

C.  

192.168.1.64

D.  

192.168.1.127

E.  

192.168.1.254

Discussion 0
Questions 20

A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received interface counter increments?

Options:

A.  

collision

B.  

CRC

C.  

runt

D.  

late collision

Discussion 0
Questions 21

What is a role of access points in an enterprise network?

Options:

A.  

connect wireless devices to a wired network

B.  

support secure user logins to devices or the network

C.  

integrate with SNMP in preventing DDoS attacks

D.  

serve as a first line of defense in an enterprise network

Discussion 0
Questions 22

Refer to the exhibit.

Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A?

Options:

A.  

10.10.10.0/28

B.  

10.10.13.0/25

C.  

10.10.13.144/28

D.  

10.10.13.208/29

Discussion 0
Questions 23

A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP By default which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?

Options:

A.  

port-to-multipoint

B.  

broadcast

C.  

point-to-point

D.  

nonbroadcast

Discussion 0
Questions 24

When a switch receives a frame for a known destination MAC address, how is the frame handed?

Options:

A.  

sent to the port identified for the known MAC address

B.  

broadcast to all ports

C.  

forwarded to the first available port

D.  

flooded to all ports except the one from which it originated

Discussion 0
Questions 25

What is a syslog facility?

Options:

A.  

Host that is configured for the system to send log messages

B.  

password that authenticates a network management system to receive log messages

C.  

group of log messages associated with the configured severity level

D.  

set of values that represent the processes that can generate a log message

Discussion 0
Questions 26

Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client sends a probe request?

Options:

A.  

action

B.  

management

C.  

control

D.  

data

Discussion 0
Questions 27

Refer to the exhibit.

R5 is the current DR on the network, and R4 is the BDR. Their interfaces are flapping, so a network engineer wants the OSPF network to elect a different DR and BDR. Which set of configurations must the engineer implement?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option

B.  

Option

C.  

Option

D.  

Option

Discussion 0
Questions 28

Which HTTP status code is returned after a successful REST API request?

Options:

A.  

200

B.  

301

C.  

404

D.  

500

Discussion 0
Questions 29

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator received a call from a branch office regarding poor application performance hosted at the headquarters. Ethernet 1 is connected between Router1 and the LAN switch. What identifies the issue?

Options:

A.  

The QoS policy is dropping traffic.

B.  

There is a duplex mismatch.

C.  

The link is over utilized.

D.  

The MTU is not set to the default value.

Discussion 0
Questions 30

Drag and drop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto the transmission protocols on the right

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 31

A network administrator must to configure SSH for remote access to router R1 The requirement is to use a public and private key pair to encrypt management traffic to and from the connecting client.

Which configuration, when applied, meets the requirements?

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 32

Refer to Exhibit.

Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?

Options:

A.  

The trunk does not form and the ports go into an err-disabled status.

B.  

The trunk forms but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain.

C.  

The trunk does not form, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are allowed to traverse the link.

D.  

The trunk forms but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are in a shutdown state.

Discussion 0
Questions 33

When deploying syslog, which severity level logs informational message?

Options:

A.  

0

B.  

2

C.  

4

D.  

6

Discussion 0
Questions 34

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands, when configured on router R1, fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.)

Packets towards the entire network 2001:db8:2::/64 must be forwarded through router R2.

Packets toward host 2001:db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3.

Options:

A.  

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::/128 fd00:12::2

B.  

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/128 fd00:13::3

C.  

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2

D.  

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::/64 fd00:12::2

E.  

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2 200

Discussion 0
Questions 35

A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF By default, which type of OSPF network does this interface belong to?

Options:

A.  

point-to-multipoint

B.  

point-to-point

C.  

broadcast

D.  

nonbroadcast

Discussion 0
Questions 36

With REST API, which standard HTTP header tells a server which media type is expected by the client?

Options:

A.  

Accept-Encoding: gzip. deflate

B.  

Accept-Patch: text/example; charset=utf-8

C.  

Content-Type: application/json; charset=utf-8

D.  

Accept: application/json

Discussion 0
Questions 37

Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings from the left onto the correct security mechanism categories on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 38

An engineer must establish a trunk link between two switches. The neighboring switch is set to trunk or desirable mode. What action should be taken?

Options:

A.  

configure switchport nonegotiate

B.  

configure switchport mode dynamic desirable

C.  

configure switchport mode dynamic auto

D.  

configure switchport trunk dynamic desirable

Discussion 0
Questions 39

Which function does an SNMP agent perform?

Options:

A.  

it sends information about MIB variables in response to requests from the NMS

B.  

it requests information from remote network nodes about catastrophic system events.

C.  

it manages routing between Layer 3 devices in a network

D.  

it coordinates user authentication between a network device and a TACACS+ or RADIUS server

Discussion 0
Questions 40

Which action does the router take as it forwards a packet through the network?

Options:

A.  

The router replaces the original source and destination MAC addresses with the sending router MAC address as the source and neighbor MAC address as the destination

B.  

The router encapsulates the original packet and then includes a tag that identifies the source router MAC address and transmits it transparently to the destination

C.  

The router encapsulates the source and destination IP addresses with the sending router IP address as the source and the neighbor IP address as the destination

D.  

The router replaces the source and destination labels with the sending router interface label as a source and the next hop router label as a destination

Discussion 0
Questions 41

Refer to Exhibit.

Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 42

An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated router. Which state verifies the designated router is in the proper mode?

Options:

A.  

Exchange

B.  

2-way

C.  

Full

D.  

Init

Discussion 0
Questions 43

How does the dynamically-learned MAC address feature function?

Options:

A.  

The CAM table is empty until ingress traffic arrives at each port

B.  

Switches dynamically learn MAC addresses of each connecting CAM table.

C.  

The ports are restricted and learn up to a maximum of 10 dynamically-learned addresses

D.  

It requires a minimum number of secure MAC addresses to be filled dynamically

Discussion 0
Questions 44

A network administrator needs to aggregate 4 ports into a single logical link which must negotiate layer 2 connectivity to ports on another switch. What must be configured when using active mode on both sides of the connection?

Options:

A.  

802.1q trunks

B.  

Cisco vPC

C.  

LLDP

D.  

LACP

Discussion 0
Questions 45

What is a practice that protects a network from VLAN hopping attacks?

Options:

A.  

Enable dynamic ARP inspection

B.  

Configure an ACL to prevent traffic from changing VLANs

C.  

Change native VLAN to an unused VLAN ID

D.  

Implement port security on internet-facing VLANs

Discussion 0
Questions 46

Which command must be entered to configure a DHCP relay?

Options:

A.  

ip helper-address

B.  

ip address dhcp

C.  

ip dhcp pool

D.  

ip dhcp relay

Discussion 0
Questions 47

An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2- PSK. Which cipher fulfills the configuration requirement?

Options:

A.  

WEP

B.  

RC4

C.  

AES

D.  

TKIP

Discussion 0
Questions 48

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 is running three different routing protocols. Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that it receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1?

Options:

A.  

longest prefix

B.  

metric

C.  

cost

D.  

administrative distance

Discussion 0
Questions 49

A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet?

Options:

A.  

ip route 10.10.1.0 255.255.255.240 10.10.255.1

B.  

ip route 10.10.1.16 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1

C.  

ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1

D.  

ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.254 10.10.255.1

Discussion 0
Questions 50

Which two components are needed to create an Ansible script that configures a VLAN on a switch? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

cookbook

B.  

task

C.  

playbook

D.  

model

E.  

recipe

Discussion 0
Questions 51

How does a Cisco Unified Wireless network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap?

Options:

A.  

It alternates automatically between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz on adjacent access points

B.  

It allows the administrator to assign channels on a per-device or per-interface basis.

C.  

It segregates devices from different manufacturers onto different channels.

D.  

It analyzes client load and background noise and dynamically assigns a channel.

Discussion 0
Questions 52

A network analyst is tasked with configure the date and time on a router using EXEC mode. The date must be set to 12:00am. Which command should be used?

Options:

A.  

Clock timezone

B.  

Clock summer-time-recurring

C.  

Clock summer-time date

D.  

Clock set

Discussion 0
Questions 53

Which type of IPv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as IPv4 public address?

Options:

A.  

global unicast

B.  

link-local

C.  

unique local

D.  

multicast

Discussion 0
Questions 54

Drag and drop the application protocols from the left onto the transport protocols that it uses on the right

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 55

A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path?

Options:

A.  

cost

B.  

administrative distance

C.  

metric

D.  

as-path

Discussion 0
Questions 56

Refer to the exhibit

.

After configuring a new static route on the CPE. the engineer entered this series of commands to verify that the new configuration is operating normally When is the static default route installed into the routing table?

Options:

A.  

when 203 0 113.1 is no longer reachable as a next hop B. when the default route learned over external BGP becomes invalid

B.  

when a route to 203.0 113 1 is learned via BGP

C.  

when the default route over external BGP changes its next hop

Discussion 0
Questions 57

What is a similarity OM3 and OM4 fiber optical cable?

Options:

A.  

Both have a 62.5 micron core diameter.

B.  

Both have a 50 micron core diameter.

C.  

Both have a 100 micron core diameter.

D.  

Both have a 9 micron core diameter.

Discussion 0
Questions 58

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer assigns IP addressing to the current VLAN with three PCs. The configuration must also account for the expansion of 30 additional VLANS using the same Class C subnet for subnetting and host count. Which command set fulfills the request while reserving address space for the expected growth?

Options:

A.  

Switch(config)#interface vlan 10Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 255.255.255.252

B.  

Switch(config)#interface vlan 10Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 255.255.255.248

C.  

Switch(config)#interface vlan 10Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 255.255.255.0

D.  

Switch(config)#interface vlan 10Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 255.255.255.128

Discussion 0
Questions 59

Which protocol is used in Software Defined Access (SDA) to provide a tunnel between two edge nodes in different fabrics?

Options:

A.  

Generic Router Encapsulation (GRE)

B.  

Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)

C.  

Virtual Extensible LAN (VXLAN)

D.  

Point-to-Point Protocol

Discussion 0
Questions 60

What is the purpose of configuring different levels of syslog for different devices on the network?

Options:

A.  

to rate-limit messages for different severity levels from each device

B.  

to set the severity of syslog messages from each device

C.  

to identify the source from which each syslog message originated

D.  

to control the number of syslog messages from different devices that are stored locally

Discussion 0
Questions 61

A network engineer must configure an interface with IIP address 10.10.10.145 and a subnet mask equivalent to 11111111.11111111.11111111.11111000. Which subnet mask must the engineer use?

Options:

A.  

/29

B.  

/30

C.  

/27

D.  

/28

Discussion 0
Questions 62

Refer to the exhibit.

How many objects are present in the given JSON-encoded data?

Options:

A.  

one

B.  

four

C.  

seven

D.  

nine

Discussion 0
Questions 63

Drag and drop the AAA features from the left onto the corresponding AAA security services on the right. Not all options are used.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 64

Refer to the exhibit.

Routers R1 and R2 are configured with RIP as the dynamic routing protocol. A network engineer must configure R1 with a floating static route to serve as a backup route to network 192.168.23. Which command must the engineer configure on R1?

Options:

A.  

ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.13.3 100

B.  

ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.13.3 121

C.  

ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.255 192.168.13.3 121

D.  

ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.13.3

Discussion 0
Questions 65

Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?

Options:

A.  

disabling TPC so that access points can negotiate signal levels with their attached wireless devices.

B.  

setting the maximum data rate to 54 Mbps on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller

C.  

allocating nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another

D.  

configuring access points to provide clients with a maximum of 5 Mbps

Discussion 0
Questions 66

When a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination MAC address, how is the frame handled?

Options:

A.  

broadcast to all ports on the switch

B.  

flooded to all ports except the origination port

C.  

forwarded to the first available port

D.  

inspected and dropped by the switch

Discussion 0
Questions 67

What is a reason to implement IPv4 private addressing?

Options:

A.  

Reduce the risk of a network security breach

B.  

Comply with PCI regulations

C.  

Comply with local law

D.  

Reduce the size of the forwarding table on network routers

Discussion 0
Questions 68

What is a benefit of using private IPv4 addressing?

Options:

A.  

Multiple companies can use the same addresses without conflicts.

B.  

Direct connectivity is provided to internal hosts from outside an enterprise network.

C.  

Communication to the internet Is reachable without the use of NAT.

D.  

All external hosts are provided with secure communication to the Internet.

Discussion 0
Questions 69

Refer to the exhibit. Local access for R4 must be established and these requirements must be met:

• Only Telnet access is allowed.

• The enable password must be stored securely.

• The enable password must be applied in plain text.

• Full access to R4 must be permitted upon successful login.

Which configuration script meets the requirements?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option

B.  

Option

C.  

Option

D.  

Option

Discussion 0
Questions 70

What is the function of northbound API?

Options:

A.  

It upgrades software and restores files.

B.  

It relies on global provisioning and configuration.

C.  

It supports distributed processing for configuration.

D.  

It provide a path between an SDN controller and network applications.

Discussion 0
Questions 71

Drag and drop the Wi-Fi terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 72

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring a Layer 3 port-channel interface with LACP. The configuration on the first device is complete, and it is verified that both interfaces have registered the neighbor device in the CDP table. Which task on the neighbor device enables the new port channel to come up without negotiating the channel?

Options:

A.  

Change the EtherChannel mode on the neighboring interfaces to auto.

B.  

Configure the IP address of the neighboring device.

C.  

Bring up the neighboring interfaces using the no shutdown command.

D.  

Modify the static EtherChannel configuration of the device to passive mode.

Discussion 0
Questions 73

What must be considered for a locally switched FlexConnect AP if the VLANs that are used by the AP and client access are different?

Options:

A.  

The APs must be connected to the switch with multiple links in LAG mode

B.  

The switch port mode must be set to trunk

C.  

The native VLAN must match the management VLAN of the AP

D.  

IEEE 802.10 trunking must be disabled on the switch port.

Discussion 0
Questions 74

When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller, what is the minimum number of characters that is required in ASCII format?

Options:

A.  

6

B.  

8

C.  

12

D.  

18

Discussion 0
Questions 75

Refer to the exhibit.

What is represented by the word " switch’’ in line 2 of the JSON schema?

Options:

A.  

array

B.  

key

C.  

value

D.  

object

Discussion 0
Questions 76

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the prefix length for the route that router1 will use to reach host A?

Options:

A.  

/25

B.  

/27

C.  

/28

D.  

/29

Discussion 0
Questions 77

Why implement VRRP?

Options:

A.  

to provide end users with a virtual gateway in a multivendor network

B.  

to leverage a weighting scheme to provide uninterrupted service

C.  

to detect link failures without the overhead of Bidirectional Forwarding Detection

D.  

to hand over to end users the autodiscovery of virtual gateways

Discussion 0
Questions 78

Refer to the exhibit.

The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the loopback3 interface of the Washington router.

Options:

A.  

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::2

B.  

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1

C.  

ipv6 route 2000:3 123 s0/0/0

D.  

ipv6 route 2000::3/128 2023::3

E.  

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 s0/0/1

Discussion 0
Questions 79

Refer to the exhibit.

Drag and drop the learned prefixes from the left onto the subnet masks on the right

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 80

Which two protocols are used by an administrator for authentication and configuration on access points?

Options:

A.  

Kerberos

B.  

802.1Q

C.  

802.1x

D.  

TACACS+

E.  

RADIUS

Discussion 0
Questions 81

Which IPv6 address range is suitable for anycast addresses for distributed services such DHCP or DNS?

Options:

A.  

FF00:1/12

B.  

2001:db8:0234:ca3e::1/128

C.  

2002:db84:3f37:ca98:be05:8/64

D.  

FE80::1/10

Discussion 0
Questions 82

Refer to the exhibit.

The image server and client A are running an application that transfers an extremely high volume of data between the two. An engineer is configuring a dedicated circuit between R1 and R2. Which set of commands must the engineer apply to the routers so that only traffic between the image server and client A is forces to use the new circuit?

Options:

A.  

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.13.10 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.6R2(config)#ip route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.5

B.  

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.13.10 255.255.255.128 10.10.10.6R2(config)#lp route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.0 10.10.10.5

C.  

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.13.10 255.255.255.252 10.10.10.6R2(config)#tp route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.252 10.10.10.5

D.  

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.13.10 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.2R2(config)#ip route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.1

Discussion 0
Questions 83

Drag and drop the statements about access-point modes from the left onto the corresponding modes on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 84

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration for RTR-1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 85

What is a reason to configure a trunk port that connects to a WLC distribution port?

Options:

A.  

Eliminate redundancy with a link failure in the data path.

B.  

Allow multiple VLAN to be used in the data path.

C.  

Provide redundancy if there is a link failure for out-of-band management.

D.  

Permit multiple VLANs to provide out-of-band management.

Discussion 0
Questions 86

PC1 tries to send traffic to newly installed PC2. The PC2 MAC address is not listed in the MAC address table of the switch, so the switch sends the packet to all ports in the same VLAN Which switching concept does this describe?

Options:

A.  

MAC address aging

B.  

MAC address table

C.  

frame flooding

D.  

spanning-tree protocol

Discussion 0
Questions 87

Two switches have been implemented and all interfaces are at the default configuration level. A trunk link must be implemented between two switches with these requirements:

• using an industry-standard trunking protocol

• permitting VLANs 1 -10 and denying other VLANs

How must the interconnecting ports be configured?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 88

Drag and drop the statements about AAA services from the left onto the corresponding AAA services on the right Not all options are used.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 89

What is a function of an endpoint?

Options:

A.  

It is used directly by an individual user to access network services

B.  

It passes unicast communication between hosts in a network

C.  

It transmits broadcast traffic between devices in the same VLAN

D.  

It provide security between trusted and untrusted sections of the network.

Discussion 0
Questions 90

In a cloud-computing environment what is rapid elasticity?

Options:

A.  

control and monitoring of resource consumption by the tenant

B.  

automatic adjustment of capacity based on need

C.  

pooling resources in a multitenant model based on need

D.  

self-service of computing resources by the tenant

Discussion 0
Questions 91

What are two characteristics of a small office / home office connection environment? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

It requires 10Gb ports on all uplinks.

B.  

It supports between 50 and 100 users.

C.  

It supports between 1 and 50 users.

D.  

It requires a core, distribution, and access layer architecture.

E.  

A router port connects to a broadband connection.

Discussion 0
Questions 92

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two values does router R1 use to determine the best path to reach destinations in network 10.0.0.0/8? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

longest prefix match

B.  

highest administrative distance

C.  

highest metric

D.  

lowest metric

E.  

lowest cost to reach the next hop

Discussion 0
Questions 93

When the LAG configuration is updated on a Cisco WLC which additional task must be performed when changes are complete?

Options:

A.  

Flush all MAC addresses from the WLC

B.  

Re-associate the WLC with the access point.

C.  

Re-enable the WLC interfaces

D.  

Reboot the WLC

Discussion 0
Questions 94

Refer to the exhibit.

What is represented by " R1 " and " SW1 " within the JSON output?

Options:

A.  

key

B.  

array

C.  

value

D.  

object

Discussion 0
Questions 95

Which two server types support domain name to IP address resolution? (Choose two >

Options:

A.  

ESX host

B.  

resolver

C.  

web

D.  

file transfer

E.  

authentication

Discussion 0
Questions 96

What is a link-local all-nodes IPv6 multicast address?

Options:

A.  

ff02:0:0:0:0:0:0:1

B.  

2004:31c:73d9:683e:255::

C.  

fffe:034:0dd:45d6:789e::

D.  

fe80:4433:034:0dd::2

Discussion 0
Questions 97

Refer to the exhibit.

The P2P blocking action option is disabled on the WLC.

Options:

A.  

Enable the Static IP Tunneling option.

B.  

Disable the Coverage Hole Detection option.

C.  

Check the DHCP Addr. Assignment check box.

D.  

Set the P2P Blocking Action option to Forward-UpStream.

Discussion 0
Questions 98

Why is a first-hop redundancy protocol implemented?

Options:

A.  

to protect against default gateway failures

B.  

to prevent loops in a network

C.  

to enable multiple switches to operate as a single unit

D.  

to provide load-sharing for a multilink segment

Discussion 0
Questions 99

What is the purpose of the Cisco DNA Center controller?

Options:

A.  

to secure physical access to a data center

B.  

to scan a network and generate a Layer 2 network diagram

C.  

to securely manage and deploy network devices

D.  

to provide Layer 3 services to autonomous access points

Discussion 0
Questions 100

What are two features of the DHCP relay agent? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

assigns DNS locally and then forwards request to DHCP server

B.  

permits one IP helper command under an individual Layer 3 interface

C.  

allows only MAC-to-IP reservations to determine the local subnet of a client

D.  

minimizes the necessary number of DHCP servers

E.  

configured under the Layer 3 interface of a router on the client subnet

Discussion 0
Questions 101

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets.

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 102

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer executes the show ip route command on router D. What is the next hop to network 192.168.1.0/24 and why?

Options:

A.  

The next hop is 10.0.2.1 because it uses distance vector routing

B.  

The next hop is 10.0.2.1 because it is a link-state routing protocol

C.  

The next hop is 10.0.0.1 because it has a better administrative distance

D.  

The next hop is 10.0.0.1 because it has a higher metric.

Discussion 0
Questions 103

Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic from R1 to the 10.10.2.0/24 subnet uses 192.168.1.2 as its next hop. An network engineer wants to update the R1 configuration so that traffic with destination 10.10.2.1 passes through router R3, and all other traffic to the 10.10.20/24 subnet passes through r2. Which command must be used?

Options:

A.  

ip route 10.10.2.1 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.4 115

B.  

ip route 10.10.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.4 100

C.  

ip route 10.10.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.4 115

D.  

ip route 10.10.2.1 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.4 100

Discussion 0
Questions 104

Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization??

Options:

A.  

backing up syslogs at a remote location

B.  

configuring a password for the console port

C.  

configuring enable passwords on network devices

D.  

setting up IP cameras to monitor key infrastructure

Discussion 0
Questions 105

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 has just received a packet from host A that is destined to host B. Which route in the routing table is used by R1 to reach host B?

Options:

A.  

10.10.13.0/25 [108/0] via 10.10.10.10

B.  

10.10.13.0/25 [110/2] via 10.10.10.2

C.  

10.10.13.0/25 [110/2] via 10.10.10.6

D.  

10.10.13.0/25 [1/0] via 10.10.10.2

Discussion 0
Questions 106

Under which condition is TCP preferred over UDP?

Options:

A.  

UDP is used when low latency is optimal, and TCP is used when latency is tolerable.

B.  

TCP is used when dropped data is more acceptable, and UDP is used when data is accepted out- of-order.

C.  

TCP is used when data reliability is critical, and UDP is used when missing packets are acceptable.

D.  

UDP is used when data is highly interactive, and TCP is used when data is time-sensitive.

Discussion 0
Questions 107

Refer to the exhibit.

How must OSPF be configured on the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface of the neighbor device to achieve.

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 108

The address block 192 168 32 0/24 must be subnetted into smaller networks The engineer must meet these requirements

• Create 8 new subnets

• Each subnet must accommodate 30 hosts

• Interface VLAN 10 must use the last usable IP in the first new subnet

• A Layer 3 interface is used

Which configuration must be applied to the interface?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 109

A router has two static routes to the same destination network under the same OSPF process. How does the router forward packets to the destination if the next-hop devices are different?

Options:

A.  

The router chooses the route with the oldest age.

B.  

The router load-balances traffic over all routes to the destination.

C.  

The router chooses the next hop with the lowest MAC address.

D.  

The router chooses the next hop with the lowest IP address.

Discussion 0
Questions 110

NO: 346

What must a network administrator consider when deciding whether to configure a new wireless network with APs in autonomous mode or APs running in cloud-based mode?

Autonomous mode APs are less dependent on an underlay but more complex to maintain than APs in cloud-based mode.

Cloud-based mode APs rely on underlays and are more complex to maintain than APs in autonomous mode.

Options:

A.  

Cloud-based mode APs are easy to deploy but harder to automate than APs in autonomous mode.

B.  

Autonomous mode APs are easy to deploy and automate than APs in cloud-based mode.

Discussion 0
Questions 111

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must provide configured IP addressing details to investigate a firewall rule Issue. Which subnet and mask Identify what is configured on the en0 interface?

Options:

A.  

10.8.0.0/16

B.  

10.8.64.0/18

C.  

10.8.128.0/19

D.  

10.8.138.0/24

Discussion 0
Questions 112

hostname CPE

service password-encryption

ip domain name ccna.cisco.com

ip name-server 198.51.100.210

crypto key generate rsa modulus 1024

username admin privilege 15 secret s0m3s3cr3t

line vty 0 4

transport input ssh

login local

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer executed the script and added commands that were not necessary for SSH and now must remove the commands. Which two commands must be executed to correct the configuration? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

no ip name-server 198.51.100.210

B.  

no login local

C.  

no service password-encryption

D.  

no ip domain name ccna.cisco.com

E.  

no hostname CPE

Discussion 0
Questions 113

The clients and DHCP server reside on different subnets. Which command must be used to forward requests and replies between clients on the 10.10.0.1/24 subnet and the DHCP server at 192.168.10.1?

Options:

A.  

ip route 192.168.10.1

B.  

ip default-gateway 192.168.10.1

C.  

ip helper-address 192.168.10.1

D.  

ip dhcp address 192.168.10.1

Discussion 0
Questions 114

An engineer must configure a core router with a floating static default route to the backup router at 10.200.0.2.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 115

When DHCP is configured on a router, which command must be entered so the default gateway is automatically distributed?

Options:

A.  

default-router

B.  

default-gateway

C.  

ip helper-address

D.  

dns-server

Discussion 0
Questions 116

What describes the operation of virtual machines?

Options:

A.  

Virtual machines are responsible for managing and allocating host hardware resources

B.  

In a virtual machine environment, physical servers must run one operating system at a time.

C.  

Virtual machines are the physical hardware that support a virtual environment.

D.  

Virtual machines are operating system instances that are decoupled from server hardware

Discussion 0
Questions 117

Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching?

Options:

A.  

WSA

B.  

Firepower

C.  

ASA

D.  

FireSIGHT

Discussion 0
Questions 118

Which two features introduced in SNMPv2 provide the ability to retrieve large amounts of data in one request

Options:

A.  

Get

B.  

GetNext

C.  

Set

D.  

GetBulk

E.  

Inform

Discussion 0
Questions 119

Which type of address is shared by routers in a HSRP implementation and used by hosts on the subnet as their default gateway address?

Options:

A.  

multicast address

B.  

loopback IP address

C.  

virtual IP address

D.  

broadcast address

Discussion 0
Questions 120

What does a switch use to build its MAC address table?

Options:

A.  

VTP

B.  

DTP

C.  

egress traffic

D.  

ingress traffic

Discussion 0
Questions 121

Refer to the exhibit.

An access list is required to permit traffic from any host on interface G0/0 and deny traffic from interface G/0/1. Which access list must be applied?

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 122

An engineer must configure a /30 subnet between two routers. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 123

What is the benefit of using FHRP?

Options:

A.  

reduced management overhead on network routers

B.  

balancing traffic across multiple gateways in proportion to their loads

C.  

higher degree of availability

D.  

reduced ARP traffic on the network

Discussion 0
Questions 124

An engineer must configure interswitch VLAN communication between a Cisco switch and a third-party switch. Which action should be taken?

Options:

A.  

configure IEEE 802.1p

B.  

configure IEEE 802.1q

C.  

configure ISL

D.  

configure DSCP

Discussion 0
Questions 125

Drag the IPv6 DNS record types from the left onto the description on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 126

Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client?

Options:

A.  

ip address dhcp

B.  

ip helper-address

C.  

ip dhcp pool

D.  

ip dhcp client

Discussion 0
Questions 127

Drag and drop the descriptions of file-transfer protocols from the left onto the correct protocols on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 128

Refer to the exhibit.

What two conclusions should be made about this configuration? (Choose two)

Options:

A.  

The designated port is FastEthernet 2/1

B.  

This is a root bridge

C.  

The spanning-tree mode is Rapid PVST+

D.  

The spanning-tree mode is PVST+

E.  

The root port is FastEthernet 2/1

Discussion 0
Questions 129

Refer to the exhibit.

PC1 is trying to ping PC3 for the first time and sends out an ARP to S1 Which action is taken by S1?

Options:

A.  

It forwards it out G0/3 only

B.  

It is flooded out every port except G0/0.

C.  

It drops the frame.

D.  

It forwards it out interface G0/2 only.

Discussion 0
Questions 130

What is a DHCP client?

Options:

A.  

a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically

B.  

a server that dynamically assigns IP addresses to hosts

C.  

a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP address

D.  

a router that statically assigns IP addresses to hosts

Discussion 0
Questions 131

What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?

Options:

A.  

The Layer 2 switch drops the received frame

B.  

The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN.

C.  

The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to CPU for destination MAC address learning.

D.  

The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to its MAC address table

Discussion 0
Questions 132

Which device performs stateful inspection of traffic?

Options:

A.  

firewall

B.  

switch

C.  

access point

D.  

wireless controller

Discussion 0
Questions 133

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator must permit SSH access to remotely manage routers in a network. The operations team resides on the 10.20.1.0/25 network. Which command will accomplish this task?

Options:

A.  

access-list 2699 permit udp 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

B.  

no access-list 2699 deny tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.127 eq 22

C.  

access-list 2699 permit tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255 eq 22

D.  

no access-list 2699 deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

Discussion 0
Questions 134

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command provides this output?

Options:

A.  

show ip route

B.  

show ip interface

C.  

show interface

D.  

show cdp neighbor

Discussion 0
Questions 135

An engineering team asks an implementer to configure syslog for warning conditions and error conditions. Which command does the implementer configure to achieve the desired result?

Options:

A.  

logging trap 5

B.  

logging trap 2

C.  

logging trap 4

D.  

logging trap 3

Discussion 0
Questions 136

Refer to the exhibit.

How must router A be configured so that it only sends Cisco Discovery Protocol Information to router C?

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 137

A network administrator must enable DHCP services between two sites. What must be configured for the router to pass DHCPDISCOVER messages on to the server?

Options:

A.  

a DHCP Relay Agent

B.  

DHCP Binding

C.  

a DHCP Pool

D.  

DHCP Snooping

Discussion 0
Questions 138

Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?

Options:

A.  

allows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without conflicts

B.  

provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network

C.  

ensures that NAT is not required to reach the internet with private range addressing

D.  

enables secure communications to the internet for all external hosts

Discussion 0
Questions 139

What are two benefits of controller-based networking compared to traditional networking?

Options:

A.  

controller-based increases network bandwidth usage, while traditional lightens the load on the network.

B.  

controller-based inflates software costs, while traditional decreases individual licensing costs

C.  

Controller-based reduces network configuration complexity, while traditional increases the potential for errors

D.  

Controller-based provides centralization of key IT functions. While traditional requires distributed management functions

E.  

controller-based allows for fewer network failure, while traditional increases failure rates.

Discussion 0
Questions 140

What does a router do when configured with the default DNS lookup settings, and a URL is entered on the CLI?

Options:

A.  

initiates a ping request to the URL

B.  

prompts the user to specify the desired IP address

C.  

continuously attempts to resolve the URL until the command is cancelled

D.  

sends a broadcast message in an attempt to resolve the URL

Discussion 0
Questions 141

Which two protocols are supported on service-port interfaces? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

RADIUS

B.  

TACACS+

C.  

SCP

D.  

Telnet

E.  

SSH

Discussion 0
Questions 142

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator must turn off the Cisco Discovery Protocol on the port configured with address last usable address in the 10.0.0.0/30 subnet. Which command set meets the requirement?

Options:

A.  

interface gi0/1no cdp enable

B.  

interface gi0/1clear cdp table

C.  

interface gi0/0no cdp advertise-v2

D.  

interface gi0/0no cdp run

Discussion 0
Questions 143

Drag and drop the SNMP components from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 144

Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two)

Options:

A.  

It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets

B.  

It can identify different flows with a high level of granularity

C.  

It guarantees the delivery of high-priority packets

D.  

It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up

E.  

It supports protocol discovery

Discussion 0
Questions 145

An engineer is asked to protect unused ports that are configured in the default VLAN on a switch.

Which two steps will fulfill the request? (Choose two)

Options:

A.  

Configure the ports in an EtherChannel.

B.  

Administratively shut down the ports

C.  

Configure the port type as access and place in VLAN 99

D.  

Configure the ports as trunk ports

E.  

Enable the Cisco Discovery Protocol

Discussion 0
Questions 146

When implementing a router as a DHCP server, which two features must be configured ' ? (Choose two)

Options:

A.  

relay agent information

B.  

database agent

C.  

address pool

D.  

smart-relay

E.  

manual bindings

Discussion 0
Questions 147

What uses HTTP messages to transfer data to applications residing on different hosts?

Options:

A.  

OpenFlow

B.  

OpenStack

C.  

OpFlex

D.  

REST

Discussion 0
Questions 148

Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto the correct usable host ranges on the right

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 149

What is an appropriate use for private IPv4 addressing?

Options:

A.  

on the public-facing interface of a firewall

B.  

to allow hosts inside to communicate in both directions with hosts outside the organization

C.  

on internal hosts that stream data solely to external resources

D.  

on hosts that communicates only with other internal hosts

Discussion 0
Questions 150

What occurs when overlapping Wi-Fi channels are implemented?

Options:

A.  

The wireless network becomes vulnerable to unauthorized access.

B.  

Wireless devices are unable to distinguish between different SSIDs

C.  

Users experience poor wireless network performance.

D.  

Network communications are open to eavesdropping.

Discussion 0
Questions 151

Refer to the exhibit.

Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode?

Options:

A.  

adminadmin123

B.  

default

C.  

testing1234

D.  

cisco123

Discussion 0
Questions 152

Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-table entry to 192.168.1.1. Which configuration accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 153

Refer to the exhibit.

If OSPF is running on this network, how does Router 2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13/25 at Site A?

Options:

A.  

It sends packets out of interface Fa0/2 only.

B.  

It sends packets out of interface Fa0/1 only.

C.  

It cannot send packets to 10.10.13 128/25

D.  

It load-balances traffic out of Fa0/1 and Fa0/2

Discussion 0
Questions 154

What are two roles of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)? (Choose two)

Options:

A.  

The DHCP server offers the ability to exclude specific IP addresses from a pool of IP addresses

B.  

The DHCP client can request up to four DNS server addresses

C.  

The DHCP server assigns IP addresses without requiring the client to renew them

D.  

The DHCP server leases client IP addresses dynamically.

E.  

The DHCP client maintains a pool of IP addresses it can assign.

Discussion 0
Questions 155

How is the native VLAN secured in a network?

Options:

A.  

separate from other VLANs within the administrative domain

B.  

give it a value in the private VLAN range

C.  

assign it as VLAN 1

D.  

configure it as a different VLAN ID on each end of the link

Discussion 0
Questions 156

Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two)

Options:

A.  

YAML

B.  

JSON

C.  

EBCDIC

D.  

SGML

E.  

XML

Discussion 0
Questions 157

How do servers connect to the network in a virtual environment?

Options:

A.  

wireless to an access point that is physically connected to the network

B.  

a cable connected to a physical switch on the network

C.  

a virtual switch that links to an access point that is physically connected to the network

D.  

a software switch on a hypervisor that is physically connected to the network

Discussion 0
Questions 158

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct configuration-management technologies on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 159

What are two fundamentals of virtualization? (Choose two)

Options:

A.  

The environment must be configured with one hypervisor that serves solely as a network manager to monitor SNMP traffic

B.  

It allows logical network devices to move traffic between virtual machines and the rest of the physical network

C.  

It allows multiple operating systems and applications to run independently on one physical server.

D.  

It allows a physical router to directly connect NICs from each virtual machine into the network

E.  

It requires that some servers, virtual machines and network gear reside on the Internet

Discussion 0
Questions 160

A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software which is only used occasionally Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend?

Options:

A.  

infrastructure-as-a-service

B.  

platform-as-a-service

C.  

business process as service to support different types of service

D.  

software-as-a-service

Discussion 0
Questions 161

Which command on a port enters the forwarding state immediately when a PC is connected to it?

Options:

A.  

switch(config)#spanning-tree portfast default

B.  

switch(config)#spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default

C.  

switch(config-if)#spanning-tree portfast trunk

D.  

switch(config-if)#no spanning-tree portfast

Discussion 0
Questions 162

When configuring a WLAN with WPA2 PSK in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI, which two formats are available to select? (Choose two)

Options:

A.  

ASCII

B.  

base64

C.  

binary

D.  

decimal

E.  

hexadecimal

Discussion 0
Questions 163

What software-defined architecture plane assists network devices with making packet-forwarding decisions by providing Layer 2 reachability and Layer 3 routing information?

Options:

A.  

data plane

B.  

control plane

C.  

policy plane

D.  

management plane

Discussion 0
Questions 164

What criteria is used first during me root port selection process?

Options:

A.  

local port ID

B.  

lowest path cost to the root bridge

C.  

lowest neighbor ' s bridge ID

D.  

lowest neighbor ' s port ID

Discussion 0
Questions 165

Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32?

Options:

A.  

floating static route

B.  

host route

C.  

default route

D.  

network route

Discussion 0
Questions 166

What are two functions of a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two)

Options:

A.  

acts as a central point for association and authentication servers

B.  

selects the best route between networks on a WAN

C.  

moves packets within a VLAN

D.  

moves packets between different VLANs

E.  

makes forwarding decisions based on the MAC address of a packet

Discussion 0
Questions 167

Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of configuration is represented in the output?

Options:

A.  

Ansible

B.  

JSON

C.  

Chef

D.  

Puppet

Discussion 0
Questions 168

Refer to the exhibit.

Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 169

Which WAN topology provides a combination of simplicity quality, and availability?

Options:

A.  

partial mesh

B.  

full mesh

C.  

point-to-point

D.  

hub-and-spoke

Discussion 0
Questions 170

What is a DHCP client?

Options:

A.  

a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP address

B.  

a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically

C.  

a server that dynamically assigns IP addresses to hosts.

D.  

a router that statically assigns IP addresses to hosts.

Discussion 0
Questions 171

Drag and drop the QoS congestion management terms from the left onto the description on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 172

What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate?

Options:

A.  

Layer 2 switch

B.  

load balancer

C.  

firewall

D.  

LAN controller

Discussion 0
Questions 173

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration on RTR-1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?

Options:

A.  

access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22 access-list 100 permit ip any anyinterface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip access-group 100 in

B.  

access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22 access-list 100 permit ip any anyline vty 0 15 ip access-group 100 in

C.  

access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 23 access-list 100 permit ip any anyinterface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip access-group 100 in

D.  

access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 23 access-list 100 permit ip any anyline vty 0 15 ip access-group 100 in

Discussion 0
Questions 174

Drag and drop the AAA functions from the left onto the correct AAA services on the right

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 175

Which network action occurs within the data plane?

Options:

A.  

compare the destination IP address to the IP routing table.

B.  

run routing protocols (OSPF, EIGRP, RIP, BGP)

C.  

make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC

D.  

reply to an incoming ICMP echo request

Discussion 0
Questions 176

What is recommended for the wireless infrastructure design of an organization?

Options:

A.  

group access points together to increase throughput on a given channel

B.  

configure the first three access points are configured to use Channels 1, 6, and 11

C.  

include a least two access points on nonoverlapping channels to support load balancing

D.  

assign physically adjacent access points to the same Wi-Fi channel

Discussion 0
Questions 177

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets?

Options:

A.  

TCP is a connectionless protocol that does not provide reliable delivery of data, UDP is a connection-oriented protocol that uses sequencing to provide reliable delivery.

B.  

TCP does not guarantee delivery or error checking to ensure that there is no corruption of data UDP provides message acknowledgement and retransmits data if lost.

C.  

TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking for sequencing

D.  

TCP uses windowing to deliver packets reliably; UDP provides reliable message transfer between hosts by establishing a three-way handshake

Discussion 0
Questions 178

What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?

Options:

A.  

traverse the Internet when an outbound ACL is applied

B.  

issued by IANA in conjunction with an autonomous system number

C.  

composed of up to 65.536 available addresses

D.  

used without tracking or registration

Discussion 0
Questions 179

What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol to relay forwarding changes to a southbound API?

Options:

A.  

OpenFlow

B.  

Java

C.  

REST

D.  

XML

Discussion 0
Questions 180

Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two)

Options:

A.  

The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN.

B.  

The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router

C.  

Each router has a different IP address both routers act as the default gateway on the LAN, and traffic is load balanced between them.D The two routers synchronize configurations to provide consistent packet forwarding

D.  

The two routed share the same IP address, and default gateway traffic is load-balanced between them

Discussion 0
Questions 181

Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?

Options:

A.  

Configure the version of SSH

B.  

Configure VTY access.

C.  

Create a user with a password.

D.  

Assign a DNS domain name

Discussion 0
Questions 182

Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two)

Options:

A.  

The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exiting interface by 256.

B.  

The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor.

C.  

The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route

D.  

The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the local router of the bandwidth on the link

E.  

The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route

Discussion 0
Questions 183

How does WPA3 improve security?

Options:

A.  

It uses SAE for authentication.

B.  

It uses a 4-way handshake for authentication.

C.  

It uses RC4 for encryption.

D.  

It uses TKIP for encryption.

Discussion 0
Questions 184

When a WLAN with WPA2 PSK is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller GUI which format is supported?

Options:

A.  

Unicode

B.  

base64

C.  

decimal

D.  

ASCII

Discussion 0
Questions 185

How are the switches in a spine-and-leaf topology interconnected?

Options:

A.  

Each leaf switch is connected to one of the spine switches.

B.  

Each leaf switch is connected to two spine switches, making a loop.

C.  

Each leaf switch is connected to each spine switch.

D.  

Each leaf switch is connected to a central leaf switch, then uplinked to a core spine switch.

Discussion 0
Questions 186

All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.

The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.

1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

Using the second subnet

• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1

• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102

2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

c Using the second subnet

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on e0/0 on Sw101

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on eO/O on swi02

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 187

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured

1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends

2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.

4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 188

IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:

1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.

2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.

3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.

4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 189

Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.

The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:

VLAN 110: MARKETING

VLAN 210: FINANCE

1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.

2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 190

All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.

1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.

2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.

3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.

4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.

5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 191

IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.

1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.

2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.

3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.

4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 192

All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and

inaccessible. R4 ' s WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.

Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.

1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to

reach only PCI on R4 ' s LAN

2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take

an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along

the primary path

3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 193

Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.

1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.

2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.

3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.

4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 194

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,

and the network connectivity between them must be configured.

I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it

between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and

Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.

2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.

4. Configure VLAN ' MONITORING ' as the untagged VLAN of the

EtherChannel.

==================

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 195

Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.

1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.

2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.

3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 196

Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.

1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.

2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.

3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.

4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.

5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 197

Refer to Exhibit.

Rotor to the exhibit. The IP address configurations must be completed on the DC-1 and HQ-1 routers based on these requirements:

DC-1 Gi1/0 must be the last usable address on a /30

DC-1 Gi1/1 must be the first usable address on a /29

DC-1 Gi1/2 must be the last usable address on a /28

HQ-1 Gil/3 must be the last usable address on a /29

Drag and drop the commands from the left onto the destination interfaces on the right. Not all commands are used

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 198

What is the role of disaggregation in controller-based networking?

Options:

A.  

It divides the control-plane and data-plane functions.

B.  

It summarizes the routes between the core and distribution layers of the network topology.

C.  

It enables a network topology to quickly adjust from a ring network to a star network

D.  

It streamlines traffic handling by assigning individual devices to perform either Layer 2 or Layer 3 functions.

Discussion 0
Questions 199

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is updating the R1 configuration to connect a new server to the management network. The PCs on the management network must be blocked from pinging the default gateway of the new server. Which command must be configured on R1 to complete the task?

Options:

A.  

R1(config)#ip route 172.16.2.2 255.255.255.248 gi0/1

B.  

R1(config)#ip route 172.16.2.2 255.255.255.255 gi0/0

C.  

R1(config)#ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.15

D.  

R1(config)#ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.5

Discussion 0
Questions 200

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?

Options:

A.  

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

B.  

ip default-gateway 192.168.2.1

C.  

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.1 10

D.  

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2 10

Discussion 0
Questions 201

Refer to the exhibit. Each router must be configured with the last usable IP address in the subnet. Which configuration fulfills this requirement?

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 202

Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 203

What is the function of " off-the-shelf " switches in a controller-based network?

Options:

A.  

providing a central view of the deployed network

B.  

forwarding packets

C.  

making routing decisions

D.  

setting packet-handling policies

Discussion 0
Questions 204

Which command do you enter so that a switch configured with Rapid PVST + listens and learns for a specific time period?

Options:

A.  

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 max-age 6

B.  

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 hello-time 10

C.  

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096

D.  

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 forward-time 20

Discussion 0
Questions 205

Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization?

Options:

A.  

configuring a password for the console port

B.  

backing up syslogs at a remote location

C.  

configuring enable passwords on network devices

D.  

setting up IP cameras to monitor key infrastructure

Discussion 0
Questions 206

Which plane is centralized by an SDN controller?

Options:

A.  

management-plane

B.  

control-plane

C.  

data-plane

D.  

services-plane

Discussion 0
Questions 207

Which two components comprise part of a PKI? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

preshared key that authenticates connections

B.  

RSA token

C.  

CA that grants certificates

D.  

clear-text password that authenticates connections

E.  

one or more CRLs

Discussion 0
Questions 208

Refer to the exhibit.

The link between PC1 and the switch is up. but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?

Options:

A.  

There is a duplex mismatch on the interface

B.  

There is an issue with the fiber on the switch interface.

C.  

There is a speed mismatch on the interface.

D.  

There is an interface type mismatch

Discussion 0
Questions 209

Which action is taken by the data plane within a network device?

Options:

A.  

forwards traffic to the next hop

B.  

constructs a routing table based on a routing protocol

C.  

provides CLI access to the network device

D.  

looks up an egress interface in the forwarding information base

Discussion 0
Questions 210

What is a zero-day exploit?

Options:

A.  

It is when a new network vulnerability is discovered before a fix is available

B.  

It is when the perpetrator inserts itself in a conversation between two parties and captures or alters data.

C.  

It is when the network is saturated with malicious traffic that overloads resources and bandwidth

D.  

It is when an attacker inserts malicious code into a SQL server.

Discussion 0
Questions 211

What is the purpose of the ip address dhcp command?

Options:

A.  

to configure an Interface as a DHCP server

B.  

to configure an interface as a DHCP helper

C.  

to configure an interface as a DHCP relay

D.  

to configure an interface as a DHCP client

Discussion 0
Questions 212

What is a feature of WPA?

Options:

A.  

802.1x authentication

B.  

preshared key

C.  

TKIP/MIC encryption

D.  

small Wi-Fi application

Discussion 0
Questions 213

Refer to the exhibit.

Site A was recently connected to site B over a new single-mode fiber path. Users at site A report Intermittent connectivity Issues with applications hosted at site B. What is the reason for the problem?

Options:

A.  

Heavy usage is causing high latency.

B.  

An incorrect type of transceiver has been inserted into a device on the link.

C.  

physical network errors are being transmitted between the two sites.

D.  

The wrong cable type was used to make the connection.

Discussion 0
Questions 214

What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two)

Options:

A.  

The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI

B.  

It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers

C.  

It moves the control plane to a central point.

D.  

It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions

E.  

It uses Telnet to report system issues.

Discussion 0
Questions 215

Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 216

An engineer is configuring SSH version 2 exclusively on the R1 router. What is the minimum configuration required to permit remote management using the cryptographic protocol?

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 217

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is asked to insert the new VLAN into the existing trunk without modifying anything previously configured Which command accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.  

switchport trunk allowed vlan 100-104

B.  

switchport trunk allowed vlan add 104

C.  

switchport trunk allowed vlan all

D.  

switchport trunk allowed vlan 104

Discussion 0
Questions 218

Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the VLANs?

Options:

A.  

VLAN numbering

B.  

VLAN DSCP

C.  

VLAN tagging

D.  

VLAN marking

Discussion 0
Questions 219

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands must be added to update the configuration of router R1 so that it accepts only encrypted connections? (Choose two )

Options:

A.  

username CNAC secret R!41!4319115@

B.  

ip ssh version 2

C.  

line vty 0 4

D.  

crypto key generate rsa 1024

E.  

transport input ssh

Discussion 0
Questions 220

What is a requirement for nonoverlapping Wi-Fi channels?

Options:

A.  

different security settings

B.  

discontinuous frequency ranges

C.  

different transmission speeds

D.  

unique SSIDs

Discussion 0
Questions 221

Which two network actions occur within the data plane? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

Add or remove an 802.1Q trunking header.

B.  

Make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC.

C.  

Run routing protocols.

D.  

Match the destination MAC address to the MAC address table.

E.  

Reply to an incoming ICMP echo request.

Discussion 0
Questions 222

A network administrator enabled port security on a switch interface connected to a printer. What is the next configuration action in order to allow the port to learn the MAC address of the printer and insert it into the table automatically?

Options:

A.  

enable dynamic MAC address learning

B.  

implement static MAC addressing.

C.  

enable sticky MAC addressing

D.  

implement auto MAC address learning

Discussion 0
Questions 223

When a client and server are not on the same physical network, which device is used to forward requests and replies between client and server for DHCP?

Options:

A.  

DHCP relay agent

B.  

DHCP server

C.  

DHCPDISCOVER

D.  

DHCPOFFER

Discussion 0
Questions 224

Drag and drop the facts about wireless architectures from the left onto the types of access point on the right. Not all options are used.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 225

Refer to the exhibit.

Web traffic is coming in from the WAN interface. Which route takes precedence when the router is processing traffic destined for the LAN network at 10 0.10.0/24?

Options:

A.  

via next-hop 10.0.1.5

B.  

via next-hop 10 0 1.4

C.  

via next-hop 10.0 1.50

D.  

via next-hop 10.0 1 100

Discussion 0
Questions 226

A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal network. Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign?

Options:

A.  

unique local address

B.  

link-local address

C.  

aggregatable global address

D.  

IPv4-compatible IPv6 address

Discussion 0
Questions 227

Drag and drop the characteristics of networking from the left onto the networking types on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 228

Which QoS traffic handling technique retains excess packets in a queue and reschedules these packets for later transmission when the configured maximum bandwidth has been surpassed?

Options:

A.  

weighted random early detection

B.  

traffic policing

C.  

traffic shaping

D.  

traffic prioritization

Discussion 0
Questions 229

An engineer must configure R1 for a new user account. The account must meet these requirements:

* It must be configured in the local database.

* The username is engineer.

* It must use the strongest password configurable. Which command must the engineer configure on the router?

Options:

A.  

R1 (config)# username engineer2 algorithm-type scrypt secret test2021

B.  

R1(config)# username engineer2 secret 5 password S1$b1Ju$kZbBS1Pyh4QzwXyZ

C.  

R1(config)# username engineer2 privilege 1 password 7 test2021

D.  

R1(config)# username englneer2 secret 4 S1Sb1Ju$kZbBS1Pyh4QzwXyZ

Discussion 0
Questions 230

Refer to the exhibit.

All interfaces are configured with duplex auto and ip ospf network broadcast. Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency and act as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

option D

Discussion 0
Questions 231

What is the difference between IPv6 unicast and anycast addressing?

Options:

A.  

IPv6 anycast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the anycast address, but IPv6 unicast nodes require no special configuration

B.  

IPv6 unicast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the unicast address, but IPv6 anycast nodes require no special configuration

C.  

An individual IPv6 unicast address is supported on a single interface on one node but an IPv6 anycast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes.

D.  

Unlike an IPv6 anycast address, an IPv6 unicast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes

Discussion 0
Questions 232

Which protocol uses the SSL?

Options:

A.  

HTTP

B.  

SSH

C.  

HTTPS

D.  

Telnet

Discussion 0
Questions 233

Drag and drop the elements of a security program from the left onto the corresponding descriptions on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 234

Drag and drop the descriptions of AAA services from the left onto the corresponding services on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 235

What is the collapsed layer in collapsed core architectures?

Options:

A.  

core and WAN

B.  

access and WAN

C.  

distribution and access

D.  

core and distribution

Discussion 0
Questions 236

Refer to the exhibit.

Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802.11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building What must be the configuration of the connection?

Options:

A.  

Select the WPA Policy option with the CCKM option.

B.  

Disable AES encryption.

C.  

Enable Fast Transition and select the FT 802.1x option.

D.  

Enable Fast Transition and select the FT PSK option.

Discussion 0
Questions 237

What is a similarity between 1000BASE-LX and 1000BASE-T standards?

Options:

A.  

Both use the same data-link header and trailer formats

B.  

Both cable types support RJ-45 connectors

C.  

Both cable types support Rj-45 connectors

D.  

Both support up to 550 meters between nodes

Discussion 0
Questions 238

Which QoS queuing method discards or marks packets that exceed the desired bit rate of traffic flow?

Options:

A.  

shaping

B.  

policing

C.  

CBWFQ

D.  

LLQ

Discussion 0
Questions 239

Refer to the exhibit.

Host A sent a data frame destined for host D

What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?

Options:

A.  

It drops the frame from the switch CAM table.

B.  

It floods the frame out of all ports except port Fa0/1.

C.  

It shuts down the port Fa0/1 and places it in err-disable mode.

D.  

It experiences a broadcast storm.

Discussion 0
Questions 240

Refer to the exhibit.

Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 241

Which WAN topology has the highest degree of reliability?

Options:

A.  

full mesh

B.  

Point-to-point

C.  

hub-and-spoke

D.  

router-on-a-stick

Discussion 0
Questions 242

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands must be configured on router R1 to enable the router to accept secure remote-access connections? (Choose two)

Options:

A.  

transport input telnet

B.  

crypto key generate rsa

C.  

ip ssh pubkey-chain

D.  

login console

E.  

username cisco password 0 Cisco

Discussion 0
Questions 243

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is asked to configure router R1 so that it forms an OSPF single-area neighbor relationship with R2. Which command sequence must be implemented to configure the router?

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 244

Refer to the exhibit.

An OSPF neighbor relationship must be configured using these guidelines:

• R1 is only permitted to establish a neighbor with R2

• R1 will never participate in DR elections

• R1 will use a router-id of 10.1.1.1

Which configuration must be used?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option

B.  

Option

C.  

Option

D.  

Option

Discussion 0
Questions 245

Refer to the exhibit.

The DHCP server and clients are connected to the same switch. What is the next step to complete the DHCP configuration to allow clients on VLAN 1 to receive addresses from the DHCP server?

Options:

A.  

Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP client.

B.  

Configure the ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP client.

C.  

Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.

D.  

Configure the Ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.

Discussion 0
Questions 246

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernet0/1 on router R4?

Options:

A.  

interface FastEthernet0/0ip helper-address 10.0.1.1iaccess-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

B.  

interface FastEthernet0/1ip helper-address 10.0.1.1!access-list 100 permit tcp host 10.0.1.1 eq 67 host 10.148.2.1

C.  

interface FastEthernet0/0ip helper-address 10.0.1.1Iaccess-list 100 permit host 10.0.1.1 host 10.148.2.1 eq bootps

D.  

interface FastEthernet0/1ip helper-address 10.0.1.1!access-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

Discussion 0
Questions 247

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring a new router on the network and applied this configuration. Which additional configuration allows the PC to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server?

Options:

A.  

Configure the ip dhcp relay information command under interface Gi0/1.

B.  

Configure the ip dhcp smart-relay command globally on the router

C.  

Configure the ip helper-address 172.16.2.2 command under interface Gi0/0

D.  

Configure the ip address dhcp command under interface Gi0/0

Discussion 0
Questions 248

Why is UDP more suitable than TCP for applications that require low latency, such as VoIP?

Options:

A.  

TCP uses congestion control for efficient packet delivery, and UDP uses flow control mechanisms for the delivery of packets.

B.  

TCP sends an acknowledgment for every packet that is received, and UDP operates without acknowledgments.

C.  

UDP reliably guarantees delivery of all packets, and TCP drops packets under heavy load.

D.  

UDP uses sequencing data for packets to arrive in order, and TCP offers the capability to receive packets in random order.

Discussion 0
Questions 249

When is the PUT method used within HTTP?

Options:

A.  

when a nonidempotent operation is needed

B.  

to update a DNS server

C.  

to display a web site

D.  

when a read-only operation is required

Discussion 0
Questions 250

What are two functions of DHCP servers? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

prevent users from assigning their own IP addresssses to hosts

B.  

assign dynamic IP configurations to hosts in a network

C.  

support centralized IP management

D.  

issue DHCPDISCOVER messages when added to the network

E.  

respond to client DHCPOFFER requests by issuing an IP addressss

Discussion 0
Questions 251

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration is needed to configure a WLAN with WPA2 only and with a password that is 63 characters long?

Options:

A.  

Disable WPA Policy and WPA Encryption and then enable PSK using ASCII.

B.  

Enable PSK and FT PSK and then disable WPA Policy.

C.  

Disable WPA Encryption and then enable FT PSK.

D.  

Enable PSK using Hex format and then disable WPA Policy.

Discussion 0
Questions 252

What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?

Options:

A.  

tracks the number of active TCP connections

B.  

transmits exclusively at half duplex

C.  

offers link bundling to servers

D.  

uses routers to create collision domains

Discussion 0
Questions 253

What is the main capability of multifactor authentication?

Options:

A.  

Identifying permissions for end users using three authentication factors

B.  

Authenticating and authorizing end users using two authentication factors

C.  

Confirming end-user identity using two or more authentication factors

D.  

Verifying end-user access permissions using two authentication factors

Discussion 0
Questions 254

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?

Options:

A.  

Configure the router A interfaces with the highest OSPF priority value within the area.

B.  

Configure router B and router C as OSPF neighbors of router A.

C.  

Configure the OSPF priority on router A with the lowest value between the three routers.

D.  

Configure router A with a fixed OSPF router I

D.  

Discussion 0
Questions 255

Which statement describes virtual machines?

Options:

A.  

They include a guest OS and the service.

B.  

They enable the network to become agile and hardware-centric.

C.  

They use a supervisor to provide management for services.

D.  

They facilitate local management of infrastructure devices.

Discussion 0
Questions 256

A wirelesss access point is needed and must meet these requirements:

• " zero-touch " deployed and managed by a WLC

• process only real-time MAC functionality

• used in a split-MAC architecture. Which access point type must be used?

Options:

A.  

autonomous

B.  

lightweight

C.  

mesh

D.  

cloud-based

Discussion 0
Questions 257

Which security protocol is appropriate for a WPA3 implementation?

Options:

A.  

CCMP

B.  

MD5

C.  

TKIP

D.  

GCMP

Discussion 0
Questions 258

An on-site service desk technician must verify the IP addressss and DNS server information on a users Windows computer. Which command must the technician enter at the command prompt on the user ' s computer?

Options:

A.  

ipconfig /all

B.  

ifconfig -a

C.  

show interface

D.  

netstat -r

Discussion 0
Questions 259

What is used to identify spurious DHCP servers?

Options:

A.  

DHCPREQUEST

B.  

DHCPDISCOVER

C.  

DHCPACK

D.  

DHCPOFFER

Discussion 0
Questions 260

Refer to the exhibit.

A packet sourced from 172.16.32 254 is destined for 172.16.32.8. What is the subnet mask of the preferred destination route?

Options:

A.  

255.255.224.0

B.  

255.255.255.0

C.  

255.255.255.192

D.  

255.255.255.252

Discussion 0
Questions 261

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 262

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is creating a secure pre-shared key based SSID using WPA2 for a wirelesss network running on 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz. Which two tasks must the engineer perform to complete the process? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

Select the 802.1 x option for Auth Key Management.

B.  

Select the WPA Policy option.

C.  

Select the PSK option for Auth Key Management.

D.  

Select the AES option for Auth Key Management.

E.  

Select the AES (CCMP128) option for WPA2/WPA3 Encryption.

Discussion 0
Questions 263

Which two QoS tools provide congestion management? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

PBR

B.  

FRTS

C.  

PQ

D.  

CBWFQ

E.  

CAR

Discussion 0
Questions 264

Which two northbound APIs are found in a software-defined network? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

OpenFlow

B.  

REST

C.  

OpFlex

D.  

SOAP

E.  

NETCONF

Discussion 0
Questions 265

A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is remotely reachable via SSH. The engineer has already configured the host name. Which additional command must the engineer configure before entering the command to generate the RSA key?

Options:

A.  

ip domain-name domain

B.  

password password

C.  

crypto key generate rsa modulus 1024

D.  

ip ssh authentication-retries 2

Discussion 0
Questions 266

Refer to the exhibit. A secondary route is required on router R1 to pass traffic to the LAN network on R2 if the primary link fails. Which command must be entered to configure the router?

Options:

A.  

ip route 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.240 10.0.0.7 92

B.  

ip route 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.248 10.0.0.6 91

C.  

ip route 10.0.2.0 256.255.255.240 10.0.0.6 91

D.  

ip route 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.248 null0 93

Discussion 0
Questions 267

How are API keys used to enforce rate limiting?

Options:

A.  

To define the network path the API request should take

B.  

To uniquely identify each client application

C.  

To specify the type of data format the client prefers to receive

D.  

To encrypt data sent in the API request

Discussion 0
Questions 268

What are two purposes of HSRP? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

It groups two or more routers to operate as one virtual router.

B.  

It improves network availability by providing redundant gateways.

C.  

It passes configuration information to hosts in a TCP/IP network.

D.  

It helps hosts on the network to reach remote subnets without a default gateway.

E.  

It provides a mechanism for diskless clients to autoconfigure their IP parameters during boot.

Discussion 0
Questions 269

Which protocol does a REST API use to communicate?

Options:

A.  

SSH

B.  

SNMP

C.  

HTTP

D.  

STP

Discussion 0
Questions 270

What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?

Options:

A.  

Maintains stateful transaction information

B.  

Responsible for sending data in a particular sequence

C.  

Makes forwarding decisions based on MAC addressses

D.  

Filters based on a transport layer protocol

Discussion 0
Questions 271

Refer to the exhibit.

What does route 10.0.1.3/32 represent in the routing table?

Options:

A.  

a single destination addresss

B.  

the source 10.0.1.100

C.  

all hosts in the 10.0.1.0 subnet

D.  

the 10.0.0.0 network

Discussion 0
Questions 272

Which interface IP addressss serves as the tunnel source for CAPWAP packets froin the WLC to an AP?

Options:

A.  

service

B.  

trunk

C.  

AP-manager

D.  

virtual AP connection

Discussion 0
Questions 273

Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 10.10.10.1 is destined for 172.16.3.254. What is the subnet mask of the destination route?

Options:

A.  

0.0.0.0

B.  

255.255.254.0

C.  

255.255.255.0

D.  

255.255.255.255

Discussion 0
Questions 274

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action must be taken so that neighbofing devices rapidly discover switch Cat9300?

Options:

A.  

Configure the cdp timer 10 command on switch Cat9300.

B.  

Enable portfast on the ports that connect to neighboring devices.

C.  

Configure the cdp holdtime 10 command on switch Cat9300.

D.  

Configure the cdp timer 10 command on the neighbors of switch Cat9300.

Discussion 0
Questions 275

Which feature, when used on a WLC, allows it to bundle its distribution system ports into one 802.3ad group?

Options:

A.  

QinQ

B.  

ISL

C.  

PAgP

D.  

LAG

Discussion 0
Questions 276

In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?

Options:

A.  

A spine switch and a leaf switch are added with redundant connections between them.

B.  

A spine switch is added with at least 40 GB uplinks.

C.  

A leaf switch is added with a single connection to a core spine switch.

D.  

A leaf switch is added with connections to every spine switch.

Discussion 0
Questions 277

Which set of actions satisfies the requirement for multifactor authentication?

Options:

A.  

The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device.

B.  

The user swipes a key fob, then clicks through an email link.

C.  

The user enters a PIN into an RSA token, and then enters the displayed RSA key on a login screen.

D.  

The user enters a user name and password, and then re-enters the credentials on a second screen.

Discussion 0
Questions 278

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 279

Which event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?

Options:

A.  

An ICMP connection has been built

B.  

A certificate has expired

C.  

An interface line has changed status

D.  

A TCP connection has been torn down

Discussion 0
Questions 280

Which solution is appropriate when mitigating password attacks where the attacker was able to sniff the clear-text password of the system administrator?

Options:

A.  

next-generation firewall to keep stateful packet inspection

B.  

multifactor authentication using two separate authentication sources

C.  

ACL to restrict incoming Telnet sessions " admin " accounts

D.  

IPS with a block list of known attack vectors

Discussion 0
Questions 281

What is the main difference between traditional networks and controller-based networking?

Options:

A.  

Controller-based networks increase TCO for the company, and traditional networks require less investment.

B.  

Controller-based networks provide a framework for Innovation, and traditional networks create efficiency.

C.  

Controller-based networks are open for application requests, and traditional networks operate manually.

D.  

Controller-based networks are a closed ecosystem, and traditional networks take advantage of programmability.

Discussion 0
Questions 282

Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance for the advertised prefix that includes the host IP addressss 192.168.20.1?

Options:

A.  

1

B.  

24

C.  

192.168.10.2

D.  

0

Discussion 0
Questions 283

Refer to the exhibit. Router-WAN1 has a new connection via Gi0/0 to the ISP. Users running the web applications indicate that connectivity is unstable to the internet. What is causing the interface issue?

Options:

A.  

Small frames less than 64 bytes are rejected due to size.

B.  

The receive buffer is full due to a broadcast storm.

C.  

Frames are discarded due to a half-duplex negotiation.

D.  

Broadcast packets are rejected because ARP timeout is enabled.

Discussion 0
Questions 284

Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 is being Implemented within the enterprise. The command Ipv6 unlcast-routing is configure. Interlace GlgO/0 on R1 must be configured to provide a dynamic assignment using the assigned IPv6 block Which command accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.  

ipv6 addresss 2001:DB8:FFFF:FCF3::1/64

B.  

ipv6 addresss autoconfig 2001:DB8:FFFF:FCF2::/64

C.  

ipv6 addresss 2001:DB8:FFFF:FCF3::/64 eui-64

D.  

ipv6 addresss 2001:DB8:FFFF:FCF3::/64 link-local

Discussion 0
Questions 285

Refer to the exhibit.

Users will be using a preconfigured secret key and SSID and must have a secured key hashing algorithm configured. The AAA server must not be used for the user authentication method. Which action completes the task?

Options:

A.  

Enable AutoConfig iPSK.

B.  

SetCCMP128(AES).

C.  

Configure PSK Format HEX with key string.

D.  

Configure PSK-SHA2.

Discussion 0
Questions 286

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 287

Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?

O 10.18.75.113/27 [110/6906] via GO/6

O 10.18.75.113/27 [110/23018] via GO/3

R 10.18.75.113/27 [120/16] via GO/16

R 10.18.75.113/27 [120/14] via GO/23

Options:

A.  

G0/23

B.  

G0/3

C.  

G0/16

D.  

G0/6

Discussion 0
Questions 288

Refer to the exhibit.

Refer to the exhibit. The IPv6 address for the LAN segment on router R1 must be configured using the EUI-64 format. When configured which ipv6 address is produced by the router?

Options:

A.  

2001:db8:1a44:41a4:C801:BEFF:FE4A:1

B.  

2001:db8:1a44:41a4:C081:BFFF:FE4A:1

C.  

2001:db8:1a44:41a4:4562:098F:FE36:1

D.  

2001:db8:1a44:41a4:C800:BAFE:FF00:1

Discussion 0
Questions 289

Refer to the exhibit. What is the value of the administrative distance for the default gateway?

Options:

A.  

10

B.  

0

C.  

1

D.  

110

Discussion 0
Questions 290

What are two benefits for using private IPv4 addresssing? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

They alleviate the shortage of public IPv4 addressses.

B.  

They supply redundancy in the case of failure.

C.  

They offer Internet connectivity to endpoints on private networks.

D.  

They allow for Internet access from IoT devices.

E.  

They provide a layer of security from Internet threats.

Discussion 0
Questions 291

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must replicate the AccessSw1 NTP configuration on a new switch. The engineer could not access privileged mode on AccessSw1 to view its configuration.

Which command must be applied to the new switch to replicate the configuration?

Options:

A.  

ntp master

B.  

ntp master 3

C.  

ntp server 2001:db8:12::1

D.  

ntp server 127.127.1.1

Discussion 0
Questions 292

Which command must be configured to enable port security with a manually assigned MAC addresss of aabb.cc00.1234 for a VoIP handset on VLAN 4?

Options:

A.  

switchport port-security mac-addresss aabb.cc00.1234

B.  

switchport port-security mac-addresss aabb.cc00.1234 vlan 4

C.  

mac-addresss-table static aabb.cc00.1234 vlan 4 interface fa0/1

D.  

switchport port-security mac-addresss sticky

Discussion 0
Questions 293

Which set of methods is supported with the REST API?

Options:

A.  

GET, POST, MOD, ERASE

B.  

GET, POST, ERASE, CHANGE

C.  

GET, PUT, POST, DELETE

D.  

GET, PUT, ERASE, CHANGE

Discussion 0
Questions 294

Drag and drop the management connection types froin the left onto the definitions on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 295

What is the role of the root port in a switched network?

Options:

A.  

It replaces the designated port when the designated port fails

B.  

It is the best path to the root from a nonroot switch.

C.  

It replaces the designated port when the root port fails.

D.  

It is administratively disabled until a failover occurs.

Discussion 0
Questions 296

How do UTP and STP cables compare?

Options:

A.  

STP cables are cheaper to procure and easier to install and UTP cables are more expensive and harder to install.

B.  

UTP cables are less prone to crosstalk and interference and STP cables are more prone to crosstalk and interference.

C.  

UTP cables provide taster and more reliable data transfer rates and STP cables are slower and less reliable.

D.  

STP cables are shielded and protect against electromagnetic interference and UTP lacks the same protection against electromagnetic interference.

Discussion 0
Questions 297

Which QoS feature drops traffic that exceeds the committed access rate?

Options:

A.  

Shaping

B.  

Policing

C.  

Weighted fair queuing

D.  

FIFO

Discussion 0
Questions 298

What is represented in line 3 within this JSDN schema?

Options:

A.  

object

B.  

key

C.  

array

D.  

value

Discussion 0
Questions 299

Refer to the exhibit.

The router has been configured with a subnet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet. The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?

Options:

A.  

Subnet: 10.7.54.0Subnet mask: 255.255.254.0Broadcast addresss: 10.7.54.255Usable IP addressss range: 10.7.54.1 - 10.7.55.254

B.  

Subnet: 10.7.54.0Subnet mask: 255.255.128.0Broadcast addresss: 10.7.55.255Usable IP addressss range: 10.7.54.1 - 10.7.55.254

C.  

Subnet: 10.7.54.0Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0Broadcast addresss: 10.7.54.255Usable IP addressss range: 10.7.54.1 - 10.7.55.254

D.  

Subnet: 10.7.54.0Subnet mask: 255.255.254.0Broadcast addresss: 10.7.55.255Usable IP addressss range: 10.7.54.1 - 10.7.55.254

Discussion 0
Questions 300

What is the difference between SNMP traps and SNMP polling?

Options:

A.  

SNMP traps are used for proactive monitoring, and SNMP polling is used for reactive monitoring.

B.  

SNMP traps send periodic updates via the MIB, and SNMP polling sends data on demand.

C.  

SNMP traps are initiated by the network management system, and network devices initiate SNMP polling.

D.  

SNMP traps are initiated using a push model at the network device, and SNMP polling is initiated at the server.

Discussion 0
Questions 301

What happens when a switch receives a frame with a destination MAC addresss that recently aged out?

Options:

A.  

The switch references the MAC addresss aging table for historical addressses on the port that received the frame.

B.  

The switch floods the frame to all ports in all VLANs except the port that received the frame

C.  

The switch drops the frame and learns the destination MAC addresss again froin the port that received the frame

D.  

The switch floods the frame to all ports in the VLAN except the port that received the frame.

Discussion 0
Questions 302

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the metric for the route to the 192.168.10.33 host?

Options:

A.  

84

B.  

110

C.  

192

D.  

193

Discussion 0
Questions 303

Which statement describes virtualization on containers?

Options:

A.  

It is a type of operating system virtualization that allows the host operating system to control the different CPU memory processes.

B.  

It emulates a physical computer and enables multiple machines to run with many operating systems on a physical machine.

C.  

It separates virtual machines from each other and allocates memory, processors, and storage to compute.

D.  

It contains a guest operating system and virtual partition of hardware for OS and requires application libraries.

Discussion 0
Questions 304

Which type of encryption does WPA1 use for data protection?

Options:

A.  

AES

B.  

TKIP

C.  

PEAP

D.  

EAP

Discussion 0
Questions 305

Refer to the exhibit. With a reference bandwidth of 100 Gb on all routers, which path does router Y use to get to network 192.168.1.0/24?

Options:

A.  

router C > D > A > B > F

B.  

router C > D > A > F

C.  

router E > F

D.  

router E > B > F

Discussion 0
Questions 306

What are two reasons lo configure PortFast on a switch port attached to an end host? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

to enable the number of MAC addressses learned on the port to l

B.  

to protect the operation of the port from topology change processes

C.  

to enable the pod to enter the forwarding state immediately when the host boots up

D.  

to prevent the port from participating in Spanning Tree Protocol operations

E.  

to block another switch or host from communicating through the port

Discussion 0
Questions 307

Refer to the exhibit. What is the cause of the issue?

Options:

A.  

STP

B.  

port security

C.  

wrong cable type

D.  

shutdown command

Discussion 0
Questions 308

Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands, when configured on router R1. fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.) ' Packets toward the entire network 2001:db8:23: :/64 must be forwarded through router R2. ' Packets toward host 2001: db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3.

Options:

A.  

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23: :/128 fd00:12::2

B.  

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/128 fd00:13::3

C.  

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2 200

D.  

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23: l4/64 fd00:12::2

E.  

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23: :/64 fd00:12::2

Discussion 0