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Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner (PCCP) Question and Answers

Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner (PCCP)

Last Update Jan 14, 2026
Total Questions : 227

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Questions 1

How does Prisma SaaS provide protection for Sanctioned SaaS applications?

Options:

A.  

Prisma SaaS connects to an organizations internal print and file sharing services to provide protection and sharing visibility

B.  

Prisma SaaS does not provide protection for Sanctioned SaaS applications because they are secure

C.  

Prisma access uses Uniform Resource Locator (URL) Web categorization to provide protection and sharing visibility

D.  

Prisma SaaS connects directly to sanctioned external service providers SaaS application service to provide protection and sharing visibility

Discussion 0
Questions 2

You received an email, allegedly from a bank, that asks you to click a malicious link to take action on your account.

Which type of attack is this?

Options:

A.  

Whaling

B.  

Spamming

C.  

Spear phishing

D.  

Phishing

Discussion 0
Questions 3

Which two statements describe the Jasager attack? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

□ The victim must manually choose the attacker s access point

B.  

□ It actively responds to beacon reguests.

C.  

□ It tries to get victims to conned at random.

D.  

□ The attacker needs to be wilhin close proximity of the victim.

Discussion 0
Questions 4

Which scenario highlights how a malicious Portable Executable (PE) file is leveraged as an attack?

Options:

A.  

Setting up a web page for harvesting user credentials

B.  

Laterally transferring the file through a network after being granted access

C.  

Embedding the file inside a pdf to be downloaded and installed

D.  

Corruption of security device memory spaces while file is in transit

Discussion 0
Questions 5

Which activities do local organization security policies cover for a SaaS application?

Options:

A.  

how the data is backed up in one or more locations

B.  

how the application can be used

C.  

how the application processes the data

D.  

how the application can transit the Internet

Discussion 0
Questions 6

Which type of portable architecture can package software with dependencies in an isolated unit?

Options:

A.  

Containerized

B.  

Serverless

C.  

Air-gapped

D.  

SaaS

Discussion 0
Questions 7

An administrator finds multiple gambling websites in the network traffic log.

What can be created to dynamically block these websites?

Options:

A.  

URL category

B.  

Custom signatures

C.  

Decryption policy

D.  

Application group

Discussion 0
Questions 8

Which Palo Alto Networks tools enable a proactive, prevention-based approach to network automation that accelerates security analysis?

Options:

A.  

MineMeld

B.  

AutoFocus

C.  

WildFire

D.  

Cortex XDR

Discussion 0
Questions 9

Which Palo Alto Networks solution has replaced legacy IPS solutions?

Options:

A.  

Advanced DNS Security

B.  

Advanced WildFire

C.  

Advanced Threat Prevention

D.  

Advanced URL Filtering

Discussion 0
Questions 10

Which action must Secunty Operations take when dealing with a known attack?

Options:

A.  

Document, monitor, and track the incident.

B.  

Limit the scope of who knows about the incident.

C.  

Increase the granularity of the application firewall.

D.  

Disclose details of lhe attack in accordance with regulatory standards.

Discussion 0
Questions 11

Which Palo Alto Networks product provides playbooks with 300+ multivendor integrations that help solve any security use case?

Options:

A.  

Cortex XSOAR

B.  

Prisma Cloud

C.  

AutoFocus

D.  

Cortex XDR

Discussion 0
Questions 12

Which SOAR feature coordinates across technologies, security teams, and external users for centralized data visibility and action?

Options:

A.  

Case management

B.  

Integrations

C.  

Ticketing system

D.  

Playbooks

Discussion 0
Questions 13

Match the IoT connectivity description with the technology.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 14

Which item accurately describes a security weakness that is caused by implementing a “ports first” data security solution in a traditional data center?

Options:

A.  

You may have to use port numbers greater than 1024 for your business-critical applications.

B.  

You may have to open up multiple ports and these ports could also be used to gain unauthorized entry into your datacenter.

C.  

You may not be able to assign the correct port to your business-critical applications.

D.  

You may not be able to open up enough ports for your business-critical applications which will increase the attack surface area.

Discussion 0
Questions 15

Which analysis detonates previously unknown submissions in a custom-built, evasion-resistant virtual environment to determine real-world effects and behavior?

Options:

A.  

Dynamic

B.  

Pre-exploit protection

C.  

Bare-metal

D.  

Static

Discussion 0
Questions 16

What are two disadvantages of Static Rout ng? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

Manual reconfiguration

B.  

Requirement for additional computational resources

C.  

Single point of failure

D.  

Less security

Discussion 0
Questions 17

Which action is unique to the security orchestration, automation, and response (SOAR) platforms?

Options:

A.  

Prioritizing alerts

B.  

Enhancing data collection

C.  

Using predefined workflows

D.  

Correlating incident data

Discussion 0
Questions 18

A user is given access to a service that gives them access to cloud-hosted physical and virtual servers, storage, and networking.

Which NIST cloud service model is this?

Options:

A.  

IaaS

B.  

SaaS

C.  

PaaS

D.  

CaaS

Discussion 0
Questions 19

Which type of system collects data and uses correlation rules to trigger alarms?

Options:

A.  

SIM

B.  

SIEM

C.  

UEBA

D.  

SOAR

Discussion 0
Questions 20

Which security component can detect command-and-control traffic sent from multiple endpoints within a corporate data center?

Options:

A.  

Personal endpoint firewall

B.  

Port-based firewall

C.  

Next-generation firewall

D.  

Stateless firewall

Discussion 0
Questions 21

Which methodology does Identity Threat Detection and Response (ITDR) use?

Options:

A.  

Behavior analysis

B.  

Comparison of alerts to signatures

C.  

Manual inspection of user activities

D.  

Rule-based activity prioritization

Discussion 0
Questions 22

Which characteristic of advanced malware makes it difficult to detect?

Options:

A.  

Data decompression

B.  

Registered certificates

C.  

Morphing code

D.  

Low traffic volumes

Discussion 0
Questions 23

What are two capabilities of identity threat detection and response (ITDR)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

Securing individual devices

B.  

Matching risks to signatures

C.  

Scanning for excessive logins

D.  

Analyzing access management logs

Discussion 0
Questions 24

Which network analysis tool can be used to record packet captures?

Options:

A.  

Smart IP Scanner

B.  

Wireshark

C.  

Angry IP Scanner

D.  

Netman

Discussion 0
Questions 25

Which MITRE ATT&CK tactic grants increased permissions to a user account for internal servers of a corporate network?

Options:

A.  

Impact

B.  

Privilege escalation

C.  

Data exfiltration

D.  

Persistence

Discussion 0
Questions 26

A firewall administrator needs to efficiently deploy corporate account configurations and VPN settings to targeted mobile devices within the network.

Which technology meets this requirement?

Options:

A.  

SIEM

B.  

MDM

C.  

EDR

D.  

ADEM

Discussion 0
Questions 27

Match the description with the VPN technology.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 28

Which attacker profile uses the internet to recruit members to an ideology, to train them, and to spread fear and include panic?

Options:

A.  

cybercriminals

B.  

state-affiliated groups

C.  

hacktivists

D.  

cyberterrorists

Discussion 0
Questions 29

Match the Palo Alto Networks WildFire analysis verdict with its definition.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 30

Anthem server breaches disclosed Personally Identifiable Information (PII) from a number of its servers. The infiltration by hackers was attributed to which type of vulnerability?

Options:

A.  

an intranet-accessed contractor’s system that was compromised

B.  

exploitation of an unpatched security vulnerability

C.  

access by using a third-party vendor’s password

D.  

a phishing scheme that captured a database administrator’s password

Discussion 0
Questions 31

Which endpoint product from Palo Alto Networks can help with SOC visibility?

Options:

A.  

STIX

B.  

Cortex XDR

C.  

WildFire

D.  

AutoFocus

Discussion 0
Questions 32

Which of the Cloud-Delivered Security Services (CDSS) will detect zero-day malware by using inline cloud machine learning (ML) and sandboxing?

Options:

A.  

DNS security

B.  

Advanced WildFire

C.  

loT security

D.  

Advanced Threat Prevention

Discussion 0
Questions 33

Which component of the AAA framework regulates user access and permissions to resources?

Options:

A.  

Authorization

B.  

Allowance

C.  

Accounting

D.  

Authentication

Discussion 0
Questions 34

Which internet of things (loT) connectivity technology operates on the 2.4GHz and 5GHz bands, as well as all bands between 1 and 6GHz when they become available for 802.11 use. at ranges up to 11 Gbit/s?

Options:

A.  

3G

B.  

Z-wave

C.  

802.11ax

D.  

C-band

Discussion 0
Questions 35

In the network diagram below, which device is the router?

Options:

A.  

A

B.  

C

C.  

D

D.  

B

Discussion 0
Questions 36

Which statement describes DevOps?

Options:

A.  

DevOps is its own separate team

B.  

DevOps is a set of tools that assists the Development and Operations teams throughout the softwaredelivery process

C.  

DevOps is a combination of the Development and Operations teams

D.  

DevOps is a culture that unites the Development and Operations teams throughout the software delivery process

Discussion 0
Questions 37

Which statement describes advanced malware?

Options:

A.  

It operates openly and can be detected by traditional antivirus.

B.  

It lacks the ability to exfiltrate data or persist within a system.

C.  

It is designed to avoid detection and adapt.

D.  

It can operate without consuming resources.

Discussion 0
Questions 38

Which key component is used to configure a static route?

Options:

A.  

router ID

B.  

enable setting

C.  

routing protocol

D.  

next hop IP address

Discussion 0
Questions 39

Layer 4 of the TCP/IP Model corresponds to which three Layer(s) of the OSI Model? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.  

Network

B.  

Application

C.  

Session

D.  

Transport

E.  

Presentation

Discussion 0
Questions 40

Which model would a customer choose if they want full control over the operating system(s) running on their cloud computing platform?

Options:

A.  

SaaS

B.  

DaaS

C.  

PaaS

D.  

IaaS

Discussion 0
Questions 41

Which type of malware takes advantage of a vulnerability on an endpoint or server?

Options:

A.  

technique

B.  

patch

C.  

vulnerability

D.  

exploit

Discussion 0
Questions 42

Which term describes establishment of on-premises software on a cloud-based server?

Options:

A.  

Serverless

B.  

Dockers

C.  

Cloud-hosted

D.  

Kubernetes

Discussion 0
Questions 43

What type of attack redirects the traffic of a legitimate website to a fake website?

Options:

A.  

Watering hole

B.  

Pharming

C.  

Spear phishing

D.  

Whaling

Discussion 0
Questions 44

A high-profile company executive receives an urgent email containing a malicious link. The sender appears to be from the IT department of the company, and the email requests an update of the executive's login credentials for a system update.

Which type of phishing attack does this represent?

Options:

A.  

Whaling

B.  

Vishing

C.  

Pharming

D.  

Angler phishing

Discussion 0
Questions 45

Which protocol is used by both internet service providers (ISPs) and network service providers (NSPs)?

Options:

A.  

Routing Information Protocol (RIP)

B.  

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)

C.  

Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)

D.  

Split horizon

Discussion 0
Questions 46

Which security component should you configure to block viruses not seen and blocked by the perimeter firewall?

Options:

A.  

endpoint antivirus software

B.  

strong endpoint passwords

C.  

endpoint disk encryption

D.  

endpoint NIC ACLs

Discussion 0
Questions 47

In addition to local analysis, what can send unknown files to WildFire for discovery and deeper analysis to rapidly detect potentially unknown malware?

Options:

A.  

Cortex XDR

B.  

AutoFocus

C.  

MineMild

D.  

Cortex XSOAR

Discussion 0
Questions 48

What is a reason IoT devices are more susceptible to command-and-control (C2) attacks?

Options:

A.  

Decreased connection quality within a local area network

B.  

Increased sharing of data through the internet

C.  

Higher attack surface due to mobility

D.  

Limited batten/ life preventing always-on security

Discussion 0
Questions 49

Which core component is used to implement a Zero Trust architecture?

Options:

A.  

VPN Concentrator

B.  

Content Identification

C.  

Segmentation Platform

D.  

Web Application Zone

Discussion 0
Questions 50

Which NGFW feature is used to provide continuous identification, categorization, and control of known and previously unknown SaaS applications?

Options:

A.  

User-ID

B.  

Device-ID

C.  

App-ID

D.  

Content-ID

Discussion 0
Questions 51

Which capability does Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM) provide for threat detection within Prisma Cloud?

Options:

A.  

Real-time protection from threats

B.  

Alerts for new code introduction

C.  

Integration with threat feeds

D.  

Continuous monitoring of resources

Discussion 0
Questions 52

Which product functions as part of a SASE solution?

Options:

A.  

Cortex

B.  

Prisma Cloud

C.  

Kubernetes

D.  

Prisma SD-WAN

Discussion 0
Questions 53

During the OSI layer 3 step of the encapsulation process, what is the Protocol Data Unit (PDU) called when the IP stack adds source (sender) and destination (receiver) IP addresses?

Options:

A.  

Frame

B.  

Segment

C.  

Packet

D.  

Data

Discussion 0
Questions 54

Which pillar of Prisma Cloud application security does vulnerability management fall under?

Options:

A.  

dynamic computing

B.  

identity security

C.  

compute security

D.  

network protection

Discussion 0
Questions 55

How does Cortex XSOAR Threat Intelligence Management (TIM) provide relevant threat data to analysts?

Options:

A.  

It creates an encrypted connection to the company's data center.

B.  

It performs SSL decryption to give visibility into user traffic.

C.  

II prevents sensitive data from leaving the network.

D.  

II automates the ingestion and aggregation of indicators.

Discussion 0
Questions 56

Which aspect of a SaaS application requires compliance with local organizational security policies?

Options:

A.  

Types of physical storage media used

B.  

Data-at-rest encryption standards

C.  

Acceptable use of the SaaS application

D.  

Vulnerability scanning and management

Discussion 0
Questions 57

Which term describes data packets that move in and out of the virtualized environment from the host network or a corresponding traditional data center?

Options:

A.  

North-South traffic

B.  

Intrazone traffic

C.  

East-West traffic

D.  

Interzone traffic

Discussion 0
Questions 58

Under which category does an application that is approved by the IT department, such as Office 365, fall?

Options:

A.  

unsanctioned

B.  

prohibited

C.  

tolerated

D.  

sanctioned

Discussion 0
Questions 59

What is the key to “taking down” a botnet?

Options:

A.  

prevent bots from communicating with the C2

B.  

install openvas software on endpoints

C.  

use LDAP as a directory service

D.  

block Docker engine software on endpoints

Discussion 0
Questions 60

What is a key method used to secure sensitive data in Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) applications?

Options:

A.  

Allow downloads to managed devices but block them from unmanaged devices.

B.  

Allow downloads to both managed and unmanaged devices.

C.  

Leave data security in the hands of the cloud service provider.

D.  

Allow users to choose their own applications to access data.

Discussion 0
Questions 61

Which organizational function is responsible for security automation and eventual vetting of the solution to help ensure consistency through machine-driven responses to security issues?

Options:

A.  

NetOps

B.  

SecOps

C.  

SecDevOps

D.  

DevOps

Discussion 0
Questions 62

Which statement describes a host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS)?

Options:

A.  

It analyzes network traffic to detect unusual traffic flows and new malware.

B.  

It scans a Wi-Fi network for unauthorized access and removes unauthorized devices.

C.  

It is placed as a sensor to monitor all network traffic and scan for threats.

D.  

It is installed on an endpoint and inspects the device.

Discussion 0
Questions 63

Which type of system is a user entity behavior analysis (UEBA) tool?

Options:

A.  

Correlating

B.  

Active monitoring

C.  

Archiving

D.  

sandboxing

Discussion 0
Questions 64

Which type of malware replicates itself to spread rapidly through a computer network?

Options:

A.  

ransomware

B.  

Trojan horse

C.  

virus

D.  

worm

Discussion 0
Questions 65

Which endpoint protection security option can prevent malware from executing software?

Options:

A.  

Application allow list

B.  

DNS Security

C.  

URL filtering

D.  

Dynamic access control

Discussion 0
Questions 66

Which component of cloud security uses automated testing with static application security testing (SAST) to identify potential threats?

Options:

A.  

API

B.  

Code security

C.  

Virtualization

D.  

IRP

Discussion 0
Questions 67

What differentiates knowledge-based systems from behavior-based systems?

Options:

A.  

Behavior-based systems find the data that knowledge-based systems store.

B.  

Knowledge-based systems pull from a previously stored database that distinguishes “bad”. C. Knowledge-based systems try to find new, distinct traits to find “bad” things.

C.  

Behavior-based systems pull from a previously stored database that distinguishes “bad”.

Discussion 0
Questions 68

On which security principle does virtualization have positive effects?

Options:

A.  

integrity

B.  

confidentiality

C.  

availability

D.  

non-repudiation

Discussion 0