Summer Special Discount 60% Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: brite60

ExamsBrite Dumps

Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (CBROPS) Question and Answers

Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (CBROPS)

Last Update Oct 2, 2025
Total Questions : 451

We are offering FREE 200-201 Cisco exam questions. All you do is to just go and sign up. Give your details, prepare 200-201 free exam questions and then go for complete pool of Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (CBROPS) test questions that will help you more.

200-201 pdf

200-201 PDF

$46  $114.99
200-201 Engine

200-201 Testing Engine

$54  $134.99
200-201 PDF + Engine

200-201 PDF + Testing Engine

$70  $174.99
Questions 1

An engineer needs to have visibility on TCP bandwidth usage, response time, and latency, combined with deep packet inspection to identify unknown software by its network traffic flow. Which two features of Cisco Application Visibility and Control should the engineer use to accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

management and reporting

B.  

traffic filtering

C.  

adaptive AVC

D.  

metrics collection and exporting

E.  

application recognition

Discussion 0
Questions 2

What is the communication channel established from a compromised machine back to the attacker?

Options:

A.  

man-in-the-middle

B.  

IDS evasion

C.  

command and control

D.  

port scanning

Discussion 0
Questions 3

An organization that develops high-end technology is going through an internal audit The organization uses two databases The main database stores patent information and a secondary database stores employee names and contact information A compliance team is asked to analyze the infrastructure and identify protected data Which two types of protected data should be identified? (Choose two)

Options:

A.  

Personally Identifiable Information (Pll)

B.  

Payment Card Industry (PCI)

C.  

Protected Hearth Information (PHI)

D.  

Intellectual Property (IP)

E.  

Sarbanes-Oxley (SOX)

Discussion 0
Questions 4

A SOC analyst detected connections to known C&C and port scanning activity to main HR database servers from one of the HR endpoints via Cisco StealthWatch. What are the two next steps of the SOC team according to the NISTSP800-61 incident handling process? (Choose two)

Options:

A.  

Isolate affected endpoints and take disk images for analysis

B.  

Provide security awareness training to HR managers and employees

C.  

Block connection to this C&C server on the perimeter next-generation firewall

D.  

Update antivirus signature databases on affected endpoints to block connections to C&C

E.  

Detect the attack vector and analyze C&C connections

Discussion 0
Questions 5

Which system monitors local system operation and local network access for violations of a security policy?

Options:

A.  

host-based intrusion detection

B.  

systems-based sandboxing

C.  

host-based firewall

D.  

antivirus

Discussion 0
Questions 6

Refer to the exhibit.

Which alert is identified from this packet capture?

Options:

A.  

man-in-the-middle attack

B.  

ARP poisoning

C.  

brute-force attack

D.  

SQL injection

Discussion 0
Questions 7

Which event is a vishing attack?

Options:

A.  

obtaining disposed documents from an organization

B.  

using a vulnerability scanner on a corporate network

C.  

setting up a rogue access point near a public hotspot

D.  

impersonating a tech support agent during a phone call

Discussion 0
Questions 8

Which piece of information is needed for attribution in an investigation?

Options:

A.  

proxy logs showing the source RFC 1918 IP addresses

B.  

RDP allowed from the Internet

C.  

known threat actor behavior

D.  

802.1x RADIUS authentication pass arid fail logs

Discussion 0
Questions 9

Refer to the exhibit.

Which event is occurring?

Options:

A.  

A binary named "submit" is running on VM cuckoo1.

B.  

A binary is being submitted to run on VM cuckoo1

C.  

A binary on VM cuckoo1 is being submitted for evaluation

D.  

A URL is being evaluated to see if it has a malicious binary

Discussion 0
Questions 10

Drag and drop the elements from the left into the correct order for incident handling on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 11

What is the impact of false positive alerts on business compared to true positive?

Options:

A.  

True positives affect security as no alarm is raised when an attack has taken place, resulting in a potential breach.

B.  

True positive alerts are blocked by mistake as potential attacks affecting application availability.

C.  

False positives affect security as no alarm is raised when an attack has taken place, resulting in a potential breach.

D.  

False positive alerts are blocked by mistake as potential attacks affecting application availability.

Discussion 0
Questions 12

A security specialist notices 100 HTTP GET and POST requests for multiple pages on the web servers. The agent in the requests contains PHP code that, if executed, creates and writes to a new PHP file on the webserver. Which event category is described?

Options:

A.  

reconnaissance

B.  

action on objectives

C.  

installation

D.  

exploitation

Discussion 0
Questions 13

Which attack is the network vulnerable to when a stream cipher like RC4 is used twice with the same key?

Options:

A.  

forgery attack

B.  

plaintext-only attack

C.  

ciphertext-only attack

D.  

meet-in-the-middle attack

Discussion 0
Questions 14

Which type of data collection requires the largest amount of storage space?

Options:

A.  

alert data

B.  

transaction data

C.  

session data

D.  

full packet capture

Discussion 0
Questions 15

An organization is cooperating with several third-party companies. Data exchange is on an unsecured channel using port 80 Internal employees use the FTP service to upload and download sensitive data An engineer must ensure confidentiality while preserving the integrity of the communication. Which technology must the engineer implement in this scenario'?

Options:

A.  

X 509 certificates

B.  

RADIUS server

C.  

CA server

D.  

web application firewall

Discussion 0
Questions 16

What is a difference between data obtained from Tap and SPAN ports?

Options:

A.  

Tap mirrors existing traffic from specified ports, while SPAN presents more structured data for deeper analysis.

B.  

SPAN passively splits traffic between a network device and the network without altering it, while Tap alters response times.

C.  

SPAN improves the detection of media errors, while Tap provides direct access to traffic with lowered data visibility.

D.  

Tap sends traffic from physical layers to the monitoring device, while SPAN provides a copy of network traffic from switch to destination

Discussion 0
Questions 17

Drag and drop the access control models from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 18

Which type of verification consists of using tools to compute the message digest of the original and copied data, then comparing the similarity of the digests?

Options:

A.  

evidence collection order

B.  

data integrity

C.  

data preservation

D.  

volatile data collection

Discussion 0
Questions 19

Refer to the exhibit.

Which component is identifiable in this exhibit?

Options:

A.  

Trusted Root Certificate store on the local machine

B.  

Windows PowerShell verb

C.  

Windows Registry hive

D.  

local service in the Windows Services Manager

Discussion 0
Questions 20

What is the difference between deep packet inspection and stateful inspection?

Options:

A.  

Deep packet inspection is more secure than stateful inspection on Layer 4

B.  

Stateful inspection verifies contents at Layer 4 and deep packet inspection verifies connection at Layer 7

C.  

Stateful inspection is more secure than deep packet inspection on Layer 7

D.  

Deep packet inspection allows visibility on Layer 7 and stateful inspection allows visibility on Layer 4

Discussion 0
Questions 21

Which metric should be used when evaluating the effectiveness and scope of a Security Operations Center?

Options:

A.  

The average time the SOC takes to register and assign the incident.

B.  

The total incident escalations per week.

C.  

The average time the SOC takes to detect and resolve the incident.

D.  

The total incident escalations per month.

Discussion 0
Questions 22

During which phase of the forensic process are tools and techniques used to extract information from the collected data?

Options:

A.  

investigation

B.  

examination

C.  

reporting

D.  

collection

Discussion 0
Questions 23

What is the difference between the ACK flag and the RST flag in the NetFlow log session?

Options:

A.  

The RST flag confirms the beginning of the TCP connection, and the ACK flag responds when the data for the payload is complete

B.  

The ACK flag confirms the beginning of the TCP connection, and the RST flag responds when the data for the payload is complete

C.  

The RST flag confirms the receipt of the prior segment, and the ACK flag allows for the spontaneous termination of a connection

D.  

The ACK flag confirms the receipt of the prior segment, and the RST flag allows for the spontaneous termination of a connection

Discussion 0
Questions 24

An engineer is working on a ticket for an incident from the incident management team A week ago. an external web application was targeted by a DDoS attack Server resources were exhausted and after two hours it crashed. An engineer was able to identify the attacker and technique used Three hours after the attack, the server was restored and the engineer recommended implementing mitigation by Blackhole filtering and transferred the incident ticket back to the IR team According to NIST SP800-61, at which phase of the incident response did the engineer finish work?

Options:

A.  

preparation

B.  

post-incident activity

C.  

containment eradication and recovery

D.  

detection and analysis

Discussion 0
Questions 25

What is a purpose of a vulnerability management framework?

Options:

A.  

identifies, removes, and mitigates system vulnerabilities

B.  

detects and removes vulnerabilities in source code

C.  

conducts vulnerability scans on the network

D.  

manages a list of reported vulnerabilities

Discussion 0
Questions 26

A company is using several network applications that require high availability and responsiveness, such that milliseconds of latency on network traffic is not acceptable. An engineer needs to analyze the network and identify ways to improve traffic movement to minimize delays. Which information must the engineer obtain for this analysis?

Options:

A.  

total throughput on the interface of the router and NetFlow records

B.  

output of routing protocol authentication failures and ports used

C.  

running processes on the applications and their total network usage

D.  

deep packet captures of each application flow and duration

Discussion 0
Questions 27

Which security monitoring data type requires the largest storage space?

Options:

A.  

transaction data

B.  

statistical data

C.  

session data

D.  

full packet capture

Discussion 0
Questions 28

In a SOC environment, what is a vulnerability management metric?

Options:

A.  

code signing enforcement

B.  

full assets scan

C.  

internet exposed devices

D.  

single factor authentication

Discussion 0
Questions 29

A security engineer must investigate a recent breach within the organization. An engineer noticed that a breached workstation is trying to connect to the domain "Ranso4730-mware92-647". which is known as malicious. In which step of the Cyber Kill Chain is this event?

Options:

A.  

Vaporization

B.  

Delivery

C.  

reconnaissance

D.  

Action on objectives

Discussion 0
Questions 30

Which action matches the weaponization step of the Cyber Kill Chain Model?

Options:

A.  

Develop a specific malware to exploit a vulnerable server, i

B.  

Match a known script to a vulnerability.

C.  

Construct a trojan and deliver l! to the victim.

D.  

Scan open services and ports on a server.

Discussion 0
Questions 31

An engineer is addressing a connectivity issue between two servers where the remote server is unable to establish a successful session. Initial checks show that the remote server is not receiving an SYN-ACK while establishing a session by sending the first SYN. What is causing this issue?

Options:

A.  

incorrect TCP handshake

B.  

incorrect UDP handshake

C.  

incorrect OSI configuration

D.  

incorrect snaplen configuration

Discussion 0
Questions 32

An organization has recently adjusted its security stance in response to online threats made by a known hacktivist group.

What is the initial event called in the NIST SP800-61?

Options:

A.  

online assault

B.  

precursor

C.  

trigger

D.  

instigator

Discussion 0
Questions 33

Refer to the exhibit.

During the analysis of a suspicious scanning activity incident, an analyst discovered multiple local TCP connection events Which technology provided these logs?

Options:

A.  

antivirus

B.  

proxy

C.  

IDS/IPS

D.  

firewall

Discussion 0
Questions 34

What is an example of social engineering attacks?

Options:

A.  

receiving an unexpected email from an unknown person with an attachment from someone in the same company

B.  

receiving an email from human resources requesting a visit to their secure website to update contact information

C.  

sending a verbal request to an administrator who knows how to change an account password

D.  

receiving an invitation to the department’s weekly WebEx meeting

Discussion 0
Questions 35

An employee reports that someone has logged into their system and made unapproved changes, files are out of order, and several documents have been placed in the recycle bin. The security specialist reviewed the system logs, found nothing suspicious, and was not able to determine what occurred. The software is up to date; there are no alerts from antivirus and no failed login attempts. What is causing the lack of data visibility needed to detect the attack?

Options:

A.  

The threat actor used a dictionary-based password attack to obtain credentials.

B.  

The threat actor gained access to the system by known credentials.

C.  

The threat actor used the teardrop technique to confuse and crash login services.

D.  

The threat actor used an unknown vulnerability of the operating system that went undetected.

Discussion 0
Questions 36

Refer to the exhibit.

What is shown in this PCAP file?

Options:

A.  

Timestamps are indicated with error.

B.  

The protocol is TCP.

C.  

The User-Agent is Mozilla/5.0.

D.  

The HTTP GET is encoded.

Discussion 0
Questions 37

Refer to the exhibit.

What is occurring?

Options:

A.  

ARP flood

B.  

DNS amplification

C.  

ARP poisoning

D.  

DNS tunneling

Discussion 0
Questions 38

What is the difference between vulnerability and risk?

Options:

A.  

A vulnerability is a sum of possible malicious entry points, and a risk represents the possibility of the unauthorized entry itself.

B.  

A risk is a potential threat that an exploit applies to, and a vulnerability represents the threat itself

C.  

A vulnerability represents a flaw in a security that can be exploited, and the risk is the potential damage it might cause.

D.  

A risk is potential threat that adversaries use to infiltrate the network, and a vulnerability is an exploit

Discussion 0
Questions 39

What does an attacker use to determine which network ports are listening on a potential target device?

Options:

A.  

man-in-the-middle

B.  

port scanning

C.  

SQL injection

D.  

ping sweep

Discussion 0
Questions 40

A threat actor penetrated an organization's network. Using the 5-tuple approach, which data points should the analyst use to isolate the compromised host in a grouped set of logs?

Options:

A.  

event name, log source, time, source IP, and host name

B.  

protocol, source IP, source port, destination IP, and destination port

C.  

event name, log source, time, source IP, and username

D.  

protocol, log source, source IP, destination IP, and host name

Discussion 0
Questions 41

Which artifact is used to uniquely identify a detected file?

Options:

A.  

file timestamp

B.  

file extension

C.  

file size

D.  

file hash

Discussion 0
Questions 42

Which type of data consists of connection level, application-specific records generated from network traffic?

Options:

A.  

transaction data

B.  

location data

C.  

statistical data

D.  

alert data

Discussion 0
Questions 43

Refer to the exhibit.

What does the message indicate?

Options:

A.  

an access attempt was made from the Mosaic web browser

B.  

a successful access attempt was made to retrieve the password file

C.  

a successful access attempt was made to retrieve the root of the website

D.  

a denied access attempt was made to retrieve the password file

Discussion 0
Questions 44

What is the principle of defense-in-depth?

Options:

A.  

Agentless and agent-based protection for security are used.

B.  

Several distinct protective layers are involved.

C.  

Access control models are involved.

D.  

Authentication, authorization, and accounting mechanisms are used.

Discussion 0
Questions 45

A security engineer deploys an enterprise-wide host/endpoint technology for all of the company's corporate PCs. Management requests the engineer to block a selected set of applications on all PCs.

Which technology should be used to accomplish this task?

Options:

A.  

application whitelisting/blacklisting

B.  

network NGFW

C.  

host-based IDS

D.  

antivirus/antispyware software

Discussion 0
Questions 46

Which metric in CVSS indicates an attack that takes a destination bank account number and replaces it with a different bank account number?

Options:

A.  

availability

B.  

confidentiality

C.  

scope

D.  

integrity

Discussion 0
Questions 47

Why should an engineer use a full packet capture to investigate a security breach?

Options:

A.  

It captures the TCP flags set within each packet for the engineer to focus on suspicious packets to identify malicious activity

B.  

It collects metadata for the engineer to analyze, including IP traffic packet data that is sorted, parsed, and indexed.

C.  

It provides the full TCP streams for the engineer to follow the metadata to identify the incoming threat.

D.  

It reconstructs the event allowing the engineer to identify the root cause by seeing what took place during the breach

Discussion 0
Questions 48

Refer to the exhibit.

Which application protocol is in this PCAP file?

Options:

A.  

SSH

B.  

TCP

C.  

TLS

D.  

HTTP

Discussion 0
Questions 49

What matches the regular expression c(rgr)+e?

Options:

A.  

crgrrgre

B.  

np+e

C.  

c(rgr)e

D.  

ce

Discussion 0
Questions 50

Drag and drop the technology on the left onto the data type the technology provides on the right.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 51

What is the difference between the rule-based detection when compared to behavioral detection?

Options:

A.  

Rule-Based detection is searching for patterns linked to specific types of attacks, while behavioral is identifying per signature.

B.  

Rule-Based systems have established patterns that do not change with new data, while behavioral changes.

C.  

Behavioral systems are predefined patterns from hundreds of users, while Rule-Based only flags potentially abnormal patterns using signatures.

D.  

Behavioral systems find sequences that match a particular attack signature, while Rule-Based identifies potential attacks.

Discussion 0
Questions 52

Which list identifies the information that the client sends to the server in the negotiation phase of the TLS handshake?

Options:

A.  

ClientStart, ClientKeyExchange, cipher-suites it supports, and suggested compression methods

B.  

ClientStart, TLS versions it supports, cipher-suites it supports, and suggested compression methods

C.  

ClientHello, TLS versions it supports, cipher-suites it supports, and suggested compression methods

D.  

ClientHello, ClientKeyExchange, cipher-suites it supports, and suggested compression methods

Discussion 0
Questions 53

Refer to the exhibit.

What is depicted in the exhibit?

Options:

A.  

Windows Event logs

B.  

Apache logs

C.  

IIS logs

D.  

UNIX-based syslog

Discussion 0
Questions 54

Refer to the exhibit.

What is occurring?

Options:

A.  

Cross-Site Scripting attack

B.  

XML External Entitles attack

C.  

Insecure Deserialization

D.  

Regular GET requests

Discussion 0
Questions 55

A security engineer notices confidential data being exfiltrated to a domain "Ranso4134-mware31-895" address that is attributed to a known advanced persistent threat group The engineer discovers that the activity is part of a real attack and not a network misconfiguration. Which category does this event fall under as defined in the Cyber Kill Chain?

Options:

A.  

reconnaissance

B.  

delivery

C.  

action on objectives

D.  

weaponization

Discussion 0
Questions 56

What is a description of a social engineering attack?

Options:

A.  

fake offer for free music download to trick the user into providing sensitive data

B.  

package deliberately sent to the wrong receiver to advertise a new product

C.  

mistakenly received valuable order destined for another person and hidden on purpose

D.  

email offering last-minute deals on various vacations around the world with a due date and a counter

Discussion 0
Questions 57

While viewing packet capture data, an analyst sees that one IP is sending and receiving traffic for multiple devices by modifying the IP header.

Which technology makes this behavior possible?

Options:

A.  

encapsulation

B.  

TOR

C.  

tunneling

D.  

NAT

Discussion 0
Questions 58

Refer to the exhibit.

An analyst received this alert from the Cisco ASA device, and numerous activity logs were produced. How should this type of evidence be categorized?

Options:

A.  

indirect

B.  

circumstantial

C.  

corroborative

D.  

best

Discussion 0
Questions 59

Refer to the exhibit. An employee received an email from an unknown sender with an attachment and reported it as a phishing attempt. An engineer uploaded the file to Cuckoo for further analysis. What should an engineer interpret from the provided Cuckoo report?

Options:

A.  

Win32.polip.a.exe is an executable file and should be flagged as malicious.

B.  

The file is clean and does not represent a risk.

C.  

Cuckoo cleaned the malicious file and prepared it for usage.

D.  

MD5 of the file was not identified as malicious.

Discussion 0
Questions 60

What are two denial of service attacks? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

MITM

B.  

TCP connections

C.  

ping of death

D.  

UDP flooding

E.  

code red

Discussion 0
Questions 61

Refer to the exhibit.

Which stakeholders must be involved when a company workstation is compromised?

Options:

A.  

Employee 1 Employee 2, Employee 3, Employee 4, Employee 5, Employee 7

B.  

Employee 1, Employee 2, Employee 4, Employee 5

C.  

Employee 4, Employee 6, Employee 7

D.  

Employee 2, Employee 3, Employee 4, Employee 5

Discussion 0
Questions 62

What is an advantage of symmetric over asymmetric encryption?

Options:

A.  

A key is generated on demand according to data type.

B.  

A one-time encryption key is generated for data transmission

C.  

It is suited for transmitting large amounts of data.

D.  

It is a faster encryption mechanism for sessions

Discussion 0
Questions 63

Which of these is a defense-in-depth strategy principle?

Options:

A.  

identify the minimum resource required per employee.

B.  

Assign the least network privileges to segment network permissions.

C.  

Provide the minimum permissions needed to perform Job functions.

D.  

Disable administrative accounts to avoid unauthorized changes.

Discussion 0
Questions 64

STION NO: 102

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the potential threat identified in this Stealthwatch dashboard?

Options:

A.  

A policy violation is active for host 10.10.101.24.

B.  

A host on the network is sending a DDoS attack to another inside host.

C.  

There are three active data exfiltration alerts.

D.  

A policy violation is active for host 10.201.3.149.

Discussion 0
Questions 65

Which security principle is violated by running all processes as root or administrator?

Options:

A.  

principle of least privilege

B.  

role-based access control

C.  

separation of duties

D.  

trusted computing base

Discussion 0
Questions 66

According to CVSS, what is a description of the attack vector score?

Options:

A.  

The metric score will be larger when it is easier to physically touch or manipulate the vulnerable component

B.  

It depends on how many physical and logical manipulations are possible on a vulnerable component

C.  

The metric score will be larger when a remote attack is more likely.

D.  

It depends on how far away the attacker is located and the vulnerable component

Discussion 0
Questions 67

A network engineer noticed in the NetFlow report that internal hosts are sending many DNS requests to external DNS servers A SOC analyst checked the endpoints and discovered that they are infected and became part of the botnet Endpoints are sending multiple DNS requests but with spoofed IP addresses of valid external sources What kind of attack are infected endpoints involved in1?

Options:

A.  

DNS hijacking

B.  

DNS tunneling

C.  

DNS flooding

D.  

DNS amplification

Discussion 0
Questions 68

How does an SSL certificate impact security between the client and the server?

Options:

A.  

by enabling an authenticated channel between the client and the server

B.  

by creating an integrated channel between the client and the server

C.  

by enabling an authorized channel between the client and the server

D.  

by creating an encrypted channel between the client and the server

Discussion 0
Questions 69

The security team has detected an ongoing spam campaign targeting the organization. The team's approach is to push back the cyber kill chain and mitigate ongoing incidents. At which phase of the cyber kill chain should the security team mitigate this type of attack?

Options:

A.  

actions

B.  

delivery

C.  

reconnaissance

D.  

installation

Discussion 0
Questions 70

What are two differences in how tampered and untampered disk images affect a security incident? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

Untampered images are used in the security investigation process

B.  

Tampered images are used in the security investigation process

C.  

The image is tampered if the stored hash and the computed hash match

D.  

Tampered images are used in the incident recovery process

E.  

The image is untampered if the stored hash and the computed hash match

Discussion 0
Questions 71

A security expert is working on a copy of the evidence, an ISO file that is saved in CDFS format. Which type of evidence is this file?

Options:

A.  

CD data copy prepared in Windows

B.  

CD data copy prepared in Mac-based system

C.  

CD data copy prepared in Linux system

D.  

CD data copy prepared in Android-based system

Discussion 0
Questions 72

How does certificate authority impact a security system?

Options:

A.  

It authenticates client identity when requesting SSL certificate

B.  

It validates domain identity of a SSL certificate

C.  

It authenticates domain identity when requesting SSL certificate

D.  

It validates client identity when communicating with the server

Discussion 0
Questions 73

Refer to the exhibit.

What must be interpreted from this packet capture?

Options:

A.  

IP address 192.168.88 12 is communicating with 192 168 88 149 with a source port 74 to destination port 49098 using TCP protocol

B.  

IP address 192.168.88.12 is communicating with 192 168 88 149 with a source port 49098 to destination port 80 using TCP protocol.

C.  

IP address 192.168.88.149 is communicating with 192.168 88.12 with a source port 80 to destination port 49098 using TCP protocol.

D.  

IP address 192.168.88.149 is communicating with 192.168.88.12 with a source port 49098 to destination port 80 using TCP protocol.

Discussion 0
Questions 74

How does an attacker observe network traffic exchanged between two users?

Options:

A.  

port scanning

B.  

man-in-the-middle

C.  

command injection

D.  

denial of service

Discussion 0
Questions 75

After a large influx of network traffic to externally facing devices, a security engineer begins investigating what appears to be a denial of service attack When the packet capture data is reviewed, the engineer notices that the traffic is a single SYN packet to each port Which type of attack is occurring?

Options:

A.  

traffic fragmentation

B.  

port scanning

C.  

host profiling

D.  

SYN flood

Discussion 0
Questions 76

What is a difference between SIEM and SOAR?

Options:

A.  

SOAR predicts and prevents security alerts, while SIEM checks attack patterns and applies the mitigation.

B.  

SlEM's primary function is to collect and detect anomalies, while SOAR is more focused on security operations automation and response.

C.  

SIEM predicts and prevents security alerts, while SOAR checks attack patterns and applies the mitigation.

D.  

SOAR's primary function is to collect and detect anomalies, while SIEM is more focused on security operations automation and response.

Discussion 0
Questions 77

Which classification of cross-site scripting attack executes the payload without storing it for repeated use?

Options:

A.  

stored

B.  

reflective

C.  

DOM

D.  

CSRF

Discussion 0
Questions 78

Refer to the exhibit.

Which field contains DNS header information if the payload is a query or a response?

Options:

A.  

Z

B.  

ID

C.  

TC

D.  

QR

Discussion 0
Questions 79

An analyst received an alert on their desktop computer showing that an attack was successful on the host. After investigating, the analyst discovered that no mitigation action occurred during the attack. What is the reason for this discrepancy?

Options:

A.  

The computer has a HIPS installed on it.

B.  

The computer has a NIPS installed on it.

C.  

The computer has a HIDS installed on it.

D.  

The computer has a NIDS installed on it.

Discussion 0
Questions 80

Which security principle requires more than one person is required to perform a critical task?

Options:

A.  

least privilege

B.  

need to know

C.  

separation of duties

D.  

due diligence

Discussion 0
Questions 81

Which incidence response step includes identifying all hosts affected by an attack?

Options:

A.  

detection and analysis

B.  

post-incident activity

C.  

preparation

D.  

containment, eradication, and recovery

Discussion 0
Questions 82

Refer to the exhibit.

This request was sent to a web application server driven by a database. Which type of web server attack is represented?

Options:

A.  

parameter manipulation

B.  

heap memory corruption

C.  

command injection

D.  

blind SQL injection

Discussion 0
Questions 83

Which type of attack is a blank email with the subject "price deduction" that contains a malicious attachment?

Options:

A.  

man-in-the-middle attack

B.  

smishing

C.  

phishing attack

D.  

integrity violation

Discussion 0
Questions 84

What is the difference between deep packet inspection and stateful inspection?

Options:

A.  

Stateful inspection verifies contents at Layer 4. and deep packet inspection verifies connection at Layer 7.

B.  

Stateful inspection is more secure than deep packet inspection on Layer 7.

C.  

Deep packet inspection is more secure than stateful inspection on Layer 4.

D.  

Deep packet inspection allows visibility on Layer 7, and stateful inspection allows visibility on Layer 4.

Discussion 0
Questions 85

An engineer is working with the compliance teams to identify the data passing through the network. During analysis, the engineer informs the compliance team that external penmeter data flows contain records, writings, and artwork Internal segregated network flows contain the customer choices by gender, addresses, and product preferences by age. The engineer must identify protected data. Which two types of data must be identified'? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

SOX

B.  

PII

C.  

PHI

D.  

PCI

E.  

copyright

Discussion 0
Questions 86

What is sliding window anomaly detection?

Options:

A.  

Detect changes in operations and management processes.

B.  

Identify uncommon patterns that do not fit usual behavior.

C.  

Define response times for requests for owned applications.

D.  

Apply lowest privilege/permission level to software

Discussion 0
Questions 87

Refer to the exhibit.

This request was sent to a web application server driven by a database. Which type of web server attack is represented?

Options:

A.  

parameter manipulation

B.  

heap memory corruption

C.  

command injection

D.  

blind SQL injection

Discussion 0
Questions 88

What causes events on a Windows system to show Event Code 4625 in the log messages?

Options:

A.  

The system detected an XSS attack

B.  

Someone is trying a brute force attack on the network

C.  

Another device is gaining root access to the system

D.  

A privileged user successfully logged into the system

Discussion 0
Questions 89

A security analyst notices a sudden surge of incoming traffic and detects unknown packets from unknown senders After further investigation, the analyst learns that customers claim that they cannot access company servers According to NIST SP800-61, in which phase of the incident response process is the analyst?

Options:

A.  

post-incident activity

B.  

detection and analysis

C.  

preparation

D.  

containment, eradication, and recovery

Discussion 0
Questions 90

Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of log is displayed?

Options:

A.  

IDS

B.  

proxy

C.  

NetFlow

D.  

sys

Discussion 0
Questions 91

Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of attack is being executed?

Options:

A.  

SQL injection

B.  

cross-site scripting

C.  

cross-site request forgery

D.  

command injection

Discussion 0
Questions 92

Which type of evidence supports a theory or an assumption that results from initial evidence?

Options:

A.  

probabilistic

B.  

indirect

C.  

best

D.  

corroborative

Discussion 0
Questions 93

When trying to evade IDS/IPS devices, which mechanism allows the user to make the data incomprehensible without a specific key, certificate, or password?

Options:

A.  

fragmentation

B.  

pivoting

C.  

encryption

D.  

stenography

Discussion 0
Questions 94

Refer to the exhibit.

A suspicious IP address is tagged by Threat Intelligence as a brute-force attempt source After the attacker produces many of failed login entries, it successfully compromises the account. Which stakeholder is responsible for the incident response detection step?

Options:

A.  

employee 5

B.  

employee 3

C.  

employee 4

D.  

employee 2

Discussion 0
Questions 95

Which data type is necessary to get information about source/destination ports?

Options:

A.  

statistical data

B.  

session data

C.  

connectivity data

D.  

alert data

Discussion 0
Questions 96

How is attacking a vulnerability categorized?

Options:

A.  

action on objectives

B.  

delivery

C.  

exploitation

D.  

installation

Discussion 0
Questions 97

An automotive company provides new types of engines and special brakes for rally sports cars. The company has a database of inventions and patents for their engines and technical information Customers can access the database through the company's website after they register and identify themselves. Which type of protected data is accessed by customers?

Options:

A.  

IP data

B.  

PII data

C.  

PSI data

D.  

PHI data

Discussion 0
Questions 98

What is the difference between the ACK flag and the RST flag?

Options:

A.  

The RST flag approves the connection, and the ACK flag terminates spontaneous connections.

B.  

The ACK flag confirms the received segment, and the RST flag terminates the connection.

C.  

The RST flag approves the connection, and the ACK flag indicates that a packet needs to be resent

D.  

The ACK flag marks the connection as reliable, and the RST flag indicates the failure within TCP Handshake

Discussion 0
Questions 99

Which type of data is used to detect anomalies in the network?

Options:

A.  

statistical data

B.  

alert data

C.  

transaction data

D.  

metadata

Discussion 0