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Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (200-301 CCNA) v1.1 Question and Answers

Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (200-301 CCNA) v1.1

Last Update Nov 21, 2025
Total Questions : 1197

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Questions 1

Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are configured R2 must be the DR. After the engineer connected the devices, R1 was elected as the DR. Which command sequence must be configure on R2 to Be elected as the DR in the network?

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 2

Which implementation provides the strongest encryption combination for the wireless environment?

Options:

A.  

WPA2 + AES

B.  

WPA + AES

C.  

WEP

D.  

WPA + TKIP

Discussion 0
Questions 3

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer assumes a configuration task from a peer Router A must establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with neighbor 172 1 1 1 The output displays the status of the adjacency after 2 hours. What is the next step in the configuration process for the routers to establish an adjacency?

Options:

A.  

Configure router A to use the same MTU size as router B.

B.  

Set the router B OSPF ID to a nonhost address.

C.  

Configure a point-to-point link between router A and router B.

D.  

Set the router B OSPF ID to the same value as its IP address

Discussion 0
Questions 4

Refer to the exhibit.

All traffic enters the CPE router from interface Serial0/3 with an IP address of 192 168 50 1 Web traffic from the WAN is destined for a LAN network where servers are load-balanced An IP packet with a destination address of the HTTP virtual IP of 192 1681 250 must be forwarded Which routing table entry does the router use?

Options:

A.  

192.168.1.0/24 via 192.168.12.2

B.  

192.168.1.128/25 via 192.168.13.3

C.  

192.168.1.192/26 via 192.168.14.4

D.  

192.168.1.224/27 via 192.168.15.5

Discussion 0
Questions 5

What is the purpose of the ip address dhcp command?

Options:

A.  

to configure an Interface as a DHCP server

B.  

to configure an interface as a DHCP helper

C.  

to configure an interface as a DHCP relay

D.  

to configure an interface as a DHCP client

Discussion 0
Questions 6

How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?

Options:

A.  

Traditional campus device management schemes typically deploy patches and updates quicker than Cisco DNA Center device management.

B.  

Cisco DNA Center device management is implemented at a lower cost than most traditional campus device management options.

C.  

Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale quicker than using Cisco DNA Center device management.

D.  

Cisco DNA Center device management deploys a network faster than traditional campus device management.

Discussion 0
Questions 7

A switch is a forwarding a frame out of an interfaces except the interface that received the frame. What is the technical term for this process?

Options:

A.  

ARP

B.  

CDP

C.  

flooding

D.  

multicast

Discussion 0
Questions 8

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer executed the script and added commands that were not necessary for SSH and now must remove the commands.

Options:

A.  

metric

B.  

cost

C.  

longest prefix

D.  

administrative distance

Discussion 0
Questions 9

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that each of the four Gigabit interfaces has the same route to 10.10.0.0/16. Which interface will R1 choose to send traffic to reach the route?

Options:

A.  

GigabitEthernet0/0

B.  

GigabltEthornet0/1

C.  

GigabitEthernet0/2

D.  

GigabitEthernet0/3

Discussion 0
Questions 10

What are two reasons to implement DHCP in a network? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

reduce administration time in managing IP address ranges for clients

B.  

control the length of time an IP address is used by a network device

C.  

manually control and configure IP addresses on network devices

D.  

dynamic control over the best path to reach an IP address

E.  

access a website by name instead of by IP address

Discussion 0
Questions 11

A switch is forwarding a frame out of all interfaces except the interface that received the frame. What is the technical term for this process?

Options:

A.  

ARP

B.  

Multicast

C.  

CDP

D.  

Flooding

Discussion 0
Questions 12

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?

Options:

A.  

Configure the router A interfaces with the highest OSPF priority value within the area.

B.  

Configure router B and router C as OSPF neighbors of router A.

C.  

Configure the OSPF priority on router A with the lowest value between the three routers.

D.  

Configure router A with a fixed OSPF router I

D.  

Discussion 0
Questions 13

Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch becomes the root bridge?

Options:

A.  

S1

B.  

S2

C.  

S3

D.  

S4

Discussion 0
Questions 14

An engineer is configuring an encrypted password for the enable command on a router where the local user database has already been configured Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left into the correct sequence on the right Not all commands are used

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 15

Drag drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct configuration-management technologies on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 16

Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 must be implemented on R1 to the ISP The uplink between R1 and the ISP must be configured with a manual assignment, and the LAN interface must be self-provisioned Both connections must use the applicable IPv6 networks Which two configurations must be applied to R1? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

interface Gi0/1ipv6 address 2001:db8:0F1B:FCCB:ACCE:FCED:ABCD:FA02:/127

B.  

interface Gi0/0ipv6 address 2001:db8:1:AFFF::/64 eui-64

C.  

interface Gi0/1ipv6 address 2001:db8:0F1B:FCCB:ACCE:FCED:ABCD:FA00:/127

D.  

interface Gi0/0ipv6 address 2001:db8:0:AFFF::/64 eui-64

E.  

interface Gi0/0ipv6 address 2001:db8:0F1B:FCCB:ACCE:FCED:ABCD:FA03;/127

Discussion 0
Questions 17

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must configure router R1 with a host route to the server. Which command must the engineer configure?

Options:

A.  

R1(conftg)#lp route 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2

B.  

R1(Config)#lp route 10.10.10.10 265.255.255.255 192 168.0.2

C.  

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.0.2 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.10

D.  

R1(config)3|p route 0.0.0.0 0.0 0.0 192 168.0.2

Discussion 0
Questions 18

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is updating the management access configuration of switch SW1 to allow secured, encrypted remote configuration. Which two commands or command sequences must the engineer apply to the switch? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

SW1(config)#enable secret ccnaTest123

B.  

SW1(config)#username NEW secret R3mote123

C.  

SW1(config)#line vty 0 15 SW1(config-line)#transport input ssh

D.  

SW1(config)# crypto key generate rsa

E.  

SW1(config)# interface f0/1 SW1(confif-if)# switchport mode trunk

Discussion 0
Questions 19

What is a DHCP client?

Options:

A.  

a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP address

B.  

a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically

C.  

a server that dynamically assigns IP addresses to hosts.

D.  

a router that statically assigns IP addresses to hosts.

Discussion 0
Questions 20

Which command configures the Cisco WLC to prevent a serial session with the WLC CLI from being automatical togged out?

Options:

A.  

config sessions maxsessions 0

B.  

config sessions timeout 0

C.  

config serial timeout 0

D.  

config serial timeout 9600

Discussion 0
Questions 21

A network engineer must configure an interface with IP address 10.10.10.145 and a subnet mask equivalent to 11111111.11111111.11111111.11111000. Which subnet mask must the engineer use?

Options:

A.  

/29

B.  

/30

C.  

/27

D.  

/28

Discussion 0
Questions 22

Refer to the exhibit.

How must router A be configured so that it only sends Cisco Discovery Protocol Information to router C?

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 23

Which two components are needed to create an Ansible script that configures a VLAN on a switch? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

cookbook

B.  

task

C.  

playbook

D.  

model

E.  

recipe

Discussion 0
Questions 24

What is the primary purpose of a First Hop Redundancy Protocol?

Options:

A.  

It allows directly connected neighbors to share configuration information.

B.  

It allows a router to use bridge priorities to create multiple loop-free paths to a single destination.

C.  

It reduces routing failures by allowing Layer 3 load balancing between OSPF neighbors that have the same link metric.

D.  

It reduces routing failures by allowing more than one router to represent itself, as the default gateway of a network.

Discussion 0
Questions 25

Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible as compared to traditional campus device management? (Choose two)

Options:

A.  

adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS software

B.  

SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment

C.  

customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises

D.  

REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center

E.  

modular design that is upgradable as needed

Discussion 0
Questions 26

An engineering team asks an implementer to configure syslog for warning conditions and error conditions. Which command does the implementer configure to achieve the desired result?

Options:

A.  

logging trap 5

B.  

logging trap 2

C.  

logging trap 4

D.  

logging trap 3

Discussion 0
Questions 27

When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two)

Options:

A.  

2000::/3

B.  

2002::5

C.  

FC00::/7

D.  

FF02::1

E.  

FF02::2

Discussion 0
Questions 28

What event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?

Options:

A.  

A TCP connection has been torn down

B.  

An ICMP connection has been built

C.  

An interface line has changed status

D.  

A certificate has expired.

Discussion 0
Questions 29

What is an appropriate use for private IPv4 addressing?

Options:

A.  

on the public-facing interface of a firewall

B.  

to allow hosts inside to communicate in both directions with hosts outside the organization

C.  

on internal hosts that stream data solely to external resources

D.  

on hosts that communicates only with other internal hosts

Discussion 0
Questions 30

What is the benefit of using FHRP?

Options:

A.  

reduced management overhead on network routers

B.  

balancing traffic across multiple gateways in proportion to their loads

C.  

higher degree of availability

D.  

reduced ARP traffic on the network

Discussion 0
Questions 31

A network engineer is configuring an OSPFv2 neighbor adjacency Drag and drop the parameters from the left onto their required categories on the right. Not all parameters are used

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 32

Refer to the exhibit.

If OSPF Is running on this network, how does Router2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13.128/25 at Site A?

Options:

A.  

It load-balances traffic out of Fa0/1 and Fa0/2.

B.  

It is unreachable and discards the traffic.

C.  

It sends packets out of interface FaO/2.

D.  

It sends packets out of interface Fa0/1.

Discussion 0
Questions 33

Refer to the exhibit.

After the election process what is the root bridge in the HQ LAN?

Options:

A.  

Switch 1

B.  

Switch 2

C.  

Switch 3

D.  

Switch 4

Discussion 0
Questions 34

Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?

Options:

A.  

ipv6 address dhcp

B.  

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::/64 eui-64

C.  

ipv6 address autoconfig

D.  

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::2/64 link-local

Discussion 0
Questions 35

How do servers connect to the network in a virtual environment?

Options:

A.  

wireless to an access point that is physically connected to the network

B.  

a cable connected to a physical switch on the network

C.  

a virtual switch that links to an access point that is physically connected to the network

D.  

a software switch on a hypervisor that is physically connected to the network

Discussion 0
Questions 36

Which 802.11 management frame type is sent when a client roams between access points on the same SSID?

Options:

A.  

Reassociation Request

B.  

Probe Request

C.  

Authentication Request

D.  

Association Request

Discussion 0
Questions 37

Drag the IPv6 DNS record types from the left onto the description on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 38

Refer to the exhibit.

Rooter R1 is added to the network and configured with tie 10 0 0 64/26 and 10.0.20.0/24 subnets However traffic destined for the LAN on R3 is not access. Which command when executed on R1 defines a tunic route to reach the R3 LAN?

A)

B)

C)

Options:

A.  

Option

B.  

Option

C.  

Option

Discussion 0
Questions 39

Which action does the router take as it forwards a packet through the network?

Options:

A.  

The router replaces the original source and destination MAC addresses with the sending router MAC address as the source and neighbor MAC address as the destination

B.  

The router encapsulates the original packet and then includes a tag that identifies the source router MAC address and transmits it transparently to the destination

C.  

The router encapsulates the source and destination IP addresses with the sending router IP address as the source and the neighbor IP address as the destination

D.  

The router replaces the source and destination labels with the sending router interface label as a source and the next hop router label as a destination

Discussion 0
Questions 40

What is the function of a hub-and-spoke WAN topology?

Options:

A.  

allows access restrictions to be implemented between subscriber sites.

B.  

provides direct connections between subscribers

C.  

supports Layer 2 VPNs

D.  

supports application optimization

Discussion 0
Questions 41

In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate for a new subnet on the network of an organization?

Options:

A.  

There is limited unique address space, and traffic on the new subnet will stay local within the organization.

B.  

The network has multiple endpoint listeners, and it is desired to limit the number of broadcasts.

C.  

Traffic on the subnet must traverse a site-to-site VPN to an outside organization.

D.  

The ISP requires the new subnet to be advertised to the internet for web services.

Discussion 0
Questions 42

Which device controls the forwarding of authentication requests for users when connecting to the network using a lightweight access point?

Options:

A.  

TACACS server

B.  

wireless access point

C.  

RADIUS server

D.  

wireless LAN controller

Discussion 0
Questions 43

Which virtual MAC address is used by VRRP group 1?

Options:

A.  

0050.0c05.ad81

B.  

0007.c061.bc01

C.  

0000.5E00.0101

D.  

0500.3976.6401

Discussion 0
Questions 44

Which type of security program is violated when a group of employees enters a building using the ID badge of only one person?

Options:

A.  

intrusion detection

B.  

user awareness

C.  

physical access control

D.  

network authorization

Discussion 0
Questions 45

What is the main capability of multifactor authentication?

Options:

A.  

Identifying permissions for end users using three authentication factors

B.  

Authenticating and authorizing end users using two authentication factors

C.  

Confirming end-user identity using two or more authentication factors

D.  

Verifying end-user access permissions using two authentication factors

Discussion 0
Questions 46

Refer to the exhibit Routers R1 and R2 have been configured with their respective LAN interfaces The two circuits are operational and reachable across WAN Which command set establishes failover redundancy if the primary circuit goes down?

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 47

Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of configuration is represented in the output?

Options:

A.  

Ansible

B.  

JSON

C.  

Chef

D.  

Puppet

Discussion 0
Questions 48

Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?

Options:

A.  

on

B.  

auto

C.  

active

D.  

desirable

Discussion 0
Questions 49

Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture?

Options:

A.  

enforcing routing policies

B.  

marking interesting traffic for data polices

C.  

attaching users to the edge of the network

D.  

applying security policies

Discussion 0
Questions 50

Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.

1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.

2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.

3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.

4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.

5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 51

What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate?

Options:

A.  

Layer 2 switch

B.  

load balancer

C.  

firewall

D.  

LAN controller

Discussion 0
Questions 52

If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred?

Options:

A.  

A network device has restarted

B.  

An ARP inspection has failed

C.  

A routing instance has flapped

D.  

A debug operation is running

Discussion 0
Questions 53

Drag and drop the statement about networking from the left into the Corresponding networking types on the right. Not all statements are used.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 54

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator must turn off the Cisco Discovery Protocol on the port configured with address last usable address in the 10.0.0.0/30 subnet. Which command set meets the requirement?

Options:

A.  

interface gi0/1no cdp enable

B.  

interface gi0/1clear cdp table

C.  

interface gi0/0no cdp advertise-v2

D.  

interface gi0/0no cdp run

Discussion 0
Questions 55

What is a characteristic of cloud-based network topology?

Options:

A.  

wireless connections provide the sole access method to services

B.  

onsite network services are provided with physical Layer 2 and Layer 3 components

C.  

services are provided by a public, private, or hybrid deployment

D.  

physical workstations are configured to share resources

Discussion 0
Questions 56

What is a function of Wireless LAN Controller?

Options:

A.  

register with a single access point that controls traffic between wired and wireless endpoints.

B.  

use SSIDs to distinguish between wireless clients.

C.  

send LWAPP packets to access points.

D.  

monitor activity on wireless and wired LANs

Discussion 0
Questions 57

By default, how Does EIGRP determine the metric of a route for the routing table?

Options:

A.  

it uses the bandwidth and delay values of the path to calculate the route metric

B.  

it uses a default metric of 10 for all routes that are learned by the router

C.  

it uses a reference Bandwidth and the actual bandwidth of the connected link to calculate the route metric

D.  

it counts the number of hops between the receiving and destination routers and uses that value as the metric

Discussion 0
Questions 58

A manager asks a network engineer to recommend a cloud service model so that employees do not spend time installing, managing, and updating software that is only used occasionally. Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend?

Options:

A.  

Infrastructure-as-a-service

B.  

software-as-a-service

C.  

business process as a service

D.  

platform-as-a-service

Discussion 0
Questions 59

Refer to the exhibit.

Packets are flowing from 192.168.10.1 to the destination at IP address 192.168.20.75. Which next hop will the router select for the packet?

Options:

A.  

10.10.10.1

B.  

10.10.10.11

C.  

10.10.10.12

D.  

10.10.10.14

Discussion 0
Questions 60

What facilitates a Telnet connection between devices by entering the device name?

Options:

A.  

SNMP

B.  

DNS lookup

C.  

syslog

D.  

NTP

Discussion 0
Questions 61

What is the operating mode and role of a backup port on a shared LAN segment in Rapid PVST+?

Options:

A.  

forwarding mode and provides the lowest-cost path to the root bridge for each VLAN

B.  

learning mode and provides the shortest path toward the root bridge handling traffic away from the LAN

C.  

blocking mode and provides an alternate path toward the designated bridge

D.  

listening mode and provides an alternate path toward the root bridge

Discussion 0
Questions 62

What is a similarity between OM3 and OM4 fiber optic cable?

Options:

A.  

Both have a 50 micron core diameter

B.  

Both have a 9 micron core diameter

C.  

Both have a 62.5 micron core diameter

D.  

Both have a 100 micron core diameter

Discussion 0
Questions 63

Drag and drop the network protocols from the left onto the correct transport services on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 64

Which CRUD operation corresponds to the HTTP GET method?

Options:

A.  

read

B.  

update

C.  

create

D.  

delete

Discussion 0
Questions 65

How is the native VLAN secured in a network?

Options:

A.  

separate from other VLANs within the administrative domain

B.  

give it a value in the private VLAN range

C.  

assign it as VLAN 1

D.  

configure it as a different VLAN ID on each end of the link

Discussion 0
Questions 66

Which protocol does an IPv4 host use to obtain a dynamically assigned IP address?

Options:

A.  

ARP

B.  

DHCP

C.  

CDP

D.  

DNS

Discussion 0
Questions 67

An engineer needs to add an old switch back into a network. To prevent the switch from corrupting the VLAN database which action must be taken?

Options:

A.  

Add the switch in the VTP domain with a lower revision number

B.  

Add the switch with DTP set to dynamic desirable

C.  

Add the switch in the VTP domain with a higher revision number

D.  

Add the switch with DTP set to desirable

Discussion 0
Questions 68

Which technology is appropriate for communication between an SDN controller and applications running over the network?

Options:

A.  

OpenFlow

B.  

REST API

C.  

NETCONF

D.  

Southbound API

Discussion 0
Questions 69

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must configured communication between PC A and the File Server. To prevent interruption for any other communications, which command must be configured?

Options:

A.  

Switch trunk allowed vlan 12

B.  

Switchport trunk allowed vlan none

C.  

Switchport trunk allowed vlan add 13

D.  

Switchport trunk allowed vlan remove 10-11

Discussion 0
Questions 70

What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?

Options:

A.  

latency

B.  

port security violation

C.  

shutdown command issued on the port

D.  

nothing plugged into the port

Discussion 0
Questions 71

On workstations running Microsoft Windows, which protocol provides the default gateway for the device?

Options:

A.  

DHCP

B.  

STP

C.  

SNMP

D.  

DNS

Discussion 0
Questions 72

Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.

1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.

2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.

3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 73

What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?

Options:

A.  

Maintains stateful transaction information

B.  

Responsible for sending data in a particular sequence

C.  

Makes forwarding decisions based on MAC addresses

D.  

Filters based on a transport layer protocol

Discussion 0
Questions 74

Why does an administrator choose to implement a remote access IPsec VPN?

Options:

A.  

to establish an encrypted tunnel between a remote user and a private network over the internet

B.  

to allow access to an enterprise network using any internet-enabled location via a web browser using SSL

C.  

to provide a secure link between an HTTPS server, authentication subsystem, and an end-user

D.  

to use cryptography for authentication between a device and user over a negotiated VPN gateway

Discussion 0
Questions 75

Which role does AI play in monitoring network data flow?

Options:

A.  

It analyzes patterns for anomaly detection.

B.  

It exclusively predicts device malfunctions.

C.  

It simplifies traffic route mapping.

D.  

It enhances data packet delivery speeds.

Discussion 0
Questions 76

Which AP feature provides a captive portal for users to authenticate, register, and accept terms before accessing the internet?

Options:

A.  

Whole Home

B.  

Hotspot

C.  

One-Click

D.  

Enhanced Bluetooth

Discussion 0
Questions 77

Which IP address is used when an administrator must open a web-based management session with a lightweight AP?

Options:

A.  

WLCIP

B.  

gateway IP

C.  

autonomous AP IP

D.  

ACS IP

Discussion 0
Questions 78

Which role do predictive Al models play in network load balancing?

Options:

A.  

They anticipate future traffic spikes.

B.  

They assign IP addresses to devices.

C.  

They select correct cabling types for deployment.

D.  

They solely monitor historical traffic volumes.

Discussion 0
Questions 79

A new DHCP server has been deployed in a corporate environment with lease time set to eight hours. Which CMD command on a Windows-based device allows the engineer to verify the DHCP lease expiration?

Options:

A.  

ipconfig /renew

B.  

ipconfig

C.  

ipconfig /all

D.  

ipconfig /displaydns

Discussion 0
Questions 80

Drag and drop the descriptions of file-transfer protocols from the left onto the correct protocols on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 81

What is the difference in data transmission delivery and reliability between TCP and UDP?

Options:

A.  

TCP transmits data at a higher rate and ensures packet delivery. UDP retransmits lost data to ensure applications receive the data on the remote end.

B.  

UDP sets up a connection between both devices before transmitting data. TCP uses the three-way handshake to transmit data with a reliable connection.

C.  

UDP is used for multicast and broadcast communication. TCP is used for unicast communication and transmits data at a higher rate with error checking.

D.  

TCP requires the connection to be established before transmitting data. UDP transmits data at a higher rate without ensuring packet delivery.

Discussion 0
Questions 82

What is the role of a firewall in an enterprise network?

Options:

A.  

Forwards packets based on stateless packet inspection

B.  

Processes unauthorized packets and allows passage to less secure segments of the network

C.  

determines which packets are allowed to cross from unsecured to secured networks

D.  

explicitly denies all packets from entering an administrative domain

Discussion 0
Questions 83

Drag and drop the DHCP snooping terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 84

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator must permit SSH access to remotely manage routers in a network. The operations team resides on the 10.20.1.0/25 network. Which command will accomplish this task?

Options:

A.  

access-list 2699 permit udp 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

B.  

no access-list 2699 deny tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.127 eq 22

C.  

access-list 2699 permit tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255 eq 22

D.  

no access-list 2699 deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

Discussion 0
Questions 85

Which command on a port enters the forwarding state immediately when a PC is connected to it?

Options:

A.  

switch(config)#spanning-tree portfast default

B.  

switch(config)#spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default

C.  

switch(config-if)#spanning-tree portfast trunk

D.  

switch(config-if)#no spanning-tree portfast

Discussion 0
Questions 86

Which MAC address is recognized as a VRRP virtual address?

Options:

A.  

0000.5E00.010a

B.  

0005.3711.0975

C.  

0000.0C07.AC99

D.  

0007.C070/AB01

Discussion 0
Questions 87

Refer to the exhibit.

which path is used by the router for internet traffic ?

Options:

A.  

209.165.200.0/27

B.  

10.10.10.0/28

C.  

0.0.0.0/0

D.  

10.10.13.0/24

Discussion 0
Questions 88

A network analyst is tasked with configured the date and time on a router using EXEC mode. The date must be set to 12:00am. Which command should be used?

Options:

A.  

Clock timezone

B.  

Clock summer-time-recurring

C.  

Clock summer-time date

D.  

Clock set

Discussion 0
Questions 89

An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company's security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code. Which type of security program is in place?

Options:

A.  

Physical access control

B.  

Social engineering attack

C.  

brute force attack

D.  

user awareness

Discussion 0
Questions 90

What uses HTTP messages to transfer data to applications residing on different hosts?

Options:

A.  

OpenFlow

B.  

OpenStack

C.  

OpFlex

D.  

REST

Discussion 0
Questions 91

What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two)

Options:

A.  

when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again

B.  

when the cable length limits are exceeded

C.  

when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex

D.  

when Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used

E.  

when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted

Discussion 0
Questions 92

Which two protocols are supported on service-port interfaces? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

RADIUS

B.  

TACACS+

C.  

SCP

D.  

Telnet

E.  

SSH

Discussion 0
Questions 93

What criteria is used first during the root port selection process?

Options:

A.  

local port ID

B.  

lowest path cost to the root bridge

C.  

lowest neighbor's bridge ID

D.  

lowest neighbor's port ID

Discussion 0
Questions 94

Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plain text on a router or switch?

Options:

A.  

enable secret

B.  

service password-encryption

C.  

username Cisco password encrypt

D.  

enable password

Discussion 0
Questions 95

Which security program element involves installing badge readers on data-center doors to allow workers to enter and exit based on their job roles?

Options:

A.  

role-based access control

B.  

biometrics

C.  

multifactor authentication

D.  

physical access control

Discussion 0
Questions 96

Refer to the exhibit.

How many JSON objects are represented?

Options:

A.  

1

B.  

2

C.  

3

D.  

4

Discussion 0
Questions 97

A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface to connect to the router R2 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface. For the configuration to be applied, the engineer must compress the address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0500:000a:400F:583B. Which command must be issued on the interface?

Options:

A.  

ipv6 address 2001:db8 :: 500:a:400F:583B

B.  

ipv6 address 2001:0db8 :: 5:a:4F:583B

C.  

ipv6 address 2001 :: db8:0000 :: 500:a:400F:583B

D.  

ipv6 address 2001:db8:0 :: 500:a:4F:583B

Discussion 0
Questions 98

Refer to the exhibit.

An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2 The configuration failed to work as intended Which two

changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20 0 26 from the 10.0.10 0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose

two )

Options:

A.  

Add a "permit ip any any" statement to the begining of ACL 101 for allowed traffic.

B.  

Add a "permit ip any any" statement at the end of ACL 101 for allowed traffic

C.  

The source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101

D.  

The ACL must be configured the Gi0/2 interface inbound on R1

E.  

The ACL must be moved to the Gi0/1 interface outbound on R2

Discussion 0
Questions 99

Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?

O 10.76.170 161/26 |110/102] via FO/17

O 10.76.170 161/26[110/27e31] via FO/20

R 10.76.170.161/261120/15] via FO/8

R 10.76.170.161/26 [120/10] via FO/12

Options:

A.  

F0/8

B.  

FO/20

C.  

FO/12

D.  

FO/17

Discussion 0
Questions 100

What is a reason to implement HSRP on a network?

Options:

A.  

to Identify the closest hop to the default gateway In a LAN network

B.  

to provide load balancing over multiple gateways in a LAN network

C.  

to optimally route traffic based on the forwarding capacity of the edge routing devices in the LAN network

D.  

to ensure that user traffic in a LAN rapidly recovers from the failure of an edge routing device

Discussion 0
Questions 101

Refer to the exhibit. The user has connectivity to devices on network 192.168.3 0/24 but cannot reach users on the network 10.10.1.0724.

What is the first step to verify connectivity?

Options:

A.  

Is the internet reachable?

B.  

Is the default gateway reachable?

C.  

Is the DNS server reachable?

Discussion 0
Questions 102

Where does the configuration reside when a helper address Is configured lo support DHCP?

Options:

A.  

on the router closest to the server

B.  

on the router closest to the client

C.  

on every router along the path

D.  

on the switch trunk interface

Discussion 0
Questions 103

Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client?

Options:

A.  

ip address dhcp

B.  

ip helper-address

C.  

ip dhcp pool

D.  

ip dhcp client

Discussion 0
Questions 104

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 currently is configured to use R3 as the primary route to the Internet, and the route uses the default administrative distance settings. A network engineer must configure R1 so that it uses R2 as a backup, but only if R3 goes down. Which command must the engineer configure on R1 so that it correctly uses R2 as a backup route, without changing the administrative distance configuration on the link to R3?

Options:

A.  

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 g0/1 1

B.  

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.201.5 10

C.  

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.226 1

D.  

ip route 0,0.0.0 0.0.0.0 g0/1 6

Discussion 0
Questions 105

Which interface mode must be configured to connect the lightweight APs in a centralized architecture?

Options:

A.  

WLAN dynamic

B.  

management

C.  

trunk

D.  

access

Discussion 0
Questions 106

Refer to the exhibit.

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209.165.201.10. Each route is present within the routing table. Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.10.10.24?

Options:

A.  

F0/10

B.  

F0/11

C.  

F0/12

D.  

F0/13

Discussion 0
Questions 107

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route must be configured on R1 so that OSPF routing is used when OSPF is up. but the server is still reachable when OSPF goes down?

Options:

A.  

ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 172.16.2.2 100

B.  

ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 gi0/1 125

C.  

ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 100

D.  

ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 gi0/0 125

Discussion 0
Questions 108

Which HTTP status code is returned after a successful REST API request?

Options:

A.  

200

B.  

301

C.  

404

D.  

500

Discussion 0
Questions 109

An engineer requires a scratch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?

Options:

A.  

switchport mode trunk

B.  

switchport mode dynamic desirable

C.  

switchport mode dynamic auto

D.  

switchport nonegotiate

Discussion 0
Questions 110

Which technology must be implemented to configure network device monitoring with the highest security?

Options:

A.  

IP SLA

B.  

syslog

C.  

NetFlow

D.  

SNMPv3

Discussion 0
Questions 111

Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two)

Options:

A.  

The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN.

B.  

The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router

C.  

Each router has a different IP address both routers act as the default gateway on the LAN, and traffic is load balanced between them.D The two routers synchronize configurations to provide consistent packet forwarding

D.  

The two routed share the same IP address, and default gateway traffic is load-balanced between them

Discussion 0
Questions 112

Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. what is the reason for the problem?

Options:

A.  

The OSPF router IDs are mismatched.

B.  

Router2 is using the default hello timer.

C.  

The network statement on Router1 is misconfigured.

D.  

The OSPF process IDs are mismatched.

Discussion 0
Questions 113

What is a function of TFTP in network operations?

Options:

A.  

transfers a backup configuration file from a server to a switch using a username and password

B.  

transfers files between file systems on a router

C.  

transfers a configuration files from a server to a router on a congested link

D.  

transfers IOS images from a server to a router for firmware upgrades

Discussion 0
Questions 114

Refer to the exhibit.

Between which zones do wireless users expect to experience intermittent connectivity?

Options:

A.  

between zones 1 and 2

B.  

between zones 2 and 5

C.  

between zones 3 and 4

D.  

between zones 3 and 6

Discussion 0
Questions 115

What is the difference between IPv6 unicast and anycast addressing?

Options:

A.  

IPv6 anycast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the anycast address, but IPv6 unicast nodes require no special configuration

B.  

IPv6 unicast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the unicast address, but IPv6 anycast nodes require no special configuration

C.  

An individual IPv6 unicast address is supported on a single interface on one node but an IPv6 anycast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes.

D.  

Unlike an IPv6 anycast address, an IPv6 unicast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes

Discussion 0
Questions 116

Which two components comprise part of a PKI? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

preshared key that authenticates connections

B.  

RSA token

C.  

CA that grants certificates

D.  

clear-text password that authenticates connections

E.  

one or more CRLs

Discussion 0
Questions 117

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands must be added to update the configuration of router R1 so that it accepts only encrypted connections? (Choose two )

Options:

A.  

username CNAC secret R!41!4319115@

B.  

ip ssh version 2

C.  

line vty 0 4

D.  

crypto key generate rsa 1024

E.  

transport input ssh

Discussion 0
Questions 118

What is a similarly between 1000BASE-LX and 1000BASE-T standards?

Options:

A.  

Both use the same data-link header and trailer formats

B.  

Both cable types support LP connectors

C.  

Both cable types support Rj-45 connectors

D.  

Both support up to 550 meters between nodes

Discussion 0
Questions 119

R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?

Options:

A.  

route with the lowest cost

B.  

route with the next hop that has the highest IP

C.  

route with the shortest prefix length

D.  

route with the lowest administrative distance

Discussion 0
Questions 120

Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?

Options:

A.  

provides an added level of protection against Internet exposure

B.  

provides a reduction in size of the forwarding table on network routers

C.  

allows communication across the Internet to other private networks

D.  

allows servers and workstations to communicate across public network boundaries

Discussion 0
Questions 121

Drag and drop the QoS congestion management terms from the left onto the description on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 122

What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two)

Options:

A.  

Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber

B.  

A BNC connector is used for fiber connections

C.  

The glass core component is encased in a cladding

D.  

Fiber connects to physical interfaces using Rj-45 connections

E.  

The data can pass through the cladding

Discussion 0
Questions 123

Refer to the exhibit.

What action establishes the OSPF neighbor relationship without forming an adjacency?

Options:

A.  

modify hello interval

B.  

modify process ID

C.  

modify priority

D.  

modify network type

Discussion 0
Questions 124

Refer to the exhibit.

For security reasons, automatic neighbor discovery must be disabled on the R5 Gi0/1 interface. These tasks must be completed:

• Disable all neighbor discovery methods on R5 interface GiO/1.

• Permit neighbor discovery on R5 interface GiO/2.

• Verify there are no dynamically learned neighbors on R5 interface Gi0/1.

• Display the IP address of R6*s interface Gi0/2.

Which configuration must be used?

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 125

What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?

Options:

A.  

traverses the Internet when an outbound ACL Is applied

B.  

used without allocation from a regional Internet authority

C.  

shared address space between an ISP and subscriber

D.  

reduces the need for isolated networks

Discussion 0
Questions 126

IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:

1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.

2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.

3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.

4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 127

Refer to the exhibit. The route for 10.220.100.96/27 has been very unstable. The same route has four backups to routers A, B, C, and D via the respective methods. The routing protocol defaults for router Y have not been changed. When the current route for 10.220.100.96/27 becomes unavailable, which router will router Y use to route traffic to 10.220.100.96/27?

Options:

A.  

router D

B.  

router B

C.  

router C

D.  

router A

Discussion 0
Questions 128

Refer to the exhibit.

The LACP EtherChannel is configured, and the last change is to modify the interfaces on SwitchA to respond to packets received, but not to initiate negotiation. The interface range gigabitethernet0/0-15 command is entered. What must be configured next?

Options:

A.  

SwitchA(config-if-range) #channel-group 1 mode desirable

B.  

SwitchA(config-if-range) #channel-group 1 mode auto

C.  

SwitchA(config-if-range) #channel-group 1 mode active

D.  

SwitchA(config-if-range) #channel-group 1 mode passive

Discussion 0
Questions 129

Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands, when configured on router R1. fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.) ' Packets toward the entire network 2001:db8:23: :/64 must be forwarded through router R2. ' Packets toward host 2001: db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3.

Options:

A.  

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23: :/128 fd00:12::2

B.  

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/128 fd00:13::3

C.  

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2 200

D.  

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23: l4/64 fd00:12::2

E.  

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23: :/64 fd00:12::2

Discussion 0
Questions 130

How does MAC learning function?

Options:

A.  

Sends frames with unknown destinations to a multicast group.

B.  

Increases security on the management VLAN.

C.  

Rewrites the source and destination MAC address.

D.  

Associates the MAC address with the port on which it is received.

Discussion 0
Questions 131

Refer to the exhibit. The loopback IP of R3 has been learned via the two interfaces on R1. R1 is configured with a reference bandwidth of 10 Gbps. Based on the metric calculations, which next hop IP would be used for outgoing routing?

Options:

A.  

10.12.0.5

B.  

10.12.0.2

C.  

10.12.0.1

D.  

10.12.0.6

Discussion 0
Questions 132

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the metric for the route to the 192.168.10.33 host?

Options:

A.  

84

B.  

110

C.  

192

D.  

193

Discussion 0
Questions 133

Why are API keys used to enforce rate limiting?

Options:

A.  

to uniquely identify clients to monitor their usage patterns

B.  

to encrypt data to prevent excessive usage

C.  

to contain embedded permissions that automatically expire

D.  

to track the geographical location of each request

Discussion 0
Questions 134

What is the purpose of traffic shaping?

Options:

A.  

to mitigate delays over slow links

B.  

to provide fair queuing for buffered flows

C.  

to limit the bandwidth that a flow can use to

D.  

be a marking mechanism that identifies different flows

Discussion 0
Questions 135

Which switch port configuration must be configured when connected to an AP running in FlexConnect mode, and the WLANs use flex local switching?

Options:

A.  

access port with one VLAN

B.  

trunk port with pruned VLANs

C.  

Layer 3 port with an IP address

D.  

tagged port with MAC Filtering enabled

Discussion 0
Questions 136

A network security team noticed that an increasing number of employees are becoming victims of phishing attacks. Which security program should be implemented to mitigate the problem?

Options:

A.  

Physical access control

B.  

Software firewall enabled on all PCs

C.  

Email system patches

D.  

User awareness training

Discussion 0
Questions 137

Which action prevents debug messages from being sent via syslog while allowing other messages when an abnormally high number of syslog messages are generated by a device with the debug process turned on?

Options:

A.  

Use an access list to filter out the syslog messages.

B.  

Turn off the logging monitor in global configuration mode.

C.  

Disable logging to the console.

D.  

Set the logging trap severity level to informational.

Discussion 0
Questions 138

What are two benefits of private IPv4 addressing? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

provides external internet network connectivity

B.  

provides unlimited address ranges

C.  

propagates routing information to WAN links

D.  

reuses addresses at multiple sites

E.  

conserves globally unique address space

Discussion 0
Questions 139

Which statement describes virtual machines?

Options:

A.  

They include a guest OS and the service.

B.  

They enable the network to become agile and hardware-centric.

C.  

They use a supervisor to provide management for services.

D.  

They facilitate local management of infrastructure devices.

Discussion 0
Questions 140

Which type of protocol is VRRP?

Options:

A.  

uses dynamic IP address assignment

B.  

allows two or more routers to act as a default gateway

C.  

uses a destination IP address 224.0.0.102 for router-to-router communication

D.  

uses Cisco-proprietary First Hop Redundancy Protocol

Discussion 0
Questions 141

Which technology allows for logical Layer 3 separation on physical network equipment?

Options:

A.  

Virtual Route Forwarding

B.  

Virtual Switch System

C.  

IPsec Transport Mode

D.  

Time Division Multiplexer

Discussion 0
Questions 142

Which statement describes virtualization on containers?

Options:

A.  

It is a type of operating system virtualization that allows the host operating system to control the different CPU memory processes.

B.  

It emulates a physical computer and enables multiple machines to run with many operating systems on a physical machine.

C.  

It separates virtual machines from each other and allocates memory, processors, and storage to compute.

D.  

It contains a guest operating system and virtual partition of hardware for OS and requires application libraries.

Discussion 0
Questions 143

Refer to the exhibit.

Network services must be enabled on interface Gil/0734. Which configuration meets the needs for this implementation?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option

B.  

Option

C.  

Option

D.  

Option

Discussion 0
Questions 144

Refer to the exhibit.

How does router R1 forward packets destined to 10.0.4.10?

Options:

A.  

via 10.0.4.2

B.  

via 10.0.0.2

C.  

via FastEthernet0/1

D.  

via FastEthernet1/1

Discussion 0
Questions 145

Refer to the exhibit. Which tasks must be performed on the Download File tab to install new software using TCP port 22?)

Options:

A.  

Set the File Type to Code, set the Transfer Mode to SFTP, and specify the IP address of the WLC.

B.  

Set the File Type to Configuration, set the Transfer Mode to FTP, and specify the IP address of the file server.

C.  

Set the File Type to Code, set the Transfer Mode to SFTP, and specify the IP address of the file server.

D.  

Set the File Type to Configuration, set the Transfer Mode to SFTP, and specify the IP address of the WLC.

Discussion 0
Questions 146

An organization developed new security policies and decided to print the policies and distribute them to all personnel so that employees review and apply the policies. Which element of a security program is the organization implementing?

Options:

A.  

Asset identification

B.  

User training

C.  

Physical access control

D.  

Vulnerability control

Discussion 0
Questions 147

Refer to the exhibit. What is the value of the administrative distance for the default gateway?

Options:

A.  

10

B.  

0

C.  

1

D.  

110

Discussion 0
Questions 148

Which syslog message logging level displays interface line protocol up/down events?

Options:

A.  

Informational

B.  

debugging

C.  

alerts

D.  

notifications

Discussion 0
Questions 149

How is Al used to identify issues within network traffic?

Options:

A.  

II exclusively predicts device malfunctions.

B.  

It enhances data packet delivery speeds.

C.  

It simplifies traffic route mapping.

D.  

It analyzes patterns for anomaly detection.

Discussion 0
Questions 150

Refer to the exhibit. What is preventing host A from reaching the internet?

Options:

A.  

The domain name server is unreachable.

B.  

LAN and WAN network segments are different.

C.  

IP address assignment is incorrect.

D.  

The default gateway should be the first usable IP address.

Discussion 0
Questions 151

Refer to the exhibit. The routers R1-LAB and R2-LAB are configured with link-local addresses. What command must be applied to interface Gi0/0 on R1-LAB for an automated address self-assignment on the IPv6 network?

Options:

A.  

ipv6 address 2001:db8:1:0FFA:0::/64

B.  

ipv6 address 2001:db8:0:0FFA::1/64

C.  

ipv6 address 2001:db8:0:0FFA::/64 eui-64

D.  

ipv6 address 2001:db8:0:0FFA::/64 anycast

Discussion 0
Questions 152

Which AP mode wirelessly connects two separate network segments each set up within a different campus building?

Options:

A.  

mesh

B.  

local

C.  

bridge

D.  

point-to-point

Discussion 0
Questions 153

Which interface on the WLC is used exclusively as a DHCP relay?

Options:

A.  

distribution

B.  

service

C.  

AP-manager

D.  

virtual

Discussion 0
Questions 154

What is the total number of users permitted to simultaneously browse the controller management pages when using the AireOS GUI?

Options:

A.  

2

B.  

5

C.  

8

D.  

9

Discussion 0
Questions 155

What is a DNS lookup operation?

Options:

A.  

DNS server pings the destination to verify that it is available

B.  

serves requests over destination port 53

C.  

DNS server forwards the client to an alternate IP address when the primary IP is down

D.  

responds to a request for IP address to domain name resolution to the DNS server

Discussion 0
Questions 156

What are two benefits for using private IPv4 addressing? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

They alleviate the shortage of public IPv4 addresses.

B.  

They supply redundancy in the case of failure.

C.  

They offer Internet connectivity to endpoints on private networks.

D.  

They allow for Internet access from IoT devices.

E.  

They provide a layer of security from Internet threats.

Discussion 0
Questions 157

What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?

Options:

A.  

Reduces the forwarding table on network routers

B.  

Used on the external interface of a firewall

C.  

Used by ISPs when only one IP is needed to connect to the internet

D.  

Address space which is isolated from the internet

Discussion 0
Questions 158

All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.

The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.

1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

Using the second subnet

• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1

• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102

2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

c Using the second subnet

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on e0/0 on Sw101

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on eO/O on swi02

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 159

What is a characteristic of an SSID in wireless networks?

Options:

A.  

provides protection against spyware

B.  

eliminates network piggybacking

C.  

associates a name to a wireless network

D.  

allows easy file sharing between endpoints

Discussion 0
Questions 160

Refer to the exhibit. All routers In the network are configured. R2 must be the DR. After the engineer connected the devices, R1 was elected as the DR. Which command sequence must be configured on R2 to be elected as the DR in the network?

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 161

Which feature, when used on a WLC, allows it to bundle its distribution system ports into one 802.3ad group?

Options:

A.  

QinQ

B.  

ISL

C.  

PAgP

D.  

LAG

Discussion 0
Questions 162

Which two features are provided by Ansible in network automation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

supplying network credentials

B.  

role-based access control

C.  

agentless deployment

D.  

manual playbook runs

E.  

launching job templates using version control

Discussion 0
Questions 163

What is the default interface for in-band wireless network management on a WLC?

Options:

A.  

Redundant port

B.  

Out-of-band

C.  

Service port

D.  

Wireless management

Discussion 0
Questions 164

Which combination of methods satisfies the minimum security requirements when a new multifactor authentication solution is deployed?

Options:

A.  

password of 8 to 15 characters and personal 12-diglt PIN

B.  

authorized USB dongle and mobile phone

C.  

fingerprint scanning and facial recognition

D.  

complex password and time-based one-time password

Discussion 0
Questions 165

How does MAC learning function?

Options:

A.  

rewrites the source and destination MAC address

B.  

adds unknown source MAC addresses to the CAM table

C.  

sends the frame back to the source to verify availability

D.  

drops received MAC addresses not listed in the address table

Discussion 0
Questions 166

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring a wireless LAN with Web Passthrough Layer 3 Web Policy. Which action must the engineer take to complete the configuration?

Options:

A.  

Set the Layer 2 Security to 802.1X.

B.  

Enable TKIP and CCMP256 WPA2 Encryption.

C.  

Set the Layer 2 Security to None.

D.  

Enable the WPA Policy.

Discussion 0
Questions 167

What is the main purpose of SSH management access?

Options:

A.  

To support DES 56-bit and 3DES (168-bit) ciphers

B.  

To enable secured access to the inbound management interface

C.  

To validate management access with username and domain name only

D.  

To allow passwords protected with HTTPS encryption to be sent

Discussion 0
Questions 168

Refer to the exhibit. A guest WLAN must be created that prompts the client for a username and password on the local web page of the WLC. Which two actions must be performed on the Layer 2 tab before enabling the Authentication option on the Layer 3 tab? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

Uncheck the WPA Policy option check box, and check the WPA2 Policy option check box.

B.  

Uncheck the MAC Filtering option check box.

C.  

Change the WPA Encryption option from TKIP to CCMP(128AES).

D.  

Set the Security Type option to Personal.

E.  

Set the Layer 2 Security option to None.

Discussion 0
Questions 169

Refer to the exhibit. An LACP EtherChannel between two directly connected switches is in the configuration process.

Which command must be configured on switch SW2’s Gi0/1-2 interfaces to establish the channel to SW1?

Options:

A.  

channel-group 1 mode desirable

B.  

channel-group 1 mode on

C.  

channel-group 1 mode auto

D.  

channel-group 1 mode active

Discussion 0
Questions 170

An engineer requires a switch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?

Options:

A.  

switchport mode dynamic desirable

B.  

switchport mode trunk

C.  

switchport nonegotiate

D.  

switchport mode dynamic auto

Discussion 0
Questions 171

Refer to the exhibit. VLAN 23 is being implemented between SW1 and SW2. The command show interface ethernet0/0 switchport has been issued on SW1. Ethernet0/0 on SW1 is the uplink to SW2. Which command when entered on the uplink interface allows PC 1 and PC 2 to communicate without impact to the communication between PC 11 and PC 12?

Options:

A.  

switchport trunk allowed vlan 2-1001

B.  

switchport trunk allowed vlan add 23

C.  

switchport trunk allowed vlan 23

D.  

switchport trunk allowed vlan 22-23

Discussion 0
Questions 172

Refer to the exhibit.

Of the routes learned with dynamic routing protocols, which has the least preferred metric?

Options:

A.  

Local

B.  

EIGRP

C.  

OSPF

D.  

RIP

Discussion 0
Questions 173

What is represented by the word "LB13" within this JSON schema?

Options:

A.  

value

B.  

object

C.  

array

D.  

key

Discussion 0
Questions 174

What is a function of a northbound API in an SDN environment?

Options:

A.  

It supports distributed processing for configuration.

B.  

It relies on global provisioning and configuration.

C.  

It upgrades software and restores files.

D.  

It provides orchestration and network automation services.

Discussion 0
Questions 175

What is the purpose of the service-set identifier?

Options:

A.  

It identifies the wired network to which a network device is connected.

B.  

It identifies a wireless network for a mobile device to connect.

C.  

It identifies the wireless network to which an application must connect.

D.  

It identifies the wired network to which a user device is connected.

Discussion 0
Questions 176

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must document all Wi-Fi services on a new wireless LAN controller. The Wi-Fi SSID "Office_WLan" has Layer 2 Security. What is determined by this configuration?

Options:

A.  

There is a strong mutual authentication used between NAC and the network devices using x.509 standard.

B.  

There is an extra layer of security that ensures only authorized devices with known MAC addresses connect to the network.

C.  

There is a robust security mechanism configured to protect against various Layer 2 and Layer 3 attacks.

D.  

There is Galois cache algorithm configured that provides strong encryption and authentication.

Discussion 0
Questions 177

Refer to the exhibit. How must OSPF be configured on the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface of the neighbor device to achieve the desired neighbor relationship?

Options:

A.  

Router(config)#interface GigabitEthernet 0/0Router(config-if)#ip ospf network point-to-point

B.  

Router(config)#interface GigabitEthernet 0/0Router(config-if)#ip ospf cost 5

C.  

Router(config)#interface GigabitEthernet 0/0Router(config-if)#ip ospf 1 area 2

D.  

Router(config)#interface GigabitEthernet 0/0Router(config-if)#ip ospf priority 1

Discussion 0
Questions 178

How does MAC learning function?

Options:

A.  

inserts MAC addresses dynamically into the CAM table

B.  

restricts ports to a maximum of 10 dynamically-learned addresses

C.  

protects against denial of service attacks

D.  

rewrites the source and destination MAC address

Discussion 0
Questions 179

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is configuring a new WLAN for a wireless network that has these requirements:

    Dual-band clients that connect to the WLAN must be directed to the 5-GHz spectrum.

    Wireless clients on this WLAN must be able to apply VLAN settings from RADIUS attributes.

Which two actions meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

Enable the Aironet IE option.

B.  

Enable the Coverage Hole Detection option.

C.  

Set the MFP Client Protection option to Required

D.  

Enable the client band select option.

E.  

Enable the allow AAA Override option

Discussion 0
Questions 180

What is the difference between the TCP and UDP protocols?

Options:

A.  

TCP ensures ordered, reliable data delivery, and UDP offers low latency and high throughput.

B.  

TCP is used for transmitting data over the internet, and UDP is used for transmitting data over a local network.

C.  

TCP manages multicast and broadcast data transfers, and UDP only handles unicast communications.

D.  

TCP is used to ensure data integrity in a file transfer, and UDP is used to broadcast a message to multiple recipients.

Discussion 0
Questions 181

Where are the real-time control functions processed in a split MAC architecture?

Options:

A.  

Centralized cloud management platform

B.  

Central WLC

C.  

Individual AP

D.  

Client device

Discussion 0
Questions 182

How does automation leverage data models to reduce the operational complexity of a managed network?

Options:

A.  

Reduces the response time for specific requests to devices with many interfaces

B.  

Categorizes traffic and provides insights

C.  

Allows the controller to be vendor-agnostic

D.  

Streamlines monitoring using SNMP and other polling tools

Discussion 0
Questions 183

Which header must be included in a REST request from an application that requires JSON-formatted content?

Options:

A.  

Content-Type: application/json

B.  

Accept-Encoding: application/json

C.  

Accept: application/json

D.  

Accept-Language: application/json

Discussion 0
Questions 184

Refer to the exhibit. After a recent internal security audit, the network administrator decided to block all P2P-capable devices from the selected SSID. Which configuration setting must the administrator apply?

Options:

A.  

Set the P2P Block Action to Drop.

B.  

Select a correctly configured Layer 2 ACL.

C.  

Set the Wi-Fi Direct Client Policy to Not-Allow.

D.  

Set the MFP Client Protection to Required.

Discussion 0
Questions 185

Refer to the exhibit.

What is occurring on this switch?

Options:

A.  

A high number of frames smaller than 64 bytes are received.

B.  

Frames are dropped after 16 failed transmission attempts.

C.  

The internal transmit buffer is overloaded.

D.  

An excessive number of frames greater than 1518 bytes are received.

Discussion 0
Questions 186

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured

1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends

2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.

4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 187

Refer to the exhibit.

Which IPv6 configuration is required for R17 to successfully ping the WAN interface on R18?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 188

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer deploys a topology in which R1 obtains its IP configuration from DHCP. If

the switch and DHCP server configurations are complete and correct. Which two sets of commands must be configured on R1 and R2 to complete the task? (Choose two)

Options:

A.  

R1(config)# interface fa0/0R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100

B.  

R2(config)# interface gi0/0R2(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100

C.  

R1(config)# interface fa0/0R1(config-if)# ip address dhcpR1(config-if)# no shutdown

D.  

R2(config)# interface gi0/0R2(config-if)# ip address dhcp

E.  

R1(config)# interface fa0/0R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 192.0.2.2

Discussion 0
Questions 189

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,

and the network connectivity between them must be configured.

I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it

between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and

Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.

2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.

4. Configure VLAN 'MONITORING' as the untagged VLAN of the

EtherChannel.

==================

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 190

Which two primary drivers support the need for network automation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

Eliminating training needs

B.  

Increasing reliance on self-diagnostic and self-healing

C.  

Policy-derived provisioning of resources

D.  

Providing a ship entry point for resource provisioning

E.  

Reducing hardware footprint

Discussion 0
Questions 191

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator assumes a task to complete the connectivity between PC A and the File Server. Switch A and Switch B have been partially configured with VLAN 10, 11, 12, and 13. What is the next step in the configuration?

Options:

A.  

Add PC A to VLAN 10 and the File Server to VLAN 11 fa VLAN segmentation

B.  

Add VLAN 13 to the trunk links on Switch A and Switch B for VLAN propagation

C.  

Add a router on a stick between Switch A and Switch B allowing for Inter-VLAN routing.

D.  

Add PC A to the same subnet as the Fie Server allowing for intra-VLAN communication.

Discussion 0
Questions 192

What is a role of access points in an enterprise network?

Options:

A.  

connect wireless devices to a wired network

B.  

support secure user logins to devices or the network

C.  

integrate with SNMP in preventing DDoS attacks

D.  

serve as a first line of defense in an enterprise network

Discussion 0
Questions 193

Refer to the exhibit.

Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A?

Options:

A.  

10.10.10.0/28

B.  

10.10.13.0/25

C.  

10.10.13.144/28

D.  

10.10.13.208/29

Discussion 0
Questions 194

What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?

Options:

A.  

traverse the Internet when an outbound ACL is applied

B.  

issued by IANA in conjunction with an autonomous system number

C.  

composed of up to 65.536 available addresses

D.  

used without tracking or registration

Discussion 0
Questions 195

A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet?

Options:

A.  

ip route 10.10.1.0 255.255.255.240 10.10.255.1

B.  

ip route 10.10.1.16 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1

C.  

ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1

D.  

ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.254 10.10.255.1

Discussion 0
Questions 196

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface?

Options:

A.  

The frame is processed in VLAN 5.

B.  

The frame is processed in VLAN 11

C.  

The frame is processed in VLAN 1

D.  

The frame is dropped

Discussion 0
Questions 197

What role does a hypervisor provide for each virtual machine in server virtualization?

Options:

A.  

infrastructure-as-a-service.

B.  

Software-as-a-service

C.  

control and distribution of physical resources

D.  

services as a hardware controller.

Discussion 0
Questions 198

Refer to Exhibit.

Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 199

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP All other computers must be able to access the web server Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 200

Refer to the exhibit.

If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1 120 command how does the router respond?

Options:

A.  

It ignores the new static route until the existing OSPF default route is removed

B.  

It immediately replaces the existing OSPF route in the routing table with the newly configured static route

C.  

It starts load-balancing traffic between the two default routes

D.  

It starts sending traffic without a specific matching entry in the routing table to GigabitEthernet0/1

Discussion 0
Questions 201

What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?

Options:

A.  

The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted

B.  

The interface ID is configured as a random 64-bit value

C.  

The characters FE80 are inserted at the beginning of the MAC address of the interface

D.  

The MAC address of the interface is used as the interface ID without modification

Discussion 0
Questions 202

Which command must be entered to configure a DHCP relay?

Options:

A.  

ip helper-address

B.  

ip address dhcp

C.  

ip dhcp pool

D.  

ip dhcp relay

Discussion 0
Questions 203

What are two characteristics of a public cloud Implementation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

It is owned and maintained by one party, but it is shared among multiple organizations.

B.  

It enables an organization to fully customize how It deploys network resources.

C.  

It provides services that are accessed over the Internet.

D.  

It Is a data center on the public Internet that maintains cloud services for only one company.

E.  

It supports network resources from a centralized third-party provider and privately-owned virtual resources

Discussion 0
Questions 204

What are two benefits of using the PortFast feature? (Choose two )

Options:

A.  

Enabled interfaces are automatically placed in listening state

B.  

Enabled interfaces come up and move to the forwarding state immediately

C.  

Enabled interfaces never generate topology change notifications.

D.  

Enabled interfaces that move to the learning state generate switch topology change notifications

E.  

Enabled interfaces wait 50 seconds before they move to the forwarding state

Discussion 0
Questions 205

What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?

Options:

A.  

They support an inline optical attenuator to enhance signal strength

B.  

They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable

C.  

They offer reliable bandwidth up to 100 Mbps in half duplex mode

D.  

They accommodate single-mode and multi-mode in a single module

Discussion 0
Questions 206

A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path?

Options:

A.  

cost

B.  

adminstrative distance

C.  

metric

D.  

as-path

Discussion 0
Questions 207

Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)

Options:

A.  

The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image

B.  

The Ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch

C.  

IP routing must be enabled on the switch

D.  

A console password must be configured on the switch

E.  

Telnet must be disabled on the switch

Discussion 0
Questions 208

A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?

Options:

A.  

enable AAA override

B.  

enable RX-SOP

C.  

enable DTIM

D.  

enable Band Select

Discussion 0
Questions 209

Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true?

Options:

A.  

To pass client traffic two or more ports must be configured.

B.  

The EtherChannel must be configured in "mode active"

C.  

When enabled the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps

D.  

One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic

Discussion 0
Questions 210

Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are used to limit collisions?

Options:

A.  

1,6,11

B.  

1,5,10

C.  

1,2,3

D.  

5,6,7

Discussion 0
Questions 211

How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?

Options:

A.  

Cisco DNA Center device management can deploy a network more quickly than traditional campus device management

B.  

Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale more quickly than with Cisco DNA Center device management

C.  

Cisco DNA Center device management can be implemented at a lower cost than most traditional campus device management options

D.  

Traditional campus device management schemes can typically deploy patches and updates more quickly than Cisco DNA Center device management

Discussion 0
Questions 212

Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?

Options:

A.  

disabling TPC so that access points can negotiate signal levels with their attached wireless devices.

B.  

setting the maximum data rate to 54 Mbps on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller

C.  

allocating nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another

D.  

configuring access points to provide clients with a maximum of 5 Mbps

Discussion 0
Questions 213

Refer to the exhibit.

The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which two tasks must be performed so that the Serial0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers can reach one another?

(Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::1 command on the Washington router.

B.  

Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::1 command on the Atlanta router.

C.  

Configure the Ipv6 route 2012::/126 s0/0/0 command on the Atlanta router.

D.  

Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::2 command on the Atlanta router.

E.  

Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::2 command on the Washington router.

Discussion 0
Questions 214

An administrator must secure the WLC from receiving spoofed association requests. Which steps must be taken to configure the WLC to restrict the requests and force the user to wait 10 ms to retry an association request?

Options:

A.  

Enable Security Association Teardown Protection and set the SA Query timeout to 10

B.  

Enable MAC filtering and set the SA Query timeout to 10

C.  

Enable 802.1x Layer 2 security and set me Comeback timer to 10

D.  

Enable the Protected Management Frame service and set the Comeback timer to 10

Discussion 0
Questions 215

What Is the path for traffic sent from one user workstation to another workstation on a separate switch In a Ihree-lter architecture model?

Options:

A.  

access - core - distribution - access

B.  

access - distribution - distribution - access

C.  

access - core - access

D.  

access -distribution - core - distribution - access

Discussion 0
Questions 216

Refer to the exhibit.

To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?

Options:

A.  

Router2

B.  

Router3

C.  

Router4

D.  

Router5

Discussion 0
Questions 217

An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GH2 access points?

Options:

A.  

Re- Anchor Roamed Clients

B.  

11ac MU-MIMO

C.  

OEAP Split Tunnel

D.  

Client Band Select

Discussion 0
Questions 218

Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and is unable to route on the Internet?

Options:

A.  

global unicast

B.  

unique local

C.  

link-local

D.  

multicast

Discussion 0
Questions 219

An organization secures its network with multi-factor authentication using an authenticator app on employee smartphone. How is the application secured in the case of a user’s smartphone being lost or stolen?

Options:

A.  

The application requires an administrator password to reactivate after a configured Interval.

B.  

The application requires the user to enter a PIN before it provides the second factor.

C.  

The application challenges a user by requiring an administrator password to reactivate when the smartphone is rebooted.

D.  

The application verifies that the user is in a specific location before it provides the second factor.

Discussion 0
Questions 220

Where does wireless authentication happen?

Options:

A.  

SSID

B.  

radio

C.  

band

D.  

Layer 2

Discussion 0
Questions 221

What prevents a workstation from receiving a DHCP address?

Options:

A.  

DTP

B.  

STP

C.  

VTP

D.  

802.10

Discussion 0
Questions 222

Drag and drop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto the transmission protocols on the right

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 223

R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS. OSPF, RIP. and Internal EIGRP Under normal operating conditions, which routing protocol is installed in the routing table?

Options:

A.  

IS-IS

B.  

RIP

C.  

Internal EIGRP

D.  

OSPF

Discussion 0
Questions 224

Refer to Exhibit.

Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?

Options:

A.  

The trunk does not form and the ports go into an err-disabled status.

B.  

The trunk forms but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain.

C.  

The trunk does not form, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are allowed to traverse the link.

D.  

The trunk forms but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are in a shutdown state.

Discussion 0
Questions 225

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator configures four switches for local authentication using passwords that are stored in a cryptographic hash. The four switches must also support SSH access for administrators to manage the network infrastructure. Which switch is configured correctly to meet these requirements?

Options:

A.  

SW1

B.  

SW2

C.  

SW3

D.  

SW4

Discussion 0
Questions 226

The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration?

Options:

A.  

restricts unauthorized users from viewing clear-text passwords in the running configuration

B.  

encrypts the password exchange when a VPN tunnel is established

C.  

prevents network administrators from configuring clear-text passwords

D.  

protects the VLAN database from unauthorized PC connections on the switch

Discussion 0
Questions 227

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer booted a new switch and applied this configuration via the console port. Which additional configuration must be applied to allow administrators to authenticate directly to enable privilege mode via Telnet using a local username and password?

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 228

How does WPA3 improve security?

Options:

A.  

It uses SAE for authentication.

B.  

It uses a 4-way handshake for authentication.

C.  

It uses RC4 for encryption.

D.  

It uses TKIP for encryption.

Discussion 0
Questions 229

How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services and access control?

Options:

A.  

Authorization provides access control and authentication tracks user services

B.  

Authentication identifies users and accounting tracks user services

C.  

Accounting tracks user services, and authentication provides access control

D.  

Authorization identifies users and authentication provides access control

Discussion 0
Questions 230

Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two)

Options:

A.  

The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exiting Interface by 256.

B.  

The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor.

C.  

The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route

D.  

The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the local router of the bandwidth on the link

E.  

The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route

Discussion 0
Questions 231

What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating state route? (Choose two)

Options:

A.  

to automatically route traffic on a secondary path when the primary path goes down

B.  

to route traffic differently based on the source IP of the packet

C.  

to enable fallback static routing when the dynamic routing protocol fails

D.  

to support load balancing via static routing

E.  

to control the return path of traffic that is sent from the router

Discussion 0
Questions 232

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route type is configured to reach the internet?

Options:

A.  

host route

B.  

default route

C.  

floating static route

D.  

network route

Discussion 0
Questions 233

Drag and drop to the characteristics of networking from the left onto the correct networking types on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 234

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command configures a floating static route to provide a backup to the primary link?

Options:

A.  

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.202.131

B.  

ip route 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 209.165.202.130

C.  

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.224

D.  

ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 209.165.202.129 254

Discussion 0
Questions 235

Which networking function occurs on the data plane?

Options:

A.  

forwarding remote client/server traffic

B.  

facilitates spanning-tree elections

C.  

processing inbound SSH management traffic

D.  

sending and receiving OSPF Hello packets

Discussion 0
Questions 236

A network administrator needs to aggregate 4 ports into a single logical link which must negotiate layer 2 connectivity to ports on another switch. What must be configured when using active mode on both sides of the connection?

Options:

A.  

802.1q trunks

B.  

Cisco vPC

C.  

LLDP

D.  

LACP

Discussion 0
Questions 237

A corporate office uses four floors in a building

• Floor 1 has 24 users

• Floor 2 has 29 users

• Floor 3 has 28 users

•Floor 4 has 22 users

Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration?

Options:

A.  

192.168.0.0/26 as summary and 192.168.0.0/29 for each floor

B.  

192.168.0.0.24 as summary and 192.168.0.0/28 for each floor

C.  

192.168.0.0/23 as summary and 192.168.0.0/25 for each floor

D.  

l92.168.0.0/25 as summary and 192.168.0.0/27 for each floor

Discussion 0
Questions 238

Refer to Exhibit.

How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain?

Options:

A.  

It processes VTP updates from any VTP clients on the network on its access ports.

B.  

It receives updates from all VTP servers and forwards all locally configured VLANs out all trunk ports

C.  

It forwards only the VTP advertisements that it receives on its trunk ports.

D.  

It transmits and processes VTP updates from any VTP Clients on the network on its trunk ports

Discussion 0
Questions 239

An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2- PSK. Which cipher fulfills the configuration requirement?

Options:

A.  

WEP

B.  

RC4

C.  

AES

D.  

TKIP

Discussion 0
Questions 240

Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings from the left onto the correct security mechanism categories on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 241

Refer to the exhibit.

How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16?

Options:

A.  

It selects the IS-IS route because it has the shortest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

B.  

It selects the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance.

C.  

It selects the OSPF route because it has the lowest cost.

D.  

It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

Discussion 0
Questions 242

If a switch port receives a new frame while it is actively transmitting a previous frame, how does it process the frames?

Options:

A.  

The new frame is delivered first, the previous frame is dropped, and a retransmission request is sent.

B.  

The previous frame is delivered, the new frame is dropped, and a retransmission request is sent.

C.  

The new frame is placed in a queue for transmission after the previous frame.

D.  

The two frames are processed and delivered at the same time.

Discussion 0
Questions 243

Refer to the exhibit.

Only four switches are participating in the VLAN spanning-tree process.

Branch-1 priority 614440

Branch-2: priority 39082416

Branch-3: priority 0

Branch-4: root primary

Which switch becomes the permanent root bridge for VLAN 5?

Options:

A.  

Branch-1

B.  

Branch-2

C.  

Branch-3

D.  

Branch-4

Discussion 0
Questions 244

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring the HO router. Which IPv6 address configuration must be applied to the router fa0'1 interface for the router to assign a unique 64-brt IPv6 address to Itself?

Options:

A.  

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FF:FE0F:7/64

B.  

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FE:800F:7/64

C.  

ipv6 address 2001 :DB8:0:1:FFFF:C601:420F:7/64

D.  

iov6 address 2001 :DB8:0:1:FE80:C601:420F:7/64

Discussion 0
Questions 245

Which PoE mode enables powered-device detection and guarantees power when the device is detected?

Options:

A.  

dynamic

B.  

static

C.  

active

D.  

auto

Discussion 0
Questions 246

An engineer is configuring remote access to a router from IP subnet 10.139.58.0/28. The domain name, crypto keys, and SSH have been configured. Which configuration enables the traffic on the destination router?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 247

Refer to Exhibit.

An engineer is configuring the NEW York router to reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router using interface Se0/0/0 as the primary path. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router so that it can reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router via Washington when the link between New York and Atlanta goes down? (Choose two)

Options:

A.  

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::1

B.  

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::1 5

C.  

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::2

D.  

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023::2 5

E.  

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023::3 5

Discussion 0
Questions 248

Refer to the exhibit.

With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?

Options:

A.  

0

B.  

110

C.  

38443

D.  

3184439

Discussion 0
Questions 249

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192 168.16.2?

Options:

A.  

192.168.16.0/21

B.  

192.168.16.0/24

C.  

192.168 26.0/26

D.  

192.168.16.0/27

Discussion 0
Questions 250

Refer to the exhibit.

An IP subnet must be configured on each router that provides enough addresses for the number of assigned hosts and anticipates no more than 10% growth for now hosts. Which configuration script must be used?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 251

Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding slate actions from the loft to the right. Not all actions are used.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 252

R1 as an NTP server must have:

• NTP authentication enabled

• NTP packets sourced from Interface loopback 0

• NTP stratum 2

• NTP packets only permitted to client IP 209.165 200 225

How should R1 be configured?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 253

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernetO/1 on router R4?

Options:

A.  

interface FastEthernet0/0ip helper-address 10.0.1.1iaccess-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

B.  

interface FastEthernot0/1ip helper-address 10.0.1.1!access-list 100 permit tcp host 10.0.1.1 eq 67 host 10.148.2.1

C.  

interface FastEthernetO/0ip helper-address 10.0.1.1Iaccess-list 100 permit host 10.0.1.1 host 10.148.2.1 eq bootps

D.  

interface FastEthernet0/1ip helper-address 10.0.1.1!access-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

Discussion 0
Questions 254

Which QoS per-hop behavior changes the value of the ToS field in the IPv4 packet header?

Options:

A.  

shaping

B.  

classification

C.  

policing

D.  

marking

Discussion 0
Questions 255

Refer to the exhibit.

Site A was recently connected to site B over a new single-mode fiber path. Users at site A report Intermittent connectivity Issues with applications hosted at site B. What is the reason for the problem?

Options:

A.  

Heavy usage is causing high latency.

B.  

An incorrect type of transceiver has been inserted into a device on the link.

C.  

physical network errors are being transmitted between the two sites.

D.  

The wrong cable type was used to make the connection.

Discussion 0
Questions 256

Which QoS traffic handling technique retains excess packets in a queue and reschedules these packets for later transmission when the configured maximum bandwidth has been surpassed?

Options:

A.  

weighted random early detection

B.  

traffic policing

C.  

traffic shaping

D.  

traffic prioritization

Discussion 0
Questions 257

Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic sourced from the loopback0 Interface is trying to connect via ssh to the host at 10.0.1.15. What Is the next hop to the destination address?

Options:

A.  

192.168.0.7

B.  

192.168.0.4

C.  

192.168.0.40

D.  

192.168.3.5

Discussion 0
Questions 258

Refer to the exhibit.

The DHCP server and clients are connected to the same switch. What is the next step to complete the DHCP configuration to allow clients on VLAN 1 to receive addresses from the DHCP server?

Options:

A.  

Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interlace that is connected to the DHCP client.

B.  

Configure the ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP client.

C.  

Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.

D.  

Configure the Ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.

Discussion 0
Questions 259

An engineer must configure R1 for a new user account. The account must meet these requirements:

* It must be configured in the local database.

* The username is engineer.

* It must use the strongest password configurable. Which command must the engineer configure on the router?

Options:

A.  

R1 (config)# username engineer2 algorithm-type scrypt secret test2021

B.  

R1(config)# username engineer2 secret 5 password S1$b1Ju$kZbBS1Pyh4QzwXyZ

C.  

R1(config)# username engineer2 privilege 1 password 7 test2021

D.  

R1(config)# username englneer2 secret 4 S1Sb1Ju$kZbBS1Pyh4QzwXyZ

Discussion 0
Questions 260

Refer to the exhibit.

The link between PC1 and the switch is up. but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?

Options:

A.  

There is a duplex mismatch on the interface

B.  

There is an issue with the fiber on the switch interface.

C.  

There is a speed mismatch on the interface.

D.  

There is an interface type mismatch

Discussion 0
Questions 261

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 262

Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 263

Refer to the exhibit.

Which next-hop IP address does Routed use for packets destined to host 10 10.13.158?

Options:

A.  

10.10.10.5

B.  

10.10.11.2

C.  

10.10.12.2

D.  

10.10.10.9

Discussion 0
Questions 264

Refer to the exhibit.

Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802. 11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building What must be the configuration of the connection?

Options:

A.  

Select the WPA Policy option with the CCKM option.

B.  

Disable AES encryption.

C.  

Enable Fast Transition and select the FT 802.1x option.

D.  

Enable Fast Transition and select the FT PSK option.

Discussion 0
Questions 265

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency while acting as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 266

A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the vlan 2000 interface to create a routable locally-unique unicast address that is blocked from being advertised to the internet. Which configuration must the engineer apply?

Options:

A.  

interface vlan 2000ipv6 address ffc0:0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64

B.  

interface vlan 2000Ipv6 address fc00:0000:aaaa:a15d:1234:2343:8aca/64

C.  

interface vlan 2000ipv6 address fe80;0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64

D.  

interface vlan 2000ipv6 address fd00::1234:2343/64

Discussion 0
Questions 267

Which protocol uses the SSL?

Options:

A.  

HTTP

B.  

SSH

C.  

HTTPS

D.  

Telnet

Discussion 0
Questions 268

A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal network. Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign?

Options:

A.  

unique local address

B.  

link-local address

C.  

aggregatable global address

D.  

IPv4-compatible IPv6 address

Discussion 0
Questions 269

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 learns all routes via OSPF Which command configures a backup static route on R1 to reach the 192 168.20.0/24 network via R3?

Options:

A.  

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.30.2

B.  

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2 90

C.  

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2 111

D.  

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2

Discussion 0
Questions 270

Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address but is assigned to multiple devices on the same network at the same time?

Options:

A.  

global unicast address

B.  

anycast address

C.  

multicast address

D.  

link-local address

Discussion 0
Questions 271

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands must be configured on router R1 to enable the router to accept secure remote-access connections? (Choose two)

Options:

A.  

transport input telnet

B.  

crypto key generate rsa

C.  

ip ssh pubkey-chain

D.  

login console

E.  

username cisco password 0 Cisco

Discussion 0
Questions 272

An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port security to ensure devices that forward unicasts multicasts and broadcasts are unable to flood the port The port must be configured to permit only two random MAC addresses at a time Drag and drop the required configuration commands from the left onto the sequence on the right Not all commands are used.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 273

Which wireless security protocol relies on Perfect Forward Secrecy?

Options:

A.  

WPA3

B.  

WPA

C.  

WEP

D.  

WPA2

Discussion 0
Questions 274

Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 275

What is a function of Opportunistic Wireless Encryption in an environment?

Options:

A.  

offer compression

B.  

increase security by using a WEP connection

C.  

provide authentication

D.  

protect traffic on open networks

Discussion 0
Questions 276

Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?

Options:

A.  

SYIM flood

B.  

reflection

C.  

teardrop

D.  

amplification

Discussion 0
Questions 277

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command configures OSPF on the point-to-point link between routers R1 and R2?

Options:

A.  

router-id 10.0.0.15

B.  

neighbor 10.1.2.0 cost 180

C.  

ipospf priority 100

D.  

network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

Discussion 0
Questions 278

Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?

Options:

A.  

HTTPS

B.  

HTTP

C.  

Telnet

D.  

SSH

Discussion 0
Questions 279

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?

Options:

A.  

Configure the OSPF priority on router A with the lowest value between the three routers.

B.  

Configure router B and router C as OSPF neighbors of router A.

C.  

Configure the router A interfaces with the highest OSPF priority value within the area.

D.  

Configure router A with a fixed OSPF router ID

Discussion 0
Questions 280

A network engineer must configure two new subnets using the address block 10 70 128 0/19 to meet these requirements:

• The first subnet must support 24 hosts

• The second subnet must support 472 hosts

• Both subnets must use the longest subnet mask possible from the address block

Which two configurations must be used to configure the new subnets and meet a requirement to use the first available address in each subnet for the router interfaces? (Choose two )

Options:

A.  

interface vlan 1234ip address 10.70.159.1 255.255.254.0

B.  

interface vlan 1148ip address 10.70.148.1 255.255.254.0

C.  

interface vlan 4722ip address 10.70.133.17 255.255.255.192

D.  

interface vlan 3002ip address 10.70.147.17 255.255.255.224

E.  

interface vlan 155ip address 10.70.155.65 255.255.255.224

Discussion 0
Questions 281

A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address 2001 0EB8 00C1 2200:0001 0000 0000 0331/64 To simplify the configuration the administrator has decided to compress the address Which IP address must the administrator configure?

Options:

A.  

ipv6 address 21:EB8:C1:2200:1::331/64

B.  

ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:22:1::331/64

C.  

ipv6 address 2001 :EB8:C 1:2200.1 ::331-64

D.  

ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:2200:1:0000:331/64

Discussion 0
Questions 282

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is updating the R1 configuration to connect a new server to the management network. The PCs on the management network must be blocked from pinging the default gateway of the new server. Which command must be configured on R1 to complete the task?

Options:

A.  

R1(config)#lp route 172.16.2.2 255.255.255.248 gi0/1

B.  

R1(config)#jp route 172.16.2.2 255.255.255.255 gi0/0

C.  

R1(config>#ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.15

D.  

R1(conflg)#ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.5

Discussion 0
Questions 283

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode active

B.  

int range g0/0-1 chanm.l-group 10 mode desirable

C.  

int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode passive

D.  

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode auto

E.  

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode on

Discussion 0
Questions 284

Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch becomes the root of a spanning tree for VLAN 20 if all li links are of equal speed?

Options:

A.  

SW1

B.  

SW2

C.  

SW3

D.  

SW4

Discussion 0
Questions 285

A Cisco engineer must configure a single switch interface to meet these requirements

• accept untagged frames and place them in VLAN 20

• accept tagged frames in VLAN 30 when CDP detects a Cisco IP phone

Which command set must the engineer apply?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 286

Which two network actions occur within the data plane? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

Add or remove an 802.1Q trunking header.

B.  

Make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC.

C.  

Run routing protocols.

D.  

Match the destination MAC address to the MAC address table.

E.  

Reply to an incoming ICMP echo request.

Discussion 0
Questions 287

Refer to the exhibit.

How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?

Options:

A.  

Modify the configured number of the second access list.

B.  

Add either the ip nat {inside|outside} command under both interfaces.

C.  

Remove the overload keyword from the ip nat inside source command.

D.  

Change the ip nat inside source command to use interface GigabitEthernet0/0.

Discussion 0
Questions 288

What is a requirement when configuring or removing LAG on a WLC?

Options:

A.  

The Incoming and outgoing ports for traffic flow must be specified If LAG Is enabled.

B.  

The controller must be rebooted after enabling or reconfiguring LAG.

C.  

The management interface must be reassigned if LAG disabled.

D.  

Multiple untagged interfaces on the same port must be supported.

Discussion 0
Questions 289

Which value is the unique identifier that an access point uses to establish and maintain wireless connectivity to wireless network devices?

Options:

A.  

VLANID

B.  

SSID

C.  

RFID

D.  

WLANID

Discussion 0
Questions 290

What is the function of the controller in a software-defined network?

Options:

A.  

multicast replication at the hardware level

B.  

fragmenting and reassembling packets

C.  

making routing decisions

D.  

forwarding packets

Discussion 0
Questions 291

A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is remotely reachable via SSH. The engineer has already configured the host name on the router. Which additional command must the engineer configure before entering the command to generate the RSA key?

Options:

A.  

password password

B.  

crypto key generate rsa modulus 1024

C.  

ip domain-name domain

D.  

ip ssh authentication-retries 2

Discussion 0
Questions 292

Which advantage does the network assurance capability of Cisco DNA Center provide over traditional campus management?

Options:

A.  

Cisco DNA Center correlates information from different management protocols to obtain insights, and traditional campus management requires manual analysis.

B.  

Cisco DNA Center handles management tasks at the controller to reduce the load on infrastructure devices, and traditional campus management uses the data backbone.

C.  

Cisco DNA Center leverages YANG and NETCONF to assess the status of fabric and nonfabric devices, and traditional campus management uses CLI exclusively.

D.  

Cisco DNA Center automatically compares security postures among network devices, and traditional campus management needs manual comparisons.

Discussion 0
Questions 293

Refer to the exhibit.

Which types of JSON data is shown

Options:

A.  

Object

B.  

Sequence

C.  

String

D.  

boolean

Discussion 0
Questions 294

What does WPA3 provide in wireless networking?

Options:

A.  

safeguards against brute force attacks with SAE

B.  

optional Protected Management Frame negotiation

C.  

backward compatibility with WPAand WPA2

D.  

increased security and requirement of a complex configuration

Discussion 0
Questions 295

Drag and drop the steps in a standard DNS lookup operation from the left into the order on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 296

Refer to the exhibit Routers R1 R2 and R3 use a protocol to identify their neighbors' IP addresses hardware platforms, and software versions. A network engineer must configure R2 to avoid sharing any neighbor information with R3, and maintain its relationship with R1. What action meets this requirement?

Options:

A.  

Configure the no cdp enable command on gO/2.

B.  

Configure the no cdp run command globally.

C.  

Configure the no lldp run command globally.

D.  

Configure the no lldp receive command on gQV1.

Discussion 0
Questions 297

Exhibit.

The switches are connected via a Cat5 Ethernet cable that was successfully tested. The Interfaces are configured as access ports and are both in a 'down" status. What is the cause of this issue?

Options:

A.  

The switches are configured with incompatible duplex settings.

B.  

The distance between the two switches is not supported by Cut5.

C.  

The speed settings on the switches are mismatched.

D.  

The portfast command is missing from the configuration.

Discussion 0
Questions 298

Refer to the exhibit. How does router R1 handle traffic to the 172.16.1.4/30 subnet?

Options:

A.  

It sends all traffic over the path via 172.16.9.5 using 172.16.4.4 as a backup.

B.  

It sends all traffic over the path via 172.16.4.4.

C.  

It load-balances traffic over 172.16.9.5 and 172.16.4.4.

D.  

It sends all traffic over the path via 10.0.1.100

Discussion 0
Questions 299

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer just installed network 10.120.10.0/24. Which configuration must be applied to the R14 router to add the new network to its OSPF routing table?

Options:

A.  

router ospf 100network 10.120.10.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

B.  

router ospf 120network 10.120.10.0 255.255.255.0 area 0ip route 10.120.10.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/1

C.  

router ospf 100 area 0network 10.120.10.0 0.0.0.255

Discussion 0
Questions 300

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 301

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer executed the script and added commands that were not necessary for SSH and must now remove the commands. Which two commands must be executed to correct the configuration? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

no ip domain name ccna.cisco.com

B.  

no login local

C.  

no service password-encryption

D.  

no ip name-server 198.51.100.210

E.  

no hostname CPE

Discussion 0
Questions 302

Which two IPv6 addresses are used to provide connectivity between two routers on a shared link? (Choose two)

Options:

A.  

::ffif 1014 1011/96

B.  

2001 7011046:1111:1/64

C.  

;jff06bb43cd4dd111bbff02 4545234d

D.  

2002 5121204b 1111:1/64

E.  

FF02::0WlFF00:0l)00/104

Discussion 0
Questions 303

A switch is a forwarding a frame out of an interfaces except the interface that received the frame. What is the technical term for this process?

Options:

A.  

ARP

B.  

CDP

C.  

flooding

D.  

multicast

Discussion 0
Questions 304

Refer to the exhibit.

An OSPF neighbor relationship must be configured using these guidelines:

• R1 is only permitted to establish a neighbor with R2

• R1 will never participate in DR elections

• R1 will use a router-id of 101.1.1.

Which configuration must be used?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option

B.  

Option

C.  

Option

D.  

Option

Discussion 0
Questions 305

How do TCP and UDP fit into a query-response model?

Options:

A.  

TCP establishes a connection prior to sending data, and UDP sends immediately.

B.  

TCP uses error detection for packets, and UDP uses error recovery.

C.  

TCP avoids using sequencing, and UDP avoids using acknowledgments.

D.  

TCP encourages out-of-order packet delivery, and UDP prevents re-ordering.

Discussion 0
Questions 306

Why is TCP desired over UDP for application that require extensive error checking, such as HTTPS?

Options:

A.  

UDP operates without acknowledgments, and TCP sends an acknowledgment for every packet received.

B.  

UDP reliably guarantees delivery of all packets, and TCP drops packets under heavy load.

C.  

UDP uses flow control mechanisms for the delivery of packets, and TCP uses congestion control for efficient packet delivery.

D.  

UDP uses sequencing data tor packets to arrive in order, and TCP offers trie capability to receive packets in random order.

Discussion 0
Questions 307

Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 308

What does the implementation of a first-hop redundancy protocol protect against on a network?

Options:

A.  

root-bridge loss

B.  

spanning-tree loops

C.  

default gateway failure

D.  

BGP neighbor flapping

Discussion 0
Questions 309

Refer to the exhibit. Company A wants to use a RADIUS server to service all user and device authentication attempts with a more secure and granular authentication approach. Not all client devices support dot1x authentication. Which two configuration changes must be made to accomplish the task? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

Enable AutoConfig IPSK under the Layer 2 tab.

B.  

Select Authentication server under the AAA servers tab.

C.  

Configure Enterprise Security type under the Layer 2 tab.

D.  

Set Authentication under the Layer 3 tab.

E.  

Enable WPA2 Policy under the Layer 2 tab.

Discussion 0
Questions 310

A client experiences slow throughput from a server that is directly connected to the core switch in a data center. A network engineer finds minimal latency on connections to the server, but data transfers are unreliable, and the output of the show Interfaces counters errors command shows a high FCS-Err count on the interface that is connected to the server. What is the cause of the throughput issue?

Options:

A.  

high bandwidth usage

B.  

a physical cable fault

C.  

a speed mismatch

D.  

a cable that is too long

Discussion 0
Questions 311

Which command enables HTTP access to the Cisco WLC?

Options:

A.  

config network secureweb enable

B.  

config certificate generate web admin

C.  

config network webmode enable

D.  

config network telnet enable

Discussion 0
Questions 312

Which type of IPv4 address must be assigned to a server to protect it from external access and allow only internal users access while restricting internet access?

Options:

A.  

global unicast

B.  

public

C.  

private

D.  

multicast

Discussion 0
Questions 313

Refer to the exhibit. Users at a branch office are experiencing application performance issues, poor VoIP audio quality, and slow downloads. What is the cause of the issues?

Options:

A.  

broadcast storm

B.  

overutilization

C.  

interface configuration

D.  

QoS queuing

Discussion 0
Questions 314

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer executed the script and added commands that were not necessary for SSH and must now remove the commands. Which two commands must be executed to correct the configuration? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

no ip domain name ccna.cisco.com

B.  

no login local

C.  

no service password-encryption

D.  

no ip name-server 198.51.100.210

E.  

no hostname CPE

Discussion 0
Questions 315

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure a floating static route on an external EIGRP network. The destination subnet is the /29 on the LAN Interface of R86. Which command must be executed on R14?

Options:

A.  

ip route 10.80.65.0.255.255.248.0.10.73.65.66.1

B.  

ip route 10.80.65.0.255.255.255..240 fa0/1 89

C.  

ip route 10.80.65.0.255.255.248.0.10.73.65.66.171

D.  

ip route 10.80.65.0.0.0.224.10.80.65.0. 255

Discussion 0
Questions 316

Which interface IP address serves as the tunnel source for CAPWAP packets from the WLC to an AP?

Options:

A.  

service

B.  

trunk

C.  

AP-manager

D.  

virtual AP connection

Discussion 0
Questions 317

A router received three destination prefixes:10.0.0/18, and 10.0.0/24. When the show ip route command is executed, which output does it return?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 318

A network engineer must migrate a router loopback interface to the IPv6 address space. If the current IPv4 address of the interface is 10.54.73.1/32, and the engineer configures IPv6 address 0.0.0.0.0:ffff:a36:4901, which prefix length must be used?

Options:

A.  

/64

B.  

/96

C.  

/124

D.  

/128

Discussion 0
Questions 319

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring a WLAN to use a WPA2 PSK and allow only specific clients to join. Which two actions must be taken to complete the process? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

Enable the 802.1X option for Authentication Key Management

B.  

Enable the WPA2 Policy option

C.  

Enable the CCKM option for Authentication Key Management

D.  

Enable the MAC Filtering option

E.  

Enable the OSEN Policy option

Discussion 0
Questions 320

Drag and drop the IPv6 address details from the left onto the corresponding types on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 321

What is a reason why an administrator would choose to implement an automated network management approach?

Options:

A.  

Reduce inconsistencies in the network configuration.

B.  

Enable "box by box" configuration and deployment.

C.  

Decipher simple password policies.

D.  

Increase recurrent management costs.

Discussion 0
Questions 322

Refer to the exhibit.

Which next-hop IP address has the least desirable metric when sourced from R1?

Options:

A.  

10.10.10.5

B.  

10.10.10.3

C.  

10.10.10.4

D.  

10.10.10.2

Discussion 0
Questions 323

Drag and drop the SNMP components from the left onto the description on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 324

What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

Faster changes with more reliable results

B.  

Reduced operational costs

C.  

Fewer network failures

D.  

Reduced hardware footprint

E.  

Increased network security

Discussion 0
Questions 325

Refer to the exhibit.

An OSPF neighbor relationship must be configured using these guidelines:

• R1 is only permitted to establish a neighbor with R2

• R1 will never participate in DR elections

• R1 will use a router-id of 101.1.1.

Which configuration must be used?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option

B.  

Option

C.  

Option

D.  

Option

Discussion 0
Questions 326

What describes the functionality of southbound APIs?

Options:

A.  

They use HTTP messages to communicate.

B.  

They enable communication between the controller and the network device.

C.  

They convey information from the controller to the SDN applications.

D.  

They communicate with the management plane.

Discussion 0
Questions 327

Which signal frequency appears 60 times per minute?

Options:

A.  

1 Hz signal

B.  

1 GHz signal

C.  

60 Hz signal

D.  

60 GHz signal

Discussion 0
Questions 328

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 329

Refer to the exhibit.

Rooter R1 is added to the network and configured with tie 10 0 0 64/26 and 10.0.20.0/24 subnets However traffic destined for the LAN on R3 is not access. Which command when executed on R1 defines a tunic route to reach the R3 LAN?

A)

B)

C)

Options:

A.  

Option

B.  

Option

C.  

Option

Discussion 0
Questions 330

Which access point mode relies on a centralized controller for management, roaming, and SSID configuration?

Options:

A.  

repeater mode

B.  

autonomous mode

C.  

bridge mode

D.  

lightweight mode

Discussion 0
Questions 331

Refer to the exhibit.

Which prefix did router R1 learn from internal EIGRP?

Options:

A.  

192.168.10/24

B.  

192.168.3.0/24

C.  

192.168.2.0/24

D.  

172.16 1.0/24

Discussion 0
Questions 332

Which part of the HTTP request is used in REST API basic authentication to carry credentials?

Options:

A.  

cookie

B.  

content-type

C.  

authorization

D.  

accept

Discussion 0
Questions 333

Refer to the exhibit.

Which set of commands must be applied to the two switches to configure an LACP Layer 2 EtherChannel?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 334

Drag and drop the functions of AAA supporting protocols from the left onto the protocols on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 335

Which is a fact related to FTP?

Options:

A.  

It uses block numbers to identify and mitigate data-transfer errors

B.  

It always operates without user authentication

C.  

It relies on the well-known UDP port 69.

D.  

It uses two separate connections for control and data traffic

Discussion 0
Questions 336

Refer to the exhibit.

Packets are flowing from 192.168.10.1 to the destination at IP address 192.168.20.75. Which next hop will the router select for the packet?

Options:

A.  

10.10.10.1

B.  

10.10.10.11

C.  

10.10.10.12

D.  

10.10.10.14

Discussion 0
Questions 337

Drag and drop the QoS terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 338

Refer to the exhibit.

The image server and client A are running an application that transfers an extremely high volume of data between the two. An engineer is configuring a dedicated circuit between R1 and R2. Which set of commands must the engineer apply to the routers so that only traffic between the image server and client A is forces to use the new circuit?

Options:

A.  

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.13.10 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.6R2(config)#ip route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.5

B.  

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.13.10 255.255.255.128 10.10.10.6R2(config)#lp route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.0 10.10.10.5

C.  

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.13.10 255.255.255.252 10.10.10.6R2(config)#tp route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.252 10.10.10.5

D.  

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.13.10 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.2R2(config)#ip route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.1

Discussion 0
Questions 339

Refer to the exhibit.

A packet sourced from 10.10.10.1 is destined for 10.10.8.14. What is the subnet mask of the destination route?

Options:

A.  

255.255.254.0

B.  

255.255.255.240

C.  

255.255.255.248

D.  

255.255.255.252

Discussion 0
Questions 340

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must configure router R1 with a host route to the server. Which command must the engineer configure?

Options:

A.  

R1(conftg)#lp route 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2

B.  

R1(Config)#lp route 10.10.10.10 265.255.255.255 192 168.0.2

C.  

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.0.2 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.10

D.  

R1(config)3|p route 0.0.0.0 0.0 0.0 192 168.0.2

Discussion 0
Questions 341

What is the primary purpose of a console port on a Cisco WLC?

Options:

A.  

In-band management via an asynchronous transport

B.  

out-of-band management via an IP transport

C.  

in-band management via an IP transport

D.  

out-of-band management via an asynchronous transport

Discussion 0
Questions 342

Drag and drop the characteristics of device-management technologies from the left onto the corresponding deployment types on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 343

What are two reasons lo configure PortFast on a switch port attached to an end host? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

to enable the number of MAC addresses learned on the port to l

B.  

to protect the operation of the port from topology change processes

C.  

to enable the pod to enter the forwarding state immediately when the host boots up

D.  

to prevent the port from participating in Spanning Tree Protocol operations

E.  

to block another switch or host from communicating through the port

Discussion 0
Questions 344

What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?

Options:

A.  

a lightweight access point

B.  

a firewall

C.  

a wireless LAN controller

D.  

a LAN switch

Discussion 0
Questions 345

Refer to the exhibit.

The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 346

Drag and drop the characteristics of networking from the left onto the networking types on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 347

Which two spanning-tree states are bypassed on an interface running PortFast? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

disabled

B.  

listening

C.  

forwarding

D.  

learning

E.  

blocking

Discussion 0
Questions 348

Refer to the exhibit.

Host A sent a data frame destined for host D

What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?

Options:

A.  

It drops the frame from the switch CAM table.

B.  

It floods the frame out of all ports except port Fa0/1.

C.  

It shuts down the port Fa0/1 and places it in err-disable mode.

D.  

It experiences a broadcast storm.

Discussion 0
Questions 349

A Cisco engineer is configuring a factory-default router with these three passwords:

• The user EXEC password for console access is p4ssw0rd1

• The user EXEC password for Telnet access is s3cr3t2

• The password for privileged EXEC mode is pnv4t3p4ss Which command sequence must the engineer configured

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 350

Refer to the exhibit.

Which network prefix was learned via EIGRP?

Options:

A.  

172.16.0.0/16

B.  

192.168.2.0/24

C.  

207.165.200.0/24

D.  

192.168.1.0/24

Discussion 0
Questions 351

Which field within the access-request packet is encrypted by RADIUS?

Options:

A.  

authorized services

B.  

authenticator

C.  

username

D.  

password

Discussion 0
Questions 352

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

They enable automatic failover of the default gateway.

B.  

They allow multiple devices to serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network.

C.  

They are able to bundle multiple ports to increase bandwidth.

D.  

They prevent loops in the Layer 2 network.

E.  

They allow encrypted traffic.

Discussion 0
Questions 353

What is an expected outcome when network management automation is deployed?

Options:

A.  

A distributed management plane must be used.

B.  

Software upgrades are performed from a central controller

C.  

Complexity increases when new device configurations are added

D.  

Custom applications are needed to configure network devices

Discussion 0
Questions 354

OSPF must be configured between routers R1 and R2. Which OSPF configuration must be applied to router R1 to avoid a DR/BDR election?

Options:

A.  

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf network broadcast

B.  

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf network point-to-point

C.  

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf cost 0

D.  

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0hello interval 15interface e1/1Ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252

Discussion 0
Questions 355

Refer to the exhibit.

What is a reason for poor performance on the network interface?

Options:

A.  

The interface is receiving excessive broadcast traffic.

B.  

The cable connection between the two devices is faulty.

C.  

The interface is operating at a different speed than the connected device.

D.  

The bandwidth setting of the interface is misconfigured

Discussion 0
Questions 356

Refer to the exhibit.

Users on existing VLAN 100 can reach sites on the Internet. Which action must the administrator take to establish connectivity to the Internet for users in VLAN 200?

Options:

A.  

Define a NAT pool on the router.

B.  

Configure static NAT translations for VLAN 200.

C.  

Configure the ip nat outside command on another interface for VLAN 200.

D.  

Update the NAT INSIDF RANGFS ACL

Discussion 0
Questions 357

Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the VLANs?

Options:

A.  

VLAN numbering

B.  

VLAN DSCP

C.  

VLAN tagging

D.  

VLAN marking

Discussion 0
Questions 358

What is a requirement for nonoverlapping Wi-Fi channels?

Options:

A.  

different security settings

B.  

discontinuous frequency ranges

C.  

different transmission speeds

D.  

unique SSIDs

Discussion 0
Questions 359

Refer to the exhibit.

The following must be considered:

• SW1 is fully configured for all traffic

• The SW4 and SW9 links to SW1 have been configured

• The SW4 interface Gi0/1 and Gi0/0 on SW9 have been configured

• The remaining switches have had all VLANs adde d to their VLAN database

Which configuration establishes a successful ping from PC2 to PC7 without interruption to traffic flow between other PCs?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0