Answer C,D is correct: C. SW1(config)#line vty 0 15 SW1(config-line)#transport input ssh; D. SW1(config)# crypto key generate rsa. Secure encrypted remote management requires the VTY lines to accept SSH and the switch to have RSA keys available for SSH operation. The enable secret protects privileged EXEC mode, but it does not by itself enable encrypted remote access. A trunk command is unrelated to management-plane security. A local username may also be required depending on the existing configuration, but the two choices that directly enable encrypted remote management from the listed commands are transport input ssh and crypto key generate rsa. Cisco CCNA 200-301 v1.1 Security Fundamentals expects engineers to know the SSH prerequisites: hostname/domain context, RSA keys, appropriate line transport, and authentication. The corrected answer pair is the VTY SSH transport command and RSA key generation.

Answer A,C is correct: A. no ip name-server 198.51.100.210; C. no service password-encryption. Security questions require distinguishing authentication, authorization, encryption, secure management, malware protection, and physical controls. Cisco CCNA 200-301 v1.1 includes this under Security Fundamentals, where the expected skill is to identify the feature that actually creates the observed behavior or meets the configuration goal. The wording usually contains the decisive clue: a prefix length, a VLAN role, a protocol version, a wireless security standard, or a management-plane function. The wrong options apply the right security vocabulary to the wrong control or use weaker/deprecated protection. In an operational network, choosing the wrong option would typically cause failed connectivity, insecure management, poor wireless behavior, or incorrect forwarding. The selected answer matches the Cisco configuration model and is retained as the verified answer.

Answer B,D is correct: B. unique user knowledge; D. soft tokens. Security questions require separating identity, authorization, accounting, encryption, management access, and physical protection. Cisco CCNA 200-301 v1.1 includes this under Security Fundamentals, where the expected skill is identifying the mechanism that actually satisfies the scenario. The wording usually gives the decisive clue: a protocol number, a route prefix, a control-plane role, a wireless security method, or a management command. The distractors protect a different surface or represent weaker/deprecated methods. In a real network, selecting the wrong option would usually produce a failed adjacency, broken client connectivity, insecure management access, or an incorrect forwarding path. The selected answer matches the Cisco behavior and configuration model required by the question, so it is retained as the verified answer for this item.

Cisco CCNA 200-301 v1.1 Security Fundamentals drag-and-drop items test whether each protocol, address type, API action, or infrastructure component is matched to its real function. The correct way to solve these is to classify every item by layer, scope, and operational behavior before matching it. Several distractors are legitimate networking terms, but they are wrong when placed under the wrong protocol family or management model. The retained mapping preserves the Cisco distinctions between TCP and UDP behavior, AAA functions, IPv6 address scopes, device-management approaches, and REST operations. In implementation work, these distinctions matter because applying a feature at the wrong layer or associating a control with the wrong service creates broken configurations and wasted troubleshooting effort. The shown mapping is therefore retained as the verified response.

Answer D,E is correct: D. GetBulk; E. Inform. SNMPv2 added operational improvements beyond basic SNMPv1 polling. GetBulk allows a manager to retrieve large blocks of management data efficiently, reducing repeated GetNext operations when walking tables. Inform messages are also associated with SNMPv2 and provide acknowledged notifications between SNMP entities. Basic Get and Set operations are not the distinguishing SNMPv2 features in this option set. Cisco CCNA 200-301 v1.1 IP Services expects engineers to recognize how SNMP versions differ: SNMPv1 and v2c use community-based access, SNMPv2 adds GetBulk and Inform, and SNMPv3 adds authentication and encryption. The corrected answer pair is GetBulk and Inform, with GetBulk being the feature directly tied to large data retrieval.

Cisco CCNA 200-301 v1.1 Network Fundamentals drag-and-drop items test whether each protocol, address type, API action, or infrastructure component is matched to its real function. The correct way to solve these is to classify every item by layer, scope, and operational behavior before matching it. Several distractors are legitimate networking terms, but they are wrong when placed under the wrong protocol family or management model. The retained mapping preserves the Cisco distinctions between TCP and UDP behavior, AAA functions, IPv6 address scopes, device-management approaches, and REST operations. In implementation work, these distinctions matter because applying a feature at the wrong layer or associating a control with the wrong service creates broken configurations and wasted troubleshooting effort. The shown mapping is therefore retained as the verified response.

Answer A,E is correct: A. Lightweight access points are solely used by split MAC architectures.; E. Autonomous architectures exclusively use tunneling protocols to manage access points remotely.. Cisco wireless design separates RF behavior, client authentication, encryption, AP operating mode, and controller management. A WLC centralizes WLAN configuration and AP control, while lightweight APs use CAPWAP to register and exchange control/data information with the controller. Security choices such as WPA2/AES and WPA3/SAE are not interchangeable with older mechanisms such as WEP, TKIP, or RC4. RF questions also depend on channel planning: adjacent cells should avoid overlapping channels, and 5-GHz preference features reduce congestion in the 2.4-GHz band. The incorrect options generally confuse AP mode, authentication, encryption, or controller responsibilities. Cisco CCNA 200-301 v1.1 includes these items because wireless failures often come from using the right-looking feature in the wrong part of the WLAN design. The selected answer is the Cisco-consistent configuration or behavior for this wireless scenario.

Answer A,B is correct: A. Faster changes with more reliable results; B. Reduced operational costs. Security questions in CCNA 200-301 v1.1 require matching the control to the threat or access requirement. Authentication proves identity, authorization controls what the user can do, and accounting records activity. Firewalls inspect and permit or deny traffic based on policy, while ACLs match packet fields in a defined order. VPN and IPsec questions require knowing whether the design protects unicast traffic, supports tunneling, or encrypts the original packet. Password and SSH questions depend on IOS behavior, including encrypted secrets, local users, domain names, and cryptographic images. The incorrect choices often use a valid technology in the wrong role or provide weaker protection. The selected answer is the Cisco-consistent control because it directly satisfies the access, confidentiality, or threat-mitigation requirement stated in the question.

Cisco CCNA 200-301 v1.1 Network Fundamentals drag-and-drop items test whether each protocol, address type, API action, or infrastructure component is matched to its real function. The correct way to solve these is to classify every item by layer, scope, and operational behavior before matching it. Several distractors are legitimate networking terms, but they are wrong when placed under the wrong protocol family or management model. The retained mapping preserves the Cisco distinctions between TCP and UDP behavior, AAA functions, IPv6 address scopes, device-management approaches, and REST operations. In implementation work, these distinctions matter because applying a feature at the wrong layer or associating a control with the wrong service creates broken configurations and wasted troubleshooting effort. The shown mapping is therefore retained as the verified response.

Answer B,D is correct: B. ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1; D. ipv6 route 2000::3/128 2023::3. Routing questions are solved by applying longest-prefix match, administrative distance, metric, and protocol-specific behavior in the correct order. Cisco CCNA 200-301 v1.1 includes this under IP Connectivity, where the expected skill is to identify the feature that actually creates the observed behavior or meets the configuration goal. The wording usually contains the decisive clue: a prefix length, a VLAN role, a protocol version, a wireless security standard, or a management-plane function. Wrong answers either use the wrong prefix, the wrong next hop, or a route source that would not be preferred. In an operational network, choosing the wrong option would typically cause failed connectivity, insecure management, poor wireless behavior, or incorrect forwarding. The selected answer matches the Cisco configuration model and is retained as the verified answer.

Answer D,E is correct: D. lowest metric; E. lowest administrative distance. Routing questions are solved by applying longest-prefix match, administrative distance, metric, and protocol-specific behavior in the correct order. Cisco CCNA 200-301 v1.1 includes this under IP Connectivity, where the expected skill is to identify the feature that actually creates the observed behavior or meets the configuration goal. The wording usually contains the decisive clue: a prefix length, a VLAN role, a protocol version, a wireless security standard, or a management-plane function. Wrong answers either use the wrong prefix, the wrong next hop, or a route source that would not be preferred. In an operational network, choosing the wrong option would typically cause failed connectivity, insecure management, poor wireless behavior, or incorrect forwarding. The selected answer matches the Cisco configuration model and is retained as the verified answer.

Cisco CCNA 200-301 v1.1 Network Fundamentals questions of this type test whether each item is matched to the technology that actually performs that role. The reliable method is to classify each term by operating layer, packet behavior, management function, or security purpose before matching it. Several terms in these items are legitimate Cisco networking concepts, but they become wrong when assigned to the wrong protocol or plane. The mapping retained in the document follows that separation: transport behavior is matched to TCP or UDP, wireless or security terms are matched to their mechanisms, and automation items are matched to the correct API or management model. This matters operationally because troubleshooting fails quickly when a forwarding-plane function is treated as a management-plane feature or when a security control is applied to the wrong threat. The shown mapping is therefore retained as the verified response.

The verified answer is C and E. Dual-homed branches and dynamic routing improve WAN resiliency and scalability. Dual homing gives a branch more than one upstream path, and dynamic routing lets the network converge automatically when a link or router fails. Cisco CCNA 200-301 v1.1 places this skill in IP Connectivity, where the exam expects a working understanding of how the feature behaves on real Cisco networks, not just a memorized command. Single-homed branches and static routing are simpler but less resilient; asynchronous routing is not the design improvement being tested. In production, this distinction matters because a misapplied command or design choice usually creates an outage, a security gap, or unnecessary troubleshooting noise. The correct choice matches the control-plane, data-plane, wireless, security, or services behaviour described in the scenario and should be preferred over options that merely sound related.

Cisco CCNA 200-301 v1.1 Network Fundamentals questions of this form test whether each protocol, command, service, or architecture term is placed with the function it actually performs. The safest approach is to classify each item by operating layer and purpose before matching it: routing behavior belongs to IP connectivity, wireless modes belong to access, REST methods belong to automation, and AAA functions belong to security services. Several distractors are valid networking terms, but they become wrong when mapped to the wrong plane or protocol. The retained mapping follows Cisco terminology and reflects how the features are used in implementation and troubleshooting. In practice, this prevents mixing up forwarding behavior with management behavior or authentication with authorization/accounting. The mapping shown in the file is therefore retained as the verified response.

Answer A,B is correct: A. SW(config-if)=switchport port-security mac-address sticky; B. SW(config-if)=switchport port-security violation restrict. Sticky MAC learning lets the switch dynamically learn secure MAC addresses and add them to the running configuration. The restrict violation mode drops unauthorized traffic and generates log/SNMP notifications without shutting down the interface. That exactly matches the requirements: dynamic learning and log messages without disabling the port. A statically configured MAC address fails the dynamic-learning requirement, and violation shutdown would place the interface into err-disabled state. Cisco CCNA 200-301 v1.1 Network Access and Security Fundamentals expect precise understanding of port-security violation modes: protect drops silently, restrict drops and logs, and shutdown disables the port. The corrected answer pair is sticky MAC learning and violation restrict.

Cisco CCNA 200-301 v1.1 Network Fundamentals questions of this form test whether each protocol, command, service, or architecture term is placed with the function it actually performs. The safest approach is to classify each item by operating layer and purpose before matching it: routing behavior belongs to IP connectivity, wireless modes belong to access, REST methods belong to automation, and AAA functions belong to security services. Several distractors are valid networking terms, but they become wrong when mapped to the wrong plane or protocol. The retained mapping follows Cisco terminology and reflects how the features are used in implementation and troubleshooting. In practice, this prevents mixing up forwarding behavior with management behavior or authentication with authorization/accounting. The mapping shown in the file is therefore retained as the verified response.

Answer A,C is correct: A. reduced operational costs; C. faster changes with more reliable results. Automation and controller-based networking require separating APIs, management-plane actions, data formats, and centralized control from traditional device-by-device configuration. Cisco CCNA 200-301 v1.1 includes this under Automation and Programmability, where the exam expects engineers to recognize the device behavior that actually produces the required outcome. The question is best solved by reading the operational clue rather than choosing a familiar acronym. The wrong options mix northbound and southbound roles, control and data plane functions, or automation outcomes with unrelated technologies. In a production network, the wrong choice would normally create an outage, leave a management or security gap, or send troubleshooting toward the wrong subsystem. The selected answer is the one that matches the control-plane, data-plane, wireless, security, services, or automation mechanism described in the question. That is why it remains the verified answer for this item.

This item belongs to Cisco CCNA 200-301 v1.1 Network Fundamentals, where the exam measures whether the candidate can match a technology, field, protocol, or network behavior to its correct operational role. The important step is to classify each left-side item by what it actually does, not by a similar-sounding term. For example, management protocols, address types, QoS mechanisms, wireless settings, and topology terms all have strict meanings in Cisco documentation and IOS behavior. A wrong match usually places a function at the wrong layer or assigns a feature to the wrong control point. The shown mapping keeps those boundaries intact: the component that performs the function is paired with the matching description, while unrelated distractors are left unused or mapped elsewhere. In real troubleshooting, this same skill prevents engineers from applying a security, routing, switching, or automation feature in the wrong part of the design.

This item belongs to Cisco CCNA 200-301 v1.1 Network Fundamentals, where the exam measures whether the candidate can match a technology, field, protocol, or network behavior to its correct operational role. The important step is to classify each left-side item by what it actually does, not by a similar-sounding term. For example, management protocols, address types, QoS mechanisms, wireless settings, and topology terms all have strict meanings in Cisco documentation and IOS behavior. A wrong match usually places a function at the wrong layer or assigns a feature to the wrong control point. The shown mapping keeps those boundaries intact: the component that performs the function is paired with the matching description, while unrelated distractors are left unused or mapped elsewhere. In real troubleshooting, this same skill prevents engineers from applying a security, routing, switching, or automation feature in the wrong part of the design.

Answer the displayed drag-and-drop mapping is the technically correct selection. The networking statements must be matched to the correct architecture or networking type based on function. Traditional networking, controller-based networking, on-premises, cloud, or hybrid models differ by where services run, how devices are managed, and where control is centralized. This aligns with Cisco CCNA 200-301 v1.1 because the exam blueprint requires engineers to recognize operational behaviour from configuration symptoms and topology requirements. The safest approach is to match operational responsibility rather than similar wording. Treat the distractors carefully: most are real Cisco terms, but they solve a different problem or operate at a different layer. The selected answer is the one that would be used by an engineer on the device or in the design to produce the outcome stated in the question.

Answer D,E is correct: D. They enable automatic failover of the default gateway.; E. They allow multiple devices to serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network. Cloud and virtualization questions require separating physical resources, hypervisor control, virtual switching, server functions, and the service model being consumed. Cisco CCNA 200-301 v1.1 includes this topic under Network Fundamentals, so the answer must be validated against normal Cisco device behavior and the operational wording of the scenario. The key is not simply recognizing a familiar acronym; it is identifying what the feature does, where it is configured, and what result it produces. The wrong choices confuse SaaS, PaaS, IaaS, the hypervisor role, or the way virtual machines reach the physical network. In a real network, selecting the wrong option would either leave the feature nonfunctional, create a forwarding or security gap, or send troubleshooting in the wrong direction. The selected answer is the only one that matches the stated requirement and the way Cisco switching, routing, services, security, wireless, or automation functions are expected to operate. This is why the verified answer remains the best technical choice for the question.

Answer as below configuration:

1.- on R3

config terminal

ip route 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.255 209.165.200.229

end

copy running start

2.- on R2

config terminal

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.202.130

end

copy running start

3.- on R2

config terminal

ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:abcd::2

end

copy running start

Answer as below configuration:

On R2:

Enable

Conf t

Ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.10.31.1

On R1:

Enable

Conf t

Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.13.3

On R2

Ip route 172.20.20.128 255.255.255.128 e0/2

Ip route 172.20.20.128 255.255.255.128 e0/1

On R1

Ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 e0/1

Ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 10.10.12.2 3

Save all configurations after every router from anyone of these command

Do wr

Or

Copy run start

Cisco CCNA 200-301 v1.1 Network Fundamentals questions of this form test whether each protocol, command, service, or architecture term is placed with the function it actually performs. The safest approach is to classify each item by operating layer and purpose before matching it: routing behavior belongs to IP connectivity, wireless modes belong to access, REST methods belong to automation, and AAA functions belong to security services. Several distractors are valid networking terms, but they become wrong when mapped to the wrong plane or protocol. The retained mapping follows Cisco terminology and reflects how the features are used in implementation and troubleshooting. In practice, this prevents mixing up forwarding behavior with management behavior or authentication with authorization/accounting. The mapping shown in the file is therefore retained as the verified response.

Cisco CCNA 200-301 v1.1 Network Fundamentals questions of this form test whether each protocol, command, service, or architecture term is placed with the function it actually performs. The safest approach is to classify each item by operating layer and purpose before matching it: routing behavior belongs to IP connectivity, wireless modes belong to access, REST methods belong to automation, and AAA functions belong to security services. Several distractors are valid networking terms, but they become wrong when mapped to the wrong plane or protocol. The retained mapping follows Cisco terminology and reflects how the features are used in implementation and troubleshooting. In practice, this prevents mixing up forwarding behavior with management behavior or authentication with authorization/accounting. The mapping shown in the file is therefore retained as the verified response.

Cisco CCNA 200-301 v1.1 Network Fundamentals questions of this type test whether each item is matched to the technology that actually performs that role. The reliable method is to classify each term by operating layer, packet behavior, management function, or security purpose before matching it. Several terms in these items are legitimate Cisco networking concepts, but they become wrong when assigned to the wrong protocol or plane. The mapping retained in the document follows that separation: transport behavior is matched to TCP or UDP, wireless or security terms are matched to their mechanisms, and automation items are matched to the correct API or management model. This matters operationally because troubleshooting fails quickly when a forwarding-plane function is treated as a management-plane feature or when a security control is applied to the wrong threat. The shown mapping is therefore retained as the verified response.

Answer as below configuration:

on R1

config terminal

ipv6 unicast-routing

inter eth0/1

ip addre 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.240

ipv6 addre 2001:db8:aaaa::1/64

not shut

end

copy running start

on R2

config terminal

ipv6 unicast-routing

inter eth0/1

ip address 192.168.1.14 255.255.255.240

ipv6 address 2001:db8:aaaa::2/64

not shut

end

copy running start

---------------------

for test from R1

ping ipv6 2001:db8:aaaa::1

for test from R2

ping ipv6 2001:db8:aaaa::2

R2# configure terminal

R2(config)# interface Ethernet0/0

R2(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255

R2(config-if)# exit

R2(config)# interface Ethernet0/1

R2(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255

R2(config-if)# exit

R2(config)# router ospf 30

R2(config-router)# router-id 10.22.22.22

R2(config-router)# network 10.0.12.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

R2(config-router)# network 10.0.23.0 0.0.0.15 area 0

R2(config-router)# end

R2# copy running-config startup-config

Verification commands:

R2# show ip ospf neighbor

R2# show ip ospf interface Ethernet0/0

R2# show ip ospf interface Ethernet0/1

R2# show ip protocols

The router ospf 30 command creates the locally significant OSPF process requested by the task. The explicit router-id 10.22.22.22 command prevents R2 from dynamically selecting another active interface address as its router ID. The /30 network requires wildcard mask 0.0.0.3, while the /28 network requires 0.0.0.15; placing both prefixes in area 0 enables OSPF on R2’s links toward R1 and R3 and permits neighbor formation when the remaining OSPF parameters match.

The interface command ip ospf priority 255 gives R2 the maximum OSPF interface priority on both broadcast segments. This makes R2 the strongest DR candidate. OSPF DR elections are non-preemptive, so if a DR election has already completed, the election must be restarted by clearing the relevant OSPF processes or resetting the affected interfaces. Cisco documents that OSPF router IDs identify OSPF instances, while the DR and BDR reduce flooding on broadcast networks; OSPF process numbers do not have to match between neighboring routers.

Answer as below configuration:

Sw1

enbale

config t

Vlan 210

Name FINANCE

Inter e0/1

Switchport access vlan 210

do wr

Sw2

Enable

config t

Vlan 110

Name MARKITING

Int e0/1

Switchport acees vlan 110

do wr

Sw3

Enable

config t

Vlan 110

Name MARKITING

Vlan 210

Name FINANCE

Int e0/0

Switchport access vlan 110

Int e0/1

Switchport access vlan 210

Sw1

Int e0/1

Switchport allowed vlan 210

Sw2

Int e0/2

Switchport trunk allowed vlan 210

Sw3

Int e0/3

Switchport trunk allowed vlan 210

Switchport trunk allowed vlan 210,110

Answer as below configuration:

on sw1

enable

conf t

vlan 100

name Compute

vlan 200

name Telephony

int e0/1

switchport voice vlan 200

switchport access vlan 100

int e0/0

switchport mode access

do wr

on sw2

Vlan 99

Name Available

Int e0/1

Switchport access vlan 99

do wr

To subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize the number of hosts, you need to determine how many bits you need to borrow from the host portion of the address to create enough subnets for 32 sites. Since 32 is 2^5, you need to borrow 5 bits, which means your new subnet mask will be /21 or 255.255.248.0. To find the second subnet, you need to add the value of the fifth bit (32) to the third octet of the network address (0), which gives you 172.25.32.0/21 as the second subnet. The first usable IP address in this subnet is 172.25.32.1, and the last usable IP address is 172.25.39.254.

To assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw101, you need to enter the following commands on the device console:

Sw101#configure terminal Sw101(config)#interface e0/0 Sw101(config-if)#ip address 172.25.32.1 255.255.248.0 Sw101(config-if)#no shutdown Sw101(config-if)#end

To assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102, you need to enter the following commands on the device console:

Sw102#configure terminal Sw102(config)#interface e0/0 Sw102(config-if)#ip address 172.25.39.254 255.255.248.0 Sw102(config-if)#no shutdown Sw102(config-if)#end

To subnet an IPv6 GUA to meet the subnet requirements and maximize the number of hosts, you need to determine how many bits you need to borrow from the interface identifier portion of the address to create enough subnets for 32 sites. Since 32 is 2^5, you need to borrow 5 bits, which means your new prefix length will be /69 or ffff:ffff:ffff:fff8::/69 (assuming that your IPv6 GUA has a /64 prefix by default). To find the second subnet, you need to add the value of the fifth bit (32) to the fourth hextet of the network address (0000), which gives you xxxx:xxxx:xxxx:0020::/69 as the second subnet (where xxxx:xxxx:xxxx is your IPv6 GUA prefix). The first and last IPv6 addresses in this subnet are xxxx:xxxx:xxxx:0020::1 and xxxx:xxxx:xxxx:0027:ffff:ffff:ffff:fffe respectively.

To assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-bit interface identifier on e0/0 on Sw101, you need to enter the following commands on the device console (assuming that your IPv6 GUA prefix is 2001:db8::/64):

Sw101#configure terminal Sw101(config)#interface e0/0 Sw101(config-if)#ipv6 address 2001:db8::20::1/69 Sw101(config-if)#no shutdown Sw101(config-if)#end

To assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-bit interface identifier on e0/0 on Sw102, you need to enter the following commands on the device console (assuming that your IPv6 GUA prefix is 2001:db8::/64):

Sw102#configure terminal Sw102(config)#interface e0/0 Sw102(config-if)#ipv6 address 2001:db8::27::fffe/69 Sw102(config-if)#no shutdown Sw102(config-if)#end

Answer as below configuration:

conf t

R1(config)#ntp master 1

R2(config)#ntp server 10.1.2.1

Exit

Router#clock set 00:00:00 jan 1 2019

ip dhcp pool TEST

network 10.1.3.0 255.255.255.0

ip dhcp exluded-address 10.1.3.1 10.1.3.10

R3(config)#int e0/3

R3(config)#int e0/2

ip address dhcp

no shut

crypto key generate RSA

1024

Copy run start

Answer as below configuration:

On SW1:

conf terminal

vlan 15

exit

interface range eth0/0 - 1

channel-group 1 mode active

exit

interface port-channel 1

switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

switchport mode trunk

switchport trunk native vlan 15

end

copy run start

on SW2:

conf terminal

vlan 15

exit

interface range eth0/0 - 1

channel-group 1 mode active

exit

interface port-channel 1

switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

switchport mode trunk

switchport trunk native vlan 15

end

copy run start

Answer as below configuration:

on R1

conf terminal

interface Loopback0

ip address 10.10.1.1 255.255.255.255

!

interface Loopback1

ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0

!

interface Ethernet0/0

no shut

ip address 10.10.12.1 255.255.255.0

ip ospf 1 area 0

duplex auto

!

interface Ethernet0/1

no shut

ip address 10.10.13.1 255.255.255.0

ip ospf 1 area 0

duplex auto

!

router ospf 1

router-id 10.10.12.1

network 10.10.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0

network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

!

copy run star

---------------------------------------

On R2

conf terminal

interface Loopback0

ip address 10.10.2.2 255.255.255.255

!

interface Loopback1

ip address 192.168.2.2 255.255.255.0

!

interface Ethernet0/0

no shut

ip address 10.10.12.2 255.255.255.0

ip ospf priority 255

ip ospf 1 area 0

duplex auto

!

interface Ethernet0/2

no shut

ip address 10.10.23.2 255.255.255.0

ip ospf priority 255

ip ospf 1 area 0

duplex auto

!

router ospf 1

network 10.10.2.2 0.0.0.0 area 0

network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

!

copy runs start

-----------------------

On R3

conf ter

interface Loopback0

ip address 10.10.3.3 255.255.255.255

!

interface Loopback1

ip address 192.168.3.3 255.255.255.0

!

interface Ethernet0/1

no shut

ip address 10.10.13.3 255.255.255.0

ip ospf 1 area 0

duplex auto

!

interface Ethernet0/2

no shut

ip address 10.10.23.3 255.255.255.0

ip ospf 1 area 0

duplex auto

!

router ospf 1

network 10.10.3.3 0.0.0.0 area 0

network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

!

copy run start

!

To configure static routing on R1 to ensure that it prefers the path through R2 to reach only PC1 on R4’s LAN, you need to create a static route for the host 10.0.0.100/8 with a next-hop address of 20.0.0.2, which is the IP address of R2’s interface connected to R1. You also need to assign a lower administrative distance (AD) to this route than the default AD of 1 for static routes, so that it has a higher preference over other possible routes. For example, you can use an AD of 10 for this route. To create this static route, you need to enter the following commands on R1’s console:

R1#configure terminal R1(config)#ip route 10.0.0.100 255.0.0.0 20.0.0.2 10 R1(config)#end

To configure static routing on R1 that ensures that traffic sourced from R1 will take an alternate path through R3 to PC1 in the event of an outage along the primary path, you need to create another static route for the host 10.0.0.100/8 with a next-hop address of 40.0.0.2, which is the IP address of R3’s interface connected to R1. You also need to assign a higher AD to this route than the AD of the primary route, so that it has a lower preference and acts as a backup route. For example, you can use an AD of 20 for this route. This type of static route is also known as a floating static route. To create this static route, you need to enter the following commands on R1’s console:

R1#configure terminal R1(config)#ip route 10.0.0.100 255.0.0.0 40.0.0.2 20 R1(config)#end

To configure default routes on R1 and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops, you need to create a static route for the network 0.0.0.0/0 with a next-hop address of the ISP’s interface connected to each router respectively. A default route is a special type of static route that matches any destination address and is used when no other specific route is available. The ISP’s interface connected to R1 has an IP address of 10.0.0.4, and the ISP’s interface connected to R3 has an IP address of 50.0.0.4. To create these default routes, you need to enter the following commands on each router’s console:

On R1: R1#configure terminal R1(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.0.0.4 R1(config)#end

On R3: R3#configure terminal R3(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 50.0.0.4 R3(config)#end

To configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 44, configure it between switches SW1 and SW2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides, configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link, configure the trunk link with 802.1q tags, and configure VLAN ‘MONITORING’ as the untagged VLAN of the EtherChannel, you need to follow these steps:

On both SW1 and SW2, enter the global configuration mode by using the configure terminal command.

On both SW1 and SW2, select the two interfaces that will form the EtherChannel by using the interface range ethernet 0/0 - 1 command. This will enter the interface range configuration mode.

On both SW1 and SW2, set the protocol to LACP by using the channel-protocol lacp command.

On both SW1 and SW2, assign the interfaces to an EtherChannel group number 44 by using the channel-group 44 mode active command. This will create a logical interface named Port-channel44 and set the LACP mode to active on both ends. The LACP mode must match on both ends for the EtherChannel to form.

On both SW1 and SW2, exit the interface range configuration mode by using the exit command.

On both SW1 and SW2, enter the Port-channel interface configuration mode by using the interface port-channel 44 command.

On both SW1 and SW2, configure the Port-channel interface as a trunk link by using the switchport mode trunk command.

On both SW1 and SW2, configure the Port-channel interface to use 802.1q tags for VLAN identification by using the switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q command.

On both SW1 and SW2, configure VLAN ‘MONITORING’ as the untagged VLAN of the Port-channel interface by using the switchport trunk native vlan MONITORING command.

On both SW1 and SW2, exit the Port-channel interface configuration mode by using the exit command.

On both SW1 and SW2, save the configuration to NVRAM by using the copy running-config startup-config command.

SW-1

SW-1# configure terminal

SW-1(config)# interface Ethernet0/0

SW-1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 5,6

SW-1(config-if)# exit

SW-1(config)# interface Ethernet0/1

SW-1(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan 77

SW-1(config-if)# end

SW-1# copy running-config startup-config

SW-2

SW-2# configure terminal

SW-2(config)# interface Ethernet0/1

SW-2(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan 77

SW-2(config-if)# exit

SW-2(config)# interface Ethernet0/2

SW-2(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 6

SW-2(config-if)# end

SW-2# copy running-config startup-config

SW-3

SW-3# configure terminal

SW-3(config)# interface range Ethernet0/0 - 1

SW-3(config-if-range)# channel-group 34 mode active

SW-3(config-if-range)# end

SW-3# copy running-config startup-config

SW-4

SW-4# configure terminal

SW-4(config)# interface range Ethernet0/0 - 1

SW-4(config-if-range)# channel-group 34 mode passive

SW-4(config-if-range)# end

SW-4# copy running-config startup-config

Verification commands:

SW-1# show interfaces trunk

SW-2# show interfaces trunk

SW-3# show etherchannel summary

SW-4# show etherchannel summary

SW-3# show interfaces port-channel 34

SW-4# show interfaces port-channel 34

The command switchport trunk allowed vlan 5,6 replaces the default allowed-VLAN list on SW-1 Ethernet0/0 so that only VLANs 5 and 6 can cross that trunk. The same command with VLAN 6 restricts SW-2 Ethernet0/2 to VLAN 6. Cisco documents that all VLANs are permitted on a trunk by default and that switchport trunk allowed vlan vlan-list defines the permitted list. The native VLAN must match at both ends of an 802.1Q trunk, so VLAN 77 is configured on Ethernet0/1 of both SW-1 and SW-2.

For LACP, active initiates negotiation and passive only responds. Therefore, SW-3 must use channel-group 34 mode active, while SW-4 must use channel-group 34 mode passive. Cisco confirms that active-to-passive forms an EtherChannel, whereas passive-to-passive does not. Because the physical interfaces are already identically configured as trunks, no trunk commands should be replaced during channel creation. The channel-group command creates and binds the physical members to logical Port-Channel 34.

To enable OSPFv2 on an active interface, the router needs an OSPF process and the interface must be placed into an OSPF area. The process ID is locally significant on the router; it starts the OSPF routing process but does not have to match the neighbor. The area ID is different: routers that form an adjacency on the same link must agree on the area, because the area defines the link-state database scope. Authentication keys, stub flags, and IPv6 addressing are not minimum requirements for OSPFv2. MD5 authentication can be added as a security control, but OSPFv2 can run without it. IPv6 belongs to OSPFv3, not OSPFv2. Cisco CCNA 200-301 v1.1 tests OSPFv2 under IP Connectivity, and the basic operational checklist is simple: active interface, matching network type/timers/area where required, and an enabled OSPF process. For this question, the two minimum configured parameters are the OSPF area and the OSPF process ID.

Use the displayed drag-and-drop mapping for this item. SNMP uses manager and agent identifiers so a monitoring station can poll, receive traps, and identify managed devices. Commands for contact, location, chassis ID, and community or user parameters help the NMS organize and authenticate device management information. In Cisco CCNA 200-301 v1.1, IP Services questions frequently test the practical boundary between similar features: what the feature does, where it is configured, and what problem it is meant to solve. These identifiers are not forwarding commands; they support operational monitoring and inventory visibility. A clean way to validate the answer is to map the wording of the scenario to the actual device function. If the feature supplies addressing, forwarding, authentication, trunking, route selection, or controller communication, the answer must match that function exactly rather than a nearby protocol name.

SNMP uses a manager-agent model. The SNMP manager, usually a network management system, polls devices or receives notifications. The SNMP agent runs on the managed device and exposes operational data. The Management Information Base is the structured database of managed objects, and object identifiers identify specific variables inside that hierarchy. Traps or informs are unsolicited notifications sent from the agent to the manager when configured events occur. Cisco CCNA 200-301 v1.1 IP Services includes SNMP because engineers use it for monitoring, inventory, alerting, and operational visibility. In drag-and-drop form, match each component to its role: manager equals monitoring system, agent equals device-side SNMP process, MIB equals object database, OID equals individual object path, and trap/inform equals notification. That mapping is the stable way to solve the item regardless of the exact wording in the left column.

Cisco REST APIs commonly encode request and response payloads using JSON or XML. JSON is lightweight, easy for applications to parse, and widely used in modern network automation. XML is also common in Cisco controller and device APIs, especially in platforms that historically exposed XML documents or models. EBCDIC is a character encoding, not a REST API payload method. SGML is a markup-language ancestor and is not the normal format for Cisco REST API payloads. YAML is popular in automation tools such as Ansible, but this question asks which encoding methods are supported by REST APIs in the Cisco context shown by the references. Under CCNA 200-301 v1.1 Automation and Programmability, candidates must recognize JSON and XML as structured data formats used by APIs. Therefore the verified answers are B and E. Reference: Cisco APIC and Cisco REST API documentation describing JSON and XML payload support.

Answer the displayed drag-and-drop mapping is the technically correct selection. DHCP snooping builds a trusted binding table from legitimate DHCP exchanges. Trusted ports face valid DHCP servers, untrusted ports face clients, and the binding database becomes the source of truth for features such as Dynamic ARP Inspection and IP Source Guard. This aligns with Cisco CCNA 200-301 v1.1 because the exam blueprint requires engineers to recognize operational behaviour from configuration symptoms and topology requirements. Ordinary MAC learning does not validate DHCP messages, and trunking or STP alone cannot prevent a rogue DHCP server from handing out false gateways. Treat the distractors carefully: most are real Cisco terms, but they solve a different problem or operate at a different layer. The selected answer is the one that would be used by an engineer on the device or in the design to produce the outcome stated in the question.

The correct response is C and E. A Cisco router acting as a DHCP server must have a DHCP address pool and can use manual bindings when specific addresses must be reserved. The pool defines the scope of addresses and options that clients receive; bindings tie a known client identifier or MAC-related value to an address when deterministic assignment is required. For Cisco CCNA 200-301 v1.1, the important point is the mechanism, not a generic description of the technology. Relay-agent information and smart-relay support relay behaviour, and a database agent is optional persistence rather than the core server configuration being tested. When this appears in a network, the symptom normally confirms the answer: the route installed, the state selected, the packet forwarded, the wireless client behaviour, or the management workflow will follow this rule. That is why this answer is the best fit for the scenario and not just a plausible networking term.

The verified answer is the displayed drag-and-drop mapping. QoS congestion management controls how packets are queued and scheduled when an interface is congested. Terms such as FIFO, priority queuing, weighted fair queuing, class-based WFQ, and low-latency queuing describe different ways to decide which packets leave first. Cisco CCNA 200-301 v1.1 places this skill in IP Services, where the exam expects a working understanding of how the feature behaves on real Cisco networks, not just a memorized command. Congestion avoidance, classification, and marking are related QoS functions, but they are not the same as queue scheduling during congestion. In production, this distinction matters because a misapplied command or design choice usually creates an outage, a security gap, or unnecessary troubleshooting noise. The correct choice matches the control-plane, data-plane, wireless, security, or services behaviour described in the scenario and should be preferred over options that merely sound related.