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Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81.20 CCSA (156-215.81.20) Question and Answers

Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81.20 CCSA (156-215.81.20)

Last Update Nov 30, 2025
Total Questions : 411

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Questions 1

What type of NAT is a one-to-one relationship where each host is translated to a unique address?

Options:

A.  

Source

B.  

Static

C.  

Hide

D.  

Destination

Discussion 0
Questions 2

When defining group-based access in an LDAP environment with Identity Awareness, what is the BEST object type to represent an LDAP group in a Security Policy?

Options:

A.  

Access Role

B.  

User Group

C.  

SmartDirectory Group

D.  

Group Template

Discussion 0
Questions 3

Fill in the blank: When a policy package is installed, ________ are also distributed to the target installation Security Gateways.

Options:

A.  

User and objects databases

B.  

Network databases

C.  

SmartConsole databases

D.  

User databases

Discussion 0
Questions 4

A network administrator has informed you that they have identified a malicious host on the network, and instructed you to block it. Corporate policy dictates that firewall policy changes cannot be made at this time. What tool can you use to block this traffic?

Options:

A.  

Anti-Bot protection

B.  

Anti-Malware protection

C.  

Policy-based routing

D.  

Suspicious Activity Monitoring (SAM) rules

Discussion 0
Questions 5

Which of the following commands is used to verify license installation?

Options:

A.  

Cplic verify license

B.  

Cplic print

C.  

Cplic show

D.  

Cplic license

Discussion 0
Questions 6

In SmartConsole, objects are used to represent physical and virtual network components and also some logical components. These objects are divided into several categories. Which of the following is NOT an objects category?

Options:

A.  

Limit

B.  

Resource

C.  

Custom Application / Site

D.  

Network Object

Discussion 0
Questions 7

How do you manage Gaia?

Options:

A.  

Through CLI and WebUI

B.  

Through CLI only

C.  

Through SmartDashboard only

D.  

Through CLI, WebUI, and SmartDashboard

Discussion 0
Questions 8

Name the authentication method that requires token authenticator.

Options:

A.  

SecureID

B.  

Radius

C.  

DynamicID

D.  

TACACS

Discussion 0
Questions 9

What is the purpose of Captive Portal?

Options:

A.  

It manages user permission in SmartConsole

B.  

It provides remote access to SmartConsole

C.  

It authenticates users, allowing them access to the Internet and corporate resources

D.  

It authenticates users, allowing them access to the Gaia OS

Discussion 0
Questions 10

Due to high CPU workload on the Security Gateway, the security administrator decided to purchase a new multicore CPU to replace the existing single core CPU. After installation, is the administrator required to perform any additional tasks?

Options:

A.  

Go to clash-Run cpstop | Run cpstart

B.  

Go to clash-Run cpconfig | Configure CoreXL to make use of the additional Cores | Exit cpconfig | Reboot Security Gateway

C.  

Administrator does not need to perform any task. Check Point will make use of the newly installed CPU and Cores

D.  

Go to clash-Run cpconfig | Configure CoreXL to make use of the additional Cores | Exit cpconfig | Reboot Security Gateway | Install Security Policy

Discussion 0
Questions 11

What are the steps to configure the HTTPS Inspection Policy?

Options:

A.  

Go to Manage&Settings > Blades > HTTPS Inspection > Configure in SmartDashboard

B.  

Go to Application&url filtering blade > Advanced > Https Inspection > Policy

C.  

Go to Manage&Settings > Blades > HTTPS Inspection > Policy

D.  

Go to Application&url filtering blade > Https Inspection > Policy

Discussion 0
Questions 12

Which of the completed statements is NOT true? The WebUI can be used to manage Operating System user accounts and

Options:

A.  

add users to your Gaia system.

B.  

assign privileges to users.

C.  

assign user rights to their home directory in the Security Management Server.

D.  

edit the home directory of the user.

Discussion 0
Questions 13

What is the most recommended installation method for Check Point appliances?

Options:

A.  

SmartUpdate installation

B.  

DVD media created with Check Point ISOMorphic

C.  

USB media created with Check Point ISOMorphic

D.  

Cloud based installation

Discussion 0
Questions 14

Which path below is available only when CoreXL is enabled?

Options:

A.  

Slow path

B.  

Firewall path

C.  

Medium path

D.  

Accelerated path

Discussion 0
Questions 15

An administrator can use section titles to more easily navigate between large rule bases. Which of these statements is FALSE?

Options:

A.  

Section titles are not sent to the gateway side.

B.  

These sections are simple visual divisions of the Rule Base and do not hinder the order of rule enforcement.

C.  

A Sectional Title can be used to disable multiple rules by disabling only the sectional title.

D.  

Sectional Titles do not need to be created in the SmartConsole.

Discussion 0
Questions 16

The Network Operations Center administrator needs access to Check Point Security devices mostly for troubleshooting purposes. You do not want to give her access to the expert mode, but she still should be able to run tcpdump. How can you achieve this requirement?

Options:

A.  

Add tcpdump to CLISH using add command.Create a new access role.Add tcpdump to the role.Create new user with any UID and assign role to the user.

B.  

Add tcpdump to CLISH using add command.Create a new access role.Add tcpdump to the role.Create new user with UID 0 and assign role to the user.

C.  

Create a new access role.Add expert-mode access to the role.Create new user with UID 0 and assign role to the user.

D.  

Create a new access role.Add expert-mode access to the role.Create new user with any UID and assign role to the user.

Discussion 0
Questions 17

Check Point ClusterXL Active/Active deployment is used when:

Options:

A.  

Only when there is Multicast solution set up

B.  

There is Load Sharing solution set up

C.  

Only when there is Unicast solution set up

D.  

There is High Availability solution set up

Discussion 0
Questions 18

Gaia includes Check Point Upgrade Service Engine (CPUSE), which can directly receive updates for what components?

Options:

A.  

The Security Gateway (SG) and Security Management Server (SMS) software and the CPUSE engine.

B.  

Licensed Check Point products for the Gala operating system and the Gaia operating system itself.

C.  

The CPUSE engine and the Gaia operating system.

D.  

The Gaia operating system only.

Discussion 0
Questions 19

Fill in the blank Backup and restores can be accomplished through

Options:

A.  

SmartUpdate, SmartBackup. or SmartConsole

B.  

WebUI. CLI. or SmartUpdate

C.  

CLI. SmartUpdate, or SmartBackup

D.  

SmartConsole, WebUI. or CLI

Discussion 0
Questions 20

What are the two elements of address translation rules?

Options:

A.  

Original packet and translated packet

B.  

Manipulated packet and original packet

C.  

Translated packet and untranslated packet

D.  

Untranslated packet and manipulated packet

Discussion 0
Questions 21

Access roles allow the firewall administrator to configure network access according to:

Options:

A.  

remote access clients.

B.  

a combination of computer or computer groups and networks.

C.  

users and user groups.

D.  

All of the above.

Discussion 0
Questions 22

Name the pre-defined Roles included in Gaia OS.

Options:

A.  

AdminRole, and MonitorRole

B.  

ReadWriteRole, and ReadyOnly Role

C.  

AdminRole, cloningAdminRole, and Monitor Role

D.  

AdminRole

Discussion 0
Questions 23

In R80 Management, apart from using SmartConsole, objects or rules can also be modified using:

Options:

A.  

3rd Party integration of CLI and API for Gateways prior to R80.

B.  

A complete CLI and API interface using SSH and custom CPCode integration.

C.  

3rd Party integration of CLI and API for Management prior to R80.

D.  

A complete CLI and API interface for Management with 3rd Party integration.

Discussion 0
Questions 24

How Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace differ?

Options:

A.  

Capsule Connect provides a Layer3 VPN. Capsule Workspace provides a Desktop with usable applications

B.  

Capsule Workspace can provide access to any application

C.  

Capsule Connect provides Business data isolation

D.  

Capsule Connect does not require an installed application at client

Discussion 0
Questions 25

What is the main difference between Threat Extraction and Threat Emulation?

Options:

A.  

Threat Emulation never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete

B.  

Threat Extraction always delivers a file and takes less than a second to complete

C.  

Threat Emulation never delivers a file that takes less than a second to complete

D.  

Threat Extraction never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete

Discussion 0
Questions 26

A layer can support different combinations of blades What are the supported blades:

Options:

A.  

Firewall. URLF, Content Awareness and Mobile Access

B.  

Firewall (Network Access Control). Application & URL Filtering. Content Awareness and Mobile Access

C.  

Firewall. NAT, Content Awareness and Mobile Access

D.  

Firewall (Network Access Control). Application & URL Filtering and Content Awareness

Discussion 0
Questions 27

What is the purpose of the CPCA process?

Options:

A.  

Monitoring the status of processes

B.  

Sending and receiving logs

C.  

Communication between GUI clients and the SmartCenter server

D.  

Generating and modifying certificates

Discussion 0
Questions 28

Which Threat Prevention profile uses sanitization technology?

Options:

A.  

Cloud/data Center

B.  

perimeter

C.  

Sandbox

D.  

Guest Network

Discussion 0
Questions 29

View the rule below. What does the pen-symbol in the left column mean?

Options:

A.  

Those rules have been published in the current session.

B.  

Rules have been edited by the logged in administrator, but the policy has not been published yet.

C.  

Another user has currently locked the rules for editing.

D.  

The configuration lock is present. Click the pen symbol in order to gain the lock.

Discussion 0
Questions 30

To view the policy installation history for each gateway, which tool would an administrator use?

Options:

A.  

Revisions

B.  

Gateway installations

C.  

Installation history

D.  

Gateway history

Discussion 0
Questions 31

What is required for a certificate-based VPN tunnel between two gateways with separate management systems?

Options:

A.  

Shared Secret Passwords

B.  

Unique Passwords

C.  

Shared User Certificates

D.  

Mutually Trusted Certificate Authorities

Discussion 0
Questions 32

In what way is Secure Network Distributor (SND) a relevant feature of the Security Gateway?

Options:

A.  

SND is a feature to accelerate multiple SSL VPN connections

B.  

SND is an alternative to IPSec Main Mode, using only 3 packets

C.  

SND is used to distribute packets among Firewall instances

D.  

SND is a feature of fw monitor to capture accelerated packets

Discussion 0
Questions 33

Using AD Query, the security gateway connections to the Active Directory Domain Controllers using what protocol?

Options:

A.  

Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI)

B.  

Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS)

C.  

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

D.  

Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)

Discussion 0
Questions 34

In the Check Point Security Management Architecture, which component(s) can store logs?

Options:

A.  

SmartConsole

B.  

Security Management Server and Security Gateway

C.  

Security Management Server

D.  

SmartConsole and Security Management Server

Discussion 0
Questions 35

Fill in the blank: The position of an implied rule is manipulated in the __________________ window.

Options:

A.  

NAT

B.  

Firewall

C.  

Global Properties

D.  

Object Explorer

Discussion 0
Questions 36

What is the purpose of a Clean-up Rule?

Options:

A.  

Clean-up Rules do not server any purpose.

B.  

Provide a metric for determining unnecessary rules.

C.  

To drop any traffic that is not explicitly allowed.

D.  

Used to better optimize a policy.

Discussion 0
Questions 37

In SmartEvent, a correlation unit (CU) is used to do what?

Options:

A.  

Collect security gateway logs, Index the logs and then compress the logs.

B.  

Receive firewall and other software blade logs in a region and forward them to the primary log server.

C.  

Analyze log entries and identify events.

D.  

Send SAM block rules to the firewalls during a DOS attack.

Discussion 0
Questions 38

Which statement is TRUE of anti-spoofing?

Options:

A.  

Anti-spoofing is not needed when IPS software blade is enabled

B.  

It is more secure to create anti-spoofing groups manually

C.  

It is BEST Practice to have anti-spoofing groups in sync with the routing table

D.  

With dynamic routing enabled, anti-spoofing groups are updated automatically whenever there is a routing change

Discussion 0
Questions 39

When installing a dedicated R80 SmartEvent server, what is the recommended size of the root partition?

Options:

A.  

Any size

B.  

Less than 20GB

C.  

More than 10GB and less than 20 GB

D.  

At least 20GB

Discussion 0
Questions 40

Gaia has two default user accounts that cannot be deleted. What are those user accounts?

Options:

A.  

Admin and Default

B.  

Expert and Clish

C.  

Control and Monitor

D.  

Admin and Monitor

Discussion 0
Questions 41

URL Filtering employs a technology, which educates users on web usage policy in real time. What is the name of that technology?

Options:

A.  

WebCheck

B.  

UserCheck

C.  

Harmony Endpoint

D.  

URL categorization

Discussion 0
Questions 42

Which statement is NOT TRUE about Delta synchronization?

Options:

A.  

Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8161

B.  

Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8116

C.  

Quicker than Full sync

D.  

Transfers changes in the Kernel tables between cluster members

Discussion 0
Questions 43

Which of the following is NOT a valid deployment option for R80?

Options:

A.  

All-in-one (stand-alone)

B.  

CloudGuard

C.  

Distributed

D.  

Bridge Mode

Discussion 0
Questions 44

You noticed that CPU cores on the Security Gateway are usually 100% utilized and many packets were dropped. You don’t have a budget to perform a hardware upgrade at this time. To optimize drops you decide to use Priority Queues and fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher. How can you enable them?

Options:

A.  

fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching on

B.  

fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching set_mode 9

C.  

fw ctl multik set_mode 9

D.  

fw ctl miltik pq enable

Discussion 0
Questions 45

If there are two administrators logged in at the same time to the SmartConsole, and there are objects locked for editing, what must be done to make them available to other administrators? Choose the BEST answer

Options:

A.  

Save and install the Policy

B.  

Delete older versions of database

C.  

Revert the session.

D.  

Publish or discard the session

Discussion 0
Questions 46

How are the backups stored in Check Point appliances?

Options:

A.  

Saved as*.tar under /var/log/CPbackup/backups

B.  

Saved as*tgz under /var/CPbackup

C.  

Saved as*tar under /var/CPbackup

D.  

Saved as*tgz under /var/log/CPbackup/backups

Discussion 0
Questions 47

Which of the following is NOT a tracking option? (Select three)

Options:

A.  

Partial log

B.  

Log

C.  

Network log

D.  

Full log

Discussion 0
Questions 48

From the Gaia web interface, which of the following operations CANNOT be performed on a Security Management Server?

Options:

A.  

Verify a Security Policy

B.  

Open a terminal shell

C.  

Add a static route

D.  

View Security Management GUI Clients

Discussion 0
Questions 49

Aggressive Mode in IKEv1 uses how many packages for negotiation?

Options:

A.  

6

B.  

3

C.  

depends on the make of the peer gateway

D.  

5

Discussion 0
Questions 50

AdminA and AdminB are both logged into SmartConsole. What does it mean if AdminB sees a lock icon on a rule? Choose the BEST answer.

Options:

A.  

Rule is locked by AdminA and will be made available if the session is published.

B.  

Rule is locked by AdminA and if the session is saved, the rule will be made available.

C.  

Rule is locked by AdminB because the save button has not been pressed.

D.  

Rule is locked by AdminB because the rule is currently being edited.

Discussion 0
Questions 51

In which deployment is the security management server and Security Gateway installed on the same appliance?

Options:

A.  

Standalone

B.  

Remote

C.  

Distributed

D.  

Bridge Mode

Discussion 0
Questions 52

Secure Internal Communication (SIC) is handled by what process?

Options:

A.  

CPM

B.  

HTTPS

C.  

FWD

D.  

CPD

Discussion 0
Questions 53

Which type of attack can a firewall NOT prevent?

Options:

A.  

Network Bandwidth Saturation

B.  

Buffer Overflow

C.  

SYN Flood

D.  

SQL Injection

Discussion 0
Questions 54

Is it possible to have more than one administrator connected to a Security Management Server at once?

Options:

A.  

Yes, but only if all connected administrators connect with read-only permissions.

B.  

Yes, but objects edited by one administrator will be locked for editing by others until the session is published.

C.  

No, only one administrator at a time can connect to a Security Management Server

D.  

Yes, but only one of those administrators will have write-permissions. All others will have read-only permission.

Discussion 0
Questions 55

Fill in the blanks: A Check Point software license consists of a__________ and _______.

Options:

A.  

Software blade; software container

B.  

Software package: signature

C.  

Signature; software blade

D.  

Software container software package

Discussion 0
Questions 56

Which Check Point software blade prevents malicious files from entering a network using virus signatures and anomaly-based protections from ThreatCloud?

Options:

A.  

Firewall

B.  

Application Control

C.  

Anti-spam and Email Security

D.  

Anti-Virus

Discussion 0
Questions 57

Which of the following is a valid deployment option?

Options:

A.  

CloudSec deployment

B.  

Disliked deployment

C.  

Router only deployment

D.  

Standalone deployment

Discussion 0
Questions 58

When comparing Stateful Inspection and Packet Filtering, what is a benefit that Stateful Inspection offers over Packer Filtering?

Options:

A.  

Stateful Inspection offers unlimited connections because of virtual memory usage.

B.  

Stateful Inspection offers no benefits over Packet Filtering.

C.  

Stateful Inspection does not use memory to record the protocol used by the connection.

D.  

Only one rule is required for each connection.

Discussion 0
Questions 59

You are the Check Point administrator for Alpha Corp with an R80 Check Point estate. You have received a call by one of the management users stating that they are unable to browse the Internet with their new tablet connected to the company Wireless. The Wireless system goes through the Check Point Gateway. How do you review the logs to see what the problem may be?

Options:

A.  

Open SmartLog and connect remotely to the IP of the wireless controller

B.  

Open SmartView Tracker and filter the logs for the IP address of the tablet

C.  

Open SmartView Tracker and check all the IP logs for the tablet

D.  

Open SmartLog and query for the IP address of the Manager’s tablet

Discussion 0
Questions 60

What is the purpose of a Stealth Rule?

Options:

A.  

A rule used to hide a server's IP address from the outside world.

B.  

A rule that allows administrators to access SmartDashboard from any device.

C.  

To drop any traffic destined for the firewall that is not otherwise explicitly allowed.

D.  

A rule at the end of your policy to drop any traffic that is not explicitly allowed.

Discussion 0
Questions 61

Which two Identity Awareness commands are used to support identity sharing?

Options:

A.  

Policy Decision Point (PDP) and Policy Enforcement Point (PEP)

B.  

Policy Enforcement Point (PEP) and Policy Manipulation Point (PMP)

C.  

Policy Manipulation Point (PMP) and Policy Activation Point (PAP)

D.  

Policy Activation Point (PAP) and Policy Decision Point (PDP)

Discussion 0
Questions 62

What are the advantages of a “shared policy” in R80?

Options:

A.  

Allows the administrator to share a policy between all the users identified by the Security Gateway

B.  

Allows the administrator to share a policy between all the administrators managing the Security Management Server

C.  

Allows the administrator to share a policy so that it is available to use in another Policy Package

D.  

Allows the administrator to install a policy on one Security Gateway and it gets installed on another managed Security Gateway

Discussion 0
Questions 63

One of major features in R80.x SmartConsole is concurrent administration. Which of the following is NOT possible considering that AdminA, AdminB, and AdminC are editing the same Security Policy?

Options:

A.  

AdminC sees a lock icon which indicates that the rule is locked for editing by another administrator.

B.  

AdminA and AdminB are editing the same rule at the same time.

C.  

AdminB sees a pencil icon next the rule that AdminB is currently editing.

D.  

AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing three different rules at the same time.

Discussion 0
Questions 64

Which SmartConsole tab shows logs and detects security threats, providing a centralized display of potential attack patterns from all network devices?

Options:

A.  

Gateway and Servers

B.  

Logs and Monitor

C.  

Manage Seeting

D.  

Security Policies

Discussion 0
Questions 65

Which software blade does NOT accompany the Threat Prevention policy?

Options:

A.  

IPS

B.  

Application Control and URL Filtering

C.  

Threat Emulation

D.  

Anti-virus

Discussion 0
Questions 66

Which tool is used to enable cluster membership on a Gateway?

Options:

A.  

SmartUpdate

B.  

cpconfig

C.  

SmartConsole

D.  

sysconfig

Discussion 0
Questions 67

What is the user ID of a user that have all the privileges of a root user?

Options:

A.  

User ID 1

B.  

User ID 2

C.  

User ID 0

D.  

User ID 99

Discussion 0
Questions 68

The purpose of the Communication Initialization process is to establish a trust between the Security Management Server and the Check Point gateways. Which statement best describes this Secure Internal

Communication (SIC)?

Options:

A.  

After successful initialization, the gateway can communicate with any Check Point node that possesses a SIC certificate signed by the same IC

A.  

B.  

Secure Internal Communications authenticates the security gateway to the SMS before http communications are allowed.

C.  

A SIC certificate is automatically generated on the gateway because the gateway hosts a subordinate CA to the SMS ICA.

D.  

New firewalls can easily establish the trust by using the expert password defined on the SMS and the SMS IP address.

Discussion 0
Questions 69

Which of the following is NOT a role of the SmartCenter:

Options:

A.  

Status monitoring

B.  

Policy configuration

C.  

Certificate authority

D.  

Address translation

Discussion 0
Questions 70

DLP and Geo Policy are examples of what type of Policy?

Options:

A.  

Inspection Policies

B.  

Shared Policies

C.  

Unified Policies

D.  

Standard Policies

Discussion 0
Questions 71

What is UserCheck?

Options:

A.  

Messaging tool user to verify a user’s credentials

B.  

Communication tool used to inform a user about a website or application they are trying to access

C.  

Administrator tool used to monitor users on their network

D.  

Communication tool used to notify an administrator when a new user is created

Discussion 0
Questions 72

Which command is used to add users to or from existing roles?

Options:

A.  

add rba user roles

B.  

add user

C.  

add rba user

D.  

add user roles

Discussion 0
Questions 73

Which of the following methods can be used to update the trusted log server regarding the policy and configuration changes performed on the Security Management Server?

Options:

A.  

Save Policy

B.  

Install Database

C.  

Save session

D.  

Install Policy

Discussion 0
Questions 74

Fill in the blank: In Security Gateways R75 and above, SIC uses ______________ for encryption.

Options:

A.  

AES-128

B.  

AES-256

C.  

DES

D.  

3DES

Discussion 0
Questions 75

Consider the Global Properties following settings:

The selected option “Accept Domain Name over UDP (Queries)” means:

Options:

A.  

UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed only through interfaces with external anti-spoofing topology and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

B.  

All UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed through all interfaces and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

C.  

No UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed through all interfaces and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

D.  

All UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed by first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

Discussion 0
Questions 76

Which Security Blade needs to be enabled in order to sanitize and remove potentially malicious content from files, before those files enter the network?

Options:

A.  

Threat Emulation

B.  

Anti-Malware

C.  

Anti-Virus

D.  

Threat Extraction

Discussion 0
Questions 77

Fill in the blank: The _____ feature allows administrators to share a policy with other policy packages.

Options:

A.  

Concurrent policy packages

B.  

Concurrent policies

C.  

Global Policies

D.  

Shared policies

Discussion 0
Questions 78

After trust has been established between the Check Point components, what is TRUE about name and IP-address changes?

Options:

A.  

Security Gateway IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust

B.  

The Security Gateway name cannot be changed in command line without re-establishing trust

C.  

The Security Management Server name cannot be changed in SmartConsole without re-establishing trust

D.  

The Security Management Server IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust

Discussion 0
Questions 79

An administrator wishes to use Application objects in a rule in their policy but there are no Application objects listed as options to add when clicking the"+" to add new items to the "Services & Applications" column of a rule. What should be done to fix this?

Options:

A.  

The administrator should drag-and-drop the needed Application objects from the Object Explorer into the new rule

B.  

The "Application Control" blade should be enabled on a gateway

C.  

"Applications & URL Filtering" should first be enabled on the policy layer where the rule is being created.

D.  

The administrator should first create some applications to add to the rule.

Discussion 0
Questions 80

Using R80 Smart Console, what does a “pencil icon” in a rule mean?

Options:

A.  

I have changed this rule

B.  

Someone else has changed this rule

C.  

This rule is managed by check point’s SOC

D.  

This rule can’t be changed as it’s an implied rule

Discussion 0
Questions 81

Of all the Check Point components in your network, which one changes most often and should be backed up most frequently?

Options:

A.  

SmartManager

B.  

SmartConsole

C.  

Security Gateway

D.  

Security Management Server

Discussion 0
Questions 82

You are asked to check the status of several user-mode processes on the management server and gateway. Which of the following processes can only be seen on a Management Server?

Options:

A.  

fwd

B.  

fwm

C.  

cpd

D.  

cpwd

Discussion 0
Questions 83

With URL Filtering, what portion of the traffic is sent to the Check Point Online Web Service for analysis?

Options:

A.  

The complete communication is sent for inspection.

B.  

The IP address of the source machine.

C.  

The end user credentials.

D.  

The host portion of the URL.

Discussion 0
Questions 84

The ______ software blade package uses CPU-level and OS-level sandboxing in order to detect and block malware.

Options:

A.  

Next Generation Threat Prevention

B.  

Next Generation Threat Emulation

C.  

Next Generation Threat Extraction

D.  

Next Generation Firewall

Discussion 0
Questions 85

Fill in the blank: Once a certificate is revoked from the Security GateWay by the Security Management Server, the certificate information is _______.

Options:

A.  

Sent to the Internal Certificate Authority.

B.  

Sent to the Security Administrator.

C.  

Stored on the Security Management Server.

D.  

Stored on the Certificate Revocation List.

Discussion 0
Questions 86

Fill in the blanks: The Application Layer Firewalls inspect traffic through the ______ layer(s) of the TCP/IP model and up to and including the ______ layer.

Options:

A.  

Upper; Application

B.  

First two; Internet

C.  

Lower; Application

D.  

First two; Transport

Discussion 0
Questions 87

Fill in the blank: An LDAP server holds one or more ______________.

Options:

A.  

Server Units

B.  

Administrator Units

C.  

Account Units

D.  

Account Servers

Discussion 0
Questions 88

Fill in the blank: A(n)_____rule is created by an administrator and configured to allow or block traffic based on specified criteria.

Options:

A.  

Inline

B.  

Explicit

C.  

Implicit drop

D.  

Implicit accept

Discussion 0
Questions 89

Which command shows detailed information about VPN tunnels?

Options:

A.  

cat $FWDIR/conf/vpn.conf

B.  

vpn tu tlist

C.  

vpn tu

D.  

cpview

Discussion 0
Questions 90

Identity Awareness lets an administrator easily configure network access and auditing based on three items Choose the correct statement.

Options:

A.  

Network location, the identity of a user and the active directory membership.

B.  

Network location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine.

C.  

Network location, the telephone number of a user and the UID of a machine

D.  

Geographical location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine

Discussion 0
Questions 91

What are the three deployment options available for a security gateway?

Options:

A.  

Standalone, Distributed, and Bridge Mode

B.  

Bridge Mode, Remote, and Standalone

C.  

Remote, Standalone, and Distributed

D.  

Distributed, Bridge Mode, and Remote

Discussion 0
Questions 92

What is the main difference between Static NAT and Hide NAT?

Options:

A.  

Static NAT only allows incoming connections to protect your network.

B.  

Static NAT allow incoming and outgoing connections. Hide NAT only allows outgoing connections.

C.  

Static NAT only allows outgoing connections. Hide NAT allows incoming and outgoing connections.

D.  

Hide NAT only allows incoming connections to protect your network.

Discussion 0
Questions 93

In HTTPS Inspection policy, what actions are available in the "Actions" column of a rule?

Options:

A.  

"Inspect", "Bypass"

B.  

"Inspect", "Bypass", "Categorize"

C.  

"Inspect", "Bypass", "Block"

D.  

"Detect", "Bypass"

Discussion 0
Questions 94

In Unified SmartConsole Gateways and Servers tab you can perform the following functions EXCEPT ________.

Options:

A.  

Upgrade the software version

B.  

Open WebUI

C.  

Open SSH

D.  

Open service request with Check Point Technical Support

Discussion 0
Questions 95

Which GUI tool can be used to view and apply Check Point licenses?

Options:

A.  

cpconfig

B.  

Management Command Line

C.  

SmartConsole

D.  

SmartUpdate

Discussion 0
Questions 96

Under which file is the proxy arp configuration stored?

Options:

A.  

$FWDIR/state/proxy_arp.conf on the management server

B.  

$FWDIR/conf/local.arp on the management server

C.  

$FWDIR/state/_tmp/proxy.arp on the security gateway

D.  

$FWDIR/conf/local.arp on the gateway

Discussion 0
Questions 97

Which one of the following is the preferred licensing model? Select the BEST answer

Options:

A.  

Local licensing because it ties the package license to the IP-address of the gateway and has no dependency of the Security Management Server.

B.  

Central licensing because it ties the package license to the IP-address of the Security Management Server and has no dependency on the gateway.

C.  

Central licensing because it ties the package license to the MAC-address of the Security Management Server's Mgmt-interface and has no dependency

on the gateway.

D.  

Local licensing because it ties the package license to the MAC-address of the gateway management interface and has no Security Management Server

dependency.

Discussion 0
Questions 98

SandBlast offers flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs. What is an option for deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?

Options:

A.  

Smart Cloud Services

B.  

Load Sharing Mode Services

C.  

Threat Agent Solution

D.  

Public Cloud Services

Discussion 0
Questions 99

The competition between stateful inspection and proxies was based on performance, protocol support, and security. Considering stateful Inspections and Proxies, which statement is correct?

Options:

A.  

Stateful Inspection is limited to Layer 3 visibility, with no Layer 4 to Layer 7 visibility capabilities.

B.  

When it comes to performance, proxies were significantly faster than stateful inspection firewalls.

C.  

Proxies offer far more security because of being able to give visibility of the payload (the data).

D.  

When it comes to performance, stateful inspection was significantly faster than proxies.

Discussion 0
Questions 100

Please choose correct command syntax to add an “emailserver1” host with IP address 10.50.23.90 using GAiA management CLI?

Options:

A.  

hostname myHost12 ip-address 10.50.23.90

B.  

mgmt add host name ip-address 10.50.23.90

C.  

add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90

D.  

mgmt add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90

Discussion 0
Questions 101

When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which other Check Point architecture component?

Options:

A.  

None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself.

B.  

SmartConsole

C.  

SecureClient

D.  

SmartEvent

Discussion 0
Questions 102

What kind of NAT enables Source Port Address Translation by default?

Options:

A.  

Automatic Static NAT

B.  

Manual Hide NAT

C.  

Automatic Hide NAT

D.  

Manual Static NAT

Discussion 0
Questions 103

Which product correlates logs and detects security threats, providing a centralized display of potential attack patterns from all network devices?

Options:

A.  

SmartDashboard

B.  

SmartEvent

C.  

SmartView Monitor

D.  

SmartUpdate

Discussion 0
Questions 104

Fill in the blank: When tunnel test packets no longer invoke a response, SmartView Monitor displays _____________ for the given VPN tunnel.

Options:

A.  

Down

B.  

No Response

C.  

Inactive

D.  

Failed

Discussion 0
Questions 105

Which of the following is the most secure means of authentication?

Options:

A.  

Password

B.  

Certificate

C.  

Token

D.  

Pre-shared secret

Discussion 0
Questions 106

Which of the following is considered to be the more secure and preferred VPN authentication method?

Options:

A.  

Password

B.  

Certificate

C.  

MD5

D.  

Pre-shared secret

Discussion 0
Questions 107

When a Security Gateways sends its logs to an IP address other than its own, which deployment option is installed?

Options:

A.  

Distributed

B.  

Standalone

C.  

Bridge

Discussion 0
Questions 108

Which of the following commands is used to monitor cluster members?

Options:

A.  

cphaprob state

B.  

cphaprob status

C.  

cphaprob

D.  

cluster state

Discussion 0
Questions 109

Can multiple administrators connect to a Security Management Server at the same time?

Options:

A.  

No, only one can be connected

B.  

Yes, all administrators can modify a network object at the same time

C.  

Yes, every administrator has their own username, and works in a session that is independent of other administrators

D.  

Yes, but only one has the right to write

Discussion 0
Questions 110

You have enabled "Extended Log" as a tracking option to a security rule. However, you are still not seeing any data type information. What is the MOST likely reason?

Options:

A.  

Identity Awareness is not enabled.

B.  

Log Trimming is enabled.

C.  

Logging has disk space issues

D.  

Content Awareness is not enabled.

Discussion 0
Questions 111

In ____________ NAT, the ____________ is translated.

Options:

A.  

Hide; source

B.  

Static; source

C.  

Simple; source

D.  

Hide; destination

Discussion 0
Questions 112

Which method below is NOT one of the ways to communicate using the Management API’s?

Options:

A.  

Typing API commands using the “mgmt_cli” command

B.  

Typing API commands from a dialog box inside the SmartConsole GUI application

C.  

Typing API commands using Gaia’s secure shell (clash)19+

D.  

Sending API commands over an http connection using web-services

Discussion 0
Questions 113

Tom has connected to the Management Server remotely using SmartConsole and is in the process of making some Rule Base changes, when he suddenly loses connectivity. Connectivity is restored shortly afterward. What will happen to the changes already made?

Options:

A.  

Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, clear the cache, and restore changes.

B.  

Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, and access the Management cache store on that computer, which is only accessible after a reboot.

C.  

Tom's changes will be lost since he lost connectivity and he will have to start again.

D.  

Tom's changes will have been stored on the Management when he reconnects and he will not lose any of his work.

Discussion 0
Questions 114

How is communication between different Check Point components secured in R80? As with all questions, select the best answer.

Options:

A.  

By using IPSEC

B.  

By using SIC

C.  

By using ICA

D.  

By using 3DES

Discussion 0
Questions 115

When a SAM rule is required on Security Gateway to quickly block suspicious connections which are not restricted by the Security Policy, what actions does the administrator need to take?

Options:

A.  

SmartView Monitor should be opened and then the SAM rule/s can be applied immediately. Installing policy is not required.

B.  

The policy type SAM must be added to the Policy Package and a new SAM rule must be applied. Simply Publishing the changes applies the SAM rule on the firewall.

C.  

The administrator must work on the firewall CLI (for example with SSH and PuTTY) and the command 'sam block' must be used with the right parameters.

D.  

The administrator should open the LOGS & MONITOR view and find the relevant log. Right clicking on the log entry will show the Create New SAM rule option.

Discussion 0
Questions 116

Which backup utility captures the most information and tends to create the largest archives?

Options:

A.  

backup

B.  

snapshot

C.  

Database Revision

D.  

migrate export

Discussion 0
Questions 117

In Logging and Monitoring, the tracking options are Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log. Which of the following options can you add to each Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log?

Options:

A.  

Accounting

B.  

Suppression

C.  

Accounting/Suppression

D.  

Accounting/Extended

Discussion 0
Questions 118

What are the software components used by Autonomous Threat Prevention Profiles in R8I.20 and higher?

Options:

A.  

Sandbox, ThreatCloud, Zero Phishing, Sanitization, C&C Protection, JPS, File and URL Reputation

B.  

IPS, Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction

C.  

Sandbox, ThreatCloud, Sanitization, C&C Protection, IPS

D.  

IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, SandBlast and Macro Extraction

Discussion 0
Questions 119

By default, which port does the WebUI listen on?

Options:

A.  

8080

B.  

80

C.  

4434

D.  

443

Discussion 0
Questions 120

Which of the following technologies extracts detailed information from packets and stores that information in state tables?

Options:

A.  

INSPECT Engine

B.  

Next-Generation Firewall

C.  

Packet Filtering

D.  

Application Layer Firewall

Discussion 0
Questions 121

When a Security Gateway sends its logs to an IP address other than its own, which deployment option is installed?

Options:

A.  

Distributed

B.  

Standalone

C.  

Bridge Mode

D.  

Targeted

Discussion 0
Questions 122

Which default Gaia user has full read/write access?

Options:

A.  

admin

B.  

superuser

C.  

monitor

D.  

altuser

Discussion 0
Questions 123

R80.10 management server can manage gateways with which versions installed?

Options:

A.  

Versions R77 and higher

B.  

Versions R76 and higher

C.  

Versions R75.20 and higher

D.  

Version R75 and higher

Discussion 0