A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

A.  

Experience-based test techniques rely on the experience of testers to identify the root causes of defects found by black-box test techniques

B.  

Some of the most common test basis used by white-box test techniques include user stories, use cases and business processes

C.  

Experience-based test techniques are often useful to detect hidden defects that have not been targeted by black-box test techniques

D.  

The primary goal of experience-based test techniques is to design test cases that can be easily automated using a GUI-based test automation tool

A.  

An approach where the tests are written only as needed.

B.  

An approach where the tests are written after implementation.

C.  

An approach where the tests are written during implementation.

D.  

An approach where the tests are written before implementation.

A.  

The support offered by a test data preparation tool is often leveraged by testers to run automated regression test suites

B.  

The support offered by a performance testing tool is often leveraged by testers to run load tests

C.  

The support offered by a bug prediction tool is often used by testers to track the bugs they found

D.  

The support offered by a continuous integration tool is often leveraged by testers to automatically generate test cases from a model

A.  

COTS (Commercial off-the-shelf)

B.  

Source code

C.  

BPMN (Business Process Modeling and Notation) models

D.  

UML (Unified Modeling Language) models

A.  

Advantage: More independence in deciding what and how to test,

Disadvantage: Isolation from me development team knowledge

B.  

Advantage: being closer to customer perspective,

Disadvantage less independence in perspectives

C.  

Advantage: pulled to support tasks and having less time for testing,

Disadvantage less chances to move a tester to development

D.  

Advantage: increased chances to move a tester to development;

Disadvantage: pulled to support tasks and having less time for testing

A.  

skill and staff shortages; problems in defining the right requirements, contractual issues.

B.  

skill and staff shortages; software does not perform its intended functions; problems in defining the right requirements.

C.  

problems in defining the right requirements; contractual issues; poor software quality characteristics.

D.  

poor software quality characteristics; software does not perform its intended functions.

A.  

Anyone can perform a task they are capable of

B.  

Sharing same physical workspace is a must

C.  

Testing is the responsibility of the entire team

D.  

Developers should depend on the business analysts as there is no distinction between testers and developers

A.  

Testing triggers a failure that is caused by a defect in the software, whereas debugging is concerned with finding the causes of this failure (defects), analyzing these causes, and eliminating them.

B.  

Testing triggers a failure that is caused by a defect in the software, whereas debugging is concerned with finding the causes of this failure (defects), analyzing these causes, and reproducing them.

C.  

Testing identifies a defect that is caused by an error in the software, whereas debugging is concerned with finding the causes of this defect, analyzing these causes, and eliminating them.

D.  

Testing triggers a defect that is caused by an error in the software, whereas debugging is concerned with finding the causes of this defect, analyzing these causes, and eliminating them.

A.  

Finding defects in the software

B.  

Preventing defects

C.  

Debugging the software to find the reason for defects

D.  

Providing information on the status of the system

A.  

[I] and [III] are product risks; [II] and [IV] are project risks

B.  

[I] and [IV] are product risks. [II] and [III] are project risks

C.  

[II], [III] and [IV] are product risks; [I] is a project risk

D.  

[IV] is a product risk; [I]. [II] and [III] are project risks

A.  

Risk level is determined by calculating the absolute value of the sum of all potential issues that may occur on the project

B.  

Risk level is calculated by adding the probabilities of all planned risks to a project

C.  

Risk level is calculated by dividing the sum of all known risks by the sum of all unknown risks

D.  

Risk level is determined by the likelihood of an event happening and the impact or harm from that event

A.  

Testing due to the application of a new version of the interface

B.  

Testing that fixes resolved the defects in the search function

C.  

Testing if a system still works after update of an operating system

D.  

Testing to ensure the adding of a new functionalities haven't broken existing functions

A.  

Object is within 5 metres of the vehicle and the sensitivity mode is switched "off", resulting in the yellow LED being lit.

B.  

Object is within 5 metres of the vehicle and the sensitivity mode is switched "on", resulting in the yellow LED being lit.

C.  

Object is within 5 metres of the vehicle and the sensitivity mode is switched "off", resulting in no LED being lit.

D.  

Object is within 5 metres of the vehicle and the sensitivity mode is switched "on", resulting in no LED being lit.

A.  

The additional effort spent on test execution compared to what was planned

B.  

The unexpected test environment downtime that resulted in slower test execution

C.  

The residual risk level if a risk-based test approach was adopted

D.  

The test procedures of all test cases that have been executed

A.  

Having the business organization participate as an independent test team can hurt the overall testing effort since business participants are often not trained nor experienced in testing

B.  

Due to their differing backgrounds and perspectives, an independent test team may discover defects which the developers did not uncover

C.  

An independent test team may be isolated from the rest of the development and project team

D.  

An independent test team may possess specializations in specific test types such as usability or security which detract from the overall effectiveness of the test team

A.  

Decision table testing, state transition testing.

B.  

Equivalence partitioning, Boundary value analysis.

C.  

Exploratory testing, statement coverage.

D.  

Decision coverage, fault attack.

A.  

Author, Management, Facilitator, Review Leader, Reviewers, Scribe

B.  

Author, Tester. Facilitator. Review Leader. Reviewers. Scribe

C.  

Author, Business analyst. Facilitator, Review Leader. Reviewers. Scribe

D.  

Author. Developer, Facilitator. Review Leader. Reviewers. Scribe

A.  

Develop a test strategy and test policy for the organization

B.  

Promote and advocate the test team within the organization

C.  

Create the detailed test execution schedule

D.  

Introduce suitable metrics for measuring test progress

A.  

Error guessing is a system that adopts artificial intelligence to predict whether software components are likely to contain defects or not

B.  

Experienced testers, when applying error guessing, rely on the use of a high-level list of what needs to be tested as a guide to find defects

C.  

Error guessing refers to the ability of a system or component to continue normal operation despite the presence of erroneous inputs

D.  

Experienced testers, when applying error guessing technique, can anticipate where errors, defects and failures have occurred and target their tests at those issues

A.  

Test design

B.  

Test analysis

C.  

Test implementation

D.  

Test execution

A.  

Testers should contribute to all activities in the SDLC and participate in design discussions.

B.  

Testers should be involved from the beginning of the SDLC to increase understanding of design decisions and detect defects early.

C.  

Testers should only be involved during the testing phase.

D.  

Testers' involvement is essential; developers find it difficult to be objective.

A.  

Unlike dynamic testing, which can be also performed manually, static testing cannot be performed without specialized tools

B.  

Static testing is usually much less cost-effective than dynamic testing

C.  

Unlike dynamic testing, which focuses on detecting potential defects, static testing focuses on detecting failures which may be due to actual defects

D.  

Both static testing and dynamic testing can be used to highlight issues associated with non-functional characteristics

A.  

1xA;aB11;Pq1ZZab;7iDD0a1x

B.  

aB11;99rSp:5NnN10;7iDD0a1x

C.  

1xB: aB11: 99rSp: 5NnN10; 4NnN10T; 44ghWn19

D.  

1RhT;rSp53;3N3e10;8sBdby

A.  

NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → DEGRADED MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE

B.  

NORMAL MODE → DEGRADED MODE → NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → DEGRADED MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE

C.  

NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → DEGRADED MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE → DEGRADED MODE

D.  

NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE

A.  

Static analysis can be used against a work product containing unstructured artifacts

B.  

Difficult to interpret work products are best tested using static analysis.

C.  

There may be legal issues in performing static testing on a commercially available executable library.

D.  

Test cases can be tested using static testing techniques but not the models

A.  

a-1. b-4, c-3. d-2

B.  

a-4, b-3. c-2. d-1

C.  

a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1

D.  

a-2, b-4, c-3. d-1

A.  

Severity of the defect

B.  

Name of the developer who most likely caused the defect

C.  

Tracking the quality of the work product

D.  

Ideas for test process improvement

A.  

Priority

B.  

Severity

C.  

Status

D.  

Description

A.  

int x = 1.

int y = 2.

int y = 3.

X = y=z;

B.  

int x = 1.

int y = 2.

int z = 3.

X = z-y

C.  

int x = 1.

Int y = 2.

Int z = 3.

Z = x +y

D.  

int y = 2

Int z = 3.

Y = z+y

A.  

S0->S1->S2->S3->S4

B.  

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5^>S1

C.  

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1->S2->S3

D.  

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S3->S4

A.  

Test planning determines what is to be tested based on the test basis.

B.  

Test analysis evaluates the test base and the test elements to identify inconsistencies.

C.  

Test design develops and prioritizes test procedures and may create automated test scripts.

D.  

Test implementation realization answers the question of how to perform the test, and the test procedure compares the results of the test with the expected results.

A.  

I. II

B.  

II. Ill

C.  

III. IV

D.  

I, IV

A.  

3

B.  

2

C.  

1

D.  

4

A.  

Pesticide Paradox

B.  

Early testing

C.  

Absence-of-errors fallacy

D.  

Defect clustering

A.  

Functions that take much longer time to complete than expected

B.  

Variables that were declared in the code without initialization

C.  

Crashes of the application

D.  

A sub-system that does not perform the intended functionality

A.  

A separate defect report is created for each identified defect so that corrective actions can be tracked.

B.  

Each reviewer conducts an individual review to identify anomalies, recommendations, and questions.

C.  

The purpose and scope of the review are defined, as well as the work product to be reviewed and the exit criteria.

D.  

The reviewers analyze and discuss the anomalies found during the review in a joint meeting.

A.  

Beta testing

B.  

Maintenance testing

C.  

System integration testing

D.  

Retirement testing

A.  

Determine the most appropriate level of detail with which to design test cases.

B.  

Verify the compliance of the test object with regulatory requirements.

C.  

Plan test activities in accordance with the existing test policy and test strategy

D.  

Verify the correct creation and configuration of the test environment

A.  

EBT use tests derived from the test engineers' previous experience with similar technologies.

B.  

EBT is based on the ability of the test engineer to implement various testing techniques.

C.  

EBT is done as a second stage of testing, after non-experienced-based testing took place.

D.  

EBT require broad and deep knowledge in testing but not necessarily in the application or technological domain.

A.  

I, IV, V

B.  

II, Iv

C.  

I, V

D.  

I, Ill

A.  

There is no difference between debugging and testing.

B.  

Debugging is a confirmation activity that checks whether fixes resolved defects.

C.  

Debugging is the development activity that finds, analyses and fixes defects.

D.  

Debugging is of no relevance in Agile development.

A.  

Functional Testing

B.  

Code inspection

C.  

Checking memory leaks for a program by executing it

D.  

Coverage analysis

A.  

Specify the impediments to carrying out the planned test activities in the reporting period and the corresponding solutions put in place to remove them

B.  

Be produced as part of test completion activities and report unmitigated product risks to support the decision whether or not to release the product

C.  

Always be based on the same template within an organisation, as its structure and contents should not be affected by the audience to which the report is presented.

D.  

Specify the lines of communication between testing, other lifecycle activities, and within the organisation that were chosen at the outset of the test project.

A.  

Get familiar with the functionality and options of the tool

B.  

Check haw the tool fits to the existing test processes

C.  

Train all testers on using the tool

D.  

Decide upon standards for tool implementation

A.  

Individual review is only mandatory when the size of the work product under review is too large to cover at the review meeting

B.  

Various review techniques that may be applied by participants during individual review are described in the ISO/IEC/IEEE 29119-3 standard.

C.  

Choosing which standards to follow during the review process is usually made during review planning.

D.  

One of the main goals of the review meeting is to make sure that all participants are aware of their roles and responsibilities in the review process

A.  

IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED

B.  

IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> INVOICED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION

C.  

PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED

D.  

PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED

A.  

The shift-left approach can only be implemented with test automation

B.  

The shift-left approach in testing is compatible with DevOps practices.

C.  

The shift-left approach can involve security vulnerabilities

D.  

The shift-left approach can be supported by static analysis tools.

A.  

II, IV

B.  

I, II

C.  

IV, V

D.  

II, III, IV

A.  

Tests wear out

B.  

Absence-of-errors fallacy

C.  

Working software over comprehensive documentation.

D.  

Defects cluster together

A.  

0, 58.59,70, 80

B.  

74, 79.84,85, 89

C.  

79, 89.90,99, 100

D.  

69, 79. 80, 89, 90

A.  

Any deviation from this standard should be approved by management, marketing & development

B.  

Most test documentation regimes follow this spec to some degree, with changes done to fit a specific situation or organization

C.  

The key to high quality test documentation regimes is strict adherence to this standard

D.  

This test plan outline is relevant for military projects. For consumer market projects there is a different specification with fewer items.

A.  

A peer reviews finds defects while static analysis finds failures.

B.  

Static analysis targets the code technically whereas Peer review is applicable to further aspects.

C.  

Peer reviews cannot find missing requirements whereas static analysis can

D.  

A peer reviews find failures while static analysis finds defects.

A.  

It is not a defect

B.  

Defect

C.  

Error

D.  

Failure

A.  

Thursday is a valid input boundary value.

B.  

A minimum of 6 valid test cases are derived from boundary value analysis based on input age.

C.  

$3.01 is a valid output boundary value.

D.  

7 and 13 are boundary values for the equivalence partition including age 10.

A.  

The checklist contains test cases that need to be executed in a certain order (e.g. defect-detecting test cases from previous projects).

B.  

The checklist includes failure descriptions that have been found in the past which should be avoided.

C.  

The checklist contains experience-based test conditions, mostly in the form of questions and based on causes of previous failures, which are used when creating the test.

D.  

The checklist contains common testing techniques (e.g. equivalence class partitioning) and their uses to simplify the selection of the "appropriate" test techniques.

A.  

Exploratory testing is a suitable test technique which may replace both black-box and white-box test techniques

B.  

Exploratory testing is a valid and useful black-box test technique since it focuses on test cases related to the architecture and design of a system

C.  

Exploratory testing requires both solid specifications and much project time available for test execution

D.  

Exploratory testing may be used within defined time periods, during which the tester may follow a test charter as a guide

A.  

Tools to assess data quality

B.  

Tools to support usability testing

C.  

Tools to support specialized testing needs

D.  

Tools to support static testing

A.  

Static techniques can be used before all code is ready for execution

B.  

Static techniques find more detects then dynamic techniques.

C.  

Static techniques can be used by inexperienced users.

D.  

Static techniques are always cheaper than dynamic techniques.

A.  

(-1.0.12.13.18,19)

B.  

(-1.0,11.12.13,14,18.19)

C.  

(0.12.13.18.19)

D.  

(4.5.15.20)

A.  

This test quadrant contains smoke tests and non-functional tests (except usability tests). These tests are often automated.

B.  

This test quadrant is business-facing and criticizes the system. It contains exploratory testing, usability testing, and user acceptance testing.

C.  

This test quadrant contains functional tests, examples, user story tests, user experience prototypes, API testing, and simulations. These tests check the acceptance criteria and can be manual or automated.

D.  

This test quadrant is technology-facing and supports the team. These tests should be automated and included in the continuous integration (CI) process.

A.  

Testing is performed after the development phase is completed.

B.  

Testing is performed on the entire system or product.

C.  

Testing is performed by an independent testing team.

D.  

Testing is performed as early as possible in the software development life cycle.

A.  

Since the stakeholders include customers frequent informal communication without a specific frequency works better.

B.  

Agile nature of the project means very less documentation and hence the status need not be documented and shared in a formal manner

C.  

Since the stakeholders include upper management, formal reports delivered face-to-face are critical.

D.  

Distributed nature of teams working in various time zones means email communication will work better

A.  

The objective of testing is to implement exhaustive testing and execute as many test cases as possible.

B.  

Exhaustive testing can only be carried out using behavior-based techniques.

C.  

It is impossible to test all possible combinations of inputs and preconditions of a system.

D.  

Automated testing enables exhaustive testing.

A.  

A defect does not always produce a failure, while a bug always produces a failure

B.  

A defect may cause a failure which, when occurring, always causes an error

C.  

Failures can be caused by defects, but also by environmental conditions

D.  

Bugs are defects found during component testing, while failures are defects found at higher test levels

A.  

i, iv and v

B.  

i, ii and iii

C.  

i, iii and v

D.  

iii. iv and v

A.  

Static testing can benefit from using code-related white-box test techniques during code reviews.

B.  

White-box testing allows suggesting test cases for increasing coverage levels which are based on objective measures

C.  

Achieving full code coverage for a component or a system ensures that it has been fully tested

D.  

Black-box testing can benefit from using code-related white-box test techniques to increase confidence in the code.

A.  

A and B are both down then A and B both come back up at the same time. A should become the active system and B should be inactive.

B.  

A is active and B is inactive then A goes down, B becomes active.

C.  

A is active and B is inactive. A goes down. B becomes active then B goes down. A is made active.

D.  

A comes up when B is active and A was down. Now A becomes active and B becomes inactive.

A.  

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1

B.  

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1->S2->S3

C.  

S0->S1->S2~>S3->S4

D.  

S0->S1 ->S2->S3->S5->S3->S4

A.  

Make sure the planned test environment is ready to be delivered

B.  

Find, analyze, and remove the causes of the failures highlighted by the tests

C.  

Archive the testware for use in future test projects

D.  

Gather the metrics that are used to guide the test project

A.  

14,351

B.  

14,15,350,351

C.  

15,350

D.  

5.175.500

A.  

To build confidence in the level of quality of the test object.

B.  

To find all defects in a product, ensuring the product is defect free.

C.  

To find failures and defects

D.  

To evaluate work products such as requirements, user stories, design, and code.

A.  

ii and iii

B.  

i and iii

C.  

i and ii

D.  

ii and iv

A.  

"Print" prints the last page twice for a file with 1000 pages

B.  

The timeout on the login page of a web site is 9 minutes, while the requirement was for 10 minutes

C.  

When uninstalling the application, the uninstall dialog has a spelling mistake

D.  

When calculating the final price in a shopping list, the price of the last item is not added

A.  

It is an example of a defect that it goes undetected, will cause harm to the end customer and to the company (the bank)

B.  

It is an example of a defect, that if goes undetected, will cause harm to the end customer but not to the company (the bank)

C.  

It is an example of a defect that if goes undetected, will not cause harm to the end customer, but will cause harm to the company (the bank)

D.  

It is an example of a defect that if goes undetected, will not cause any real harm to either the end customer or to the company (the bank)

A.  

Yes. Spending too much money on test ng will result in an unprofitable product, and having cost as an exit criterion helps avoid this

B.  

No. The financial value of product quality cannot be estimated, so it is incorrect to use cost as an exit criterion

C.  

Yes. Going by cost as an exit criterion constrains the testing project which will hello achieve the desired quality level defined for the project

D.  

No The cost of testing cannot be measured effectively, so it is incorrect to use cost as an exit criterion

A.  

III.V

B.  

II, III

C.  

I. II. IV

D.  

II, III.V

A.  

1

B.  

2

C.  

3

D.  

4

A.  

the tool may not be fit-for-purpose.

B.  

the tool may create additional development dependencies.

C.  

the tool may not be compatible with the development platform.

D.  

the tool will be owned and maintained by developers and replace testers.

A.  

Black-box test techniques are based on requirements, white-box tests on source code. Therefore, black-box test techniques are always performed at higher test levels (e.g. system and acceptance level) and white-box test techniques at lower test levels.

B.  

Experience-based testing can complement white-box and black-box test techniques well or can be used if the basic principles for these test techniques are lacking.

C.  

Experience-based testing is an extension of black-box test techniques, since experience-based test techniques also do not require knowledge about the source code.

D.  

The coverage items can be specified in advance, e.g., coverage of statements, states or checklists, for all three of the categories mentioned above.

A.  

R2. R1, R3. R4. R5, R6. R7, R8.

B.  

R1, R2, R3, R4, R5, R6, R7, R8.

C.  

R2, R4. R8, R5, R1, R6, R3, R7.

D.  

. R2, R1,R3,R7,R6,R5,R4,R8.

A.  

5

B.  

4

C.  

8

D.  

16

A.  

The lest engineer should not re-run the tests, as they have already been run, and results recorded.

B.  

The test engineer should not re-run the tests, they should be part of the developer tests.

C.  

The test engineer should re-run the tests, in order to ensure that new defects have not been introduced by the fix.

D.  

The test engineer should re-run the tests, because the defect shows that the test cases need to be updated.

A.  

Traceability can be useful for assessing the impact of a change to a test basis item on the corresponding tests

B.  

Traceability can be useful for determining how many test basis items are covered by the corresponding tests

C.  

Traceability can be useful for determining the most suitable test techniques to be used in a testing project

D.  

Traceability can be useful to support the needs required by the auditing of testing

A.  

{7,10,21,40}

B.  

{8,10,25,40}

C.  

{7,10,25,29}

D.  

{7,10,25,40}

A.  

A tester possesses professional pessimism while a developer is concerned with validating the product

B.  

A tester is concerned with finding defects while a developer is interested in designing solutions

C.  

A tester is interested in building solutions while a developer is concerned with verifying the product

D.  

A tester is concerned with verifying the product while a developer possesses professional pessimism

A.  

TC1 = 81 k€; TC2= 97k€; TC3=111k€; TC4=118k€

B.  

TC1 = 40k€; TC2= 46k€; TC3=51k€; TC4=53k€

C.  

TC1 = 79k€; TC2= 80k€; TC3=81k€; TC4=82k€

D.  

TC1 = 90k€; TC2= 110k€; TC3=125k€: TC4=140k€

A.  

It is an example of collaboration tool

B.  

It is an example of test implementation tool

C.  

It is an example of DevOps related tools

D.  

It is an example of automated unit testing tool

A.  

The software does not perform its intended functions according to the specification: this is a project risk.

B.  

The gradual expansion of the project scope result in significant rework: this is a product risk.

C.  

The system architecture does not adequately support some of the non-functional requirements: this is a product risk.

D.  

User experience feedback does not meet product expectations: this is a project risk.

A.  

Acceptance testing

B.  

Structural testing

C.  

Integration testing

D.  

Exploratory testing

A.  

Pre-meeting preparation by reviewers

B.  

Using checklists during the meeting

C.  

Inviting end-users to the meeting

D.  

Preparation of a review report

A.  

It is a product risk since any risk associated with development timeline is a product risk.

B.  

It is no longer a risk for the Test Manager since an independent party (the sub-contractor) is now managing it

C.  

It is a object risk since successful completion of the object depends on successful and timely completion of the tests

D.  

It is a product risk since default on part of the sub-contractor may lead to delay in release of the product

A.  

Shift-left in testing can be implemented only in Agile/DevOps frameworks, as it relies completely on automated testing activities performed within a continuous integration process

B.  

Performance testing performed during component testing, is a form of shift-left in testing that avoids planning and executing costly end-to-end testing at the system test level in a production-like environment

C.  

Shift-left in testing can be implemented in several ways to find functional defects early in the lifecycle, but it cannot be relied upon to find defects associated with non-functional characteristics

D.  

Continuous integration supports shift-left in testing as it can reduce the time between the introduction of a defect and its detection, thereby reducing the cost to fix it

A.  

Use case based testing

B.  

Decision table

C.  

Boundary value analysis

D.  

Equivalence class partitioning

A.  

12

B.  

6

C.  

4

D.  

3

A.  

The assistance system is to have a customizable layout. For this purpose, the user should be able to choose between 3 combinations of font size and background color at startup.

B.  

In the initialization phase, the assistance system should validate the inputs of the 10 customer specific and process specific parameters against a list of 5 consistency rules and display the result to the user.

C.  

The assistance system currently supports the manufacturing process with 2 robot gripper arms, this shall be extended to 5 gripper arms. In addition, the system shall perform a pre-calculation of the movements of all gripper arms in real time and automatically stop the system in case of a calculated collision of the gripper arms.

You are now asked to estimate the test effort for each of these user stories by using planning poker. The f

D.  

A:3; B:21; C:8;

E.  

A:21; B:13; C:13;

F.  

A:3; B:13; C:34;

G.  

A:13; B:13; C:13;

A.  

Achieving 90% statement coverage ensures that 90% branch coverage is achieved.

B.  

Achieving 100% statement coverage ensures that no variable within the code has been used without being initialised.

C.  

Achieving 100% statement coverage ensures that 100% branch coverage is achieved

D.  

Achieving 80% statement coverage ensures that 80% of all executable statements within the code have been exercised.

A.  

i and ii

B.  

i and iv

C.  

i and iii

D.  

ii and iii

A.  

Using a third party testing company to transfer the risk to that company

B.  

Choosing a tool for automated unit testing to reduce the risks

C.  

Increasing the number of testers to be able to take care of all the risks

D.  

Selecting a tester with required knowledge related to compliance and standards

A.  

Expresses the desired behavior of an application with test cases written in a simple form of natural language that is easy to understand by stakeholders—usually using the Given/When/Then format. Test cases are then automatically translated into executable tests.

B.  

Defines test cases at a low level, close to the implementation, using unit test frameworks.

C.  

Is primarily focused on non-functional testing techniques to ensure system reliability and performance.

D.  

Requires testing to be performed after development is completed to validate software functionality.

A.  

750 person-days

B.  

180 person-days

C.  

720 person-days

D.  

270 person-days

A.  

The decision was wrong. Ensuring quality mandates that static testing is performed after performing the dynamic testing.

B.  

The decision was right. Static testing is usually redundant if a product is planned to go through a full-cycle of dynamic testing.

C.  

The decision was right. Most of the bugs are easier to identify during the dynamic testing.

D.  

The decision was wrong. Static testing can find defects early in the development process, reducing the overall cost of testing and development

A.  

The slowdown is a failure while the memory leak is a defect

B.  

The slowdown is a defect while the memory leak is an error.

C.  

The slowdown is an error; the memory leak is a defect.

D.  

The slowdown is a defect; the memory leak is a failure.

A.  

Reduced feedback times regarding software quality compared to manual testing.

B.  

Reduced test execution limes compared to manual testing.

C.  

Reduced repeatability and consistency of tests compared to manual testing

D.  

Underestimation of effort required to maintain test scripts.

A.  

The user should be able to provide three inputs to test the product - the Al model to be tested, the data used and an optional text file

B.  

Verify that a registered user can create add a new project with name having more than 100 characters

C.  

A user is already logged in then on navigating to the Al model testing page the user should be directly shown the report of last test run.

D.  

An unregistered user shouldn't be shown any report

A.  

It indicates a decision point where the program can follow different paths based on specific conditions.

B.  

It marks a point where the program's execution will terminate bringing the program to a halt.

C.  

It represents a programming error and therefore a conditional branch should be avoided

D.  

It signifies a comment or documentation within the code and it doesn't indicate a defect.

A.  

Create confidence in the quality of the test object.

B.  

Check whether the test object fulfils the specified requirements.

C.  

Provide sufficient information for stakeholders to make decisions.

D.  

Fix defects after they have been found and analyzed.

A.  

The project manager's preference

B.  

Tester skill level with the software development lifecycle model

C.  

The project team's overall familiarity with the model

D.  

The type of product being developed

A.  

Because you need to match the way you test to the content of the product under test

B.  

Because of the time constraints that usually accompany a test project

C.  

Because this way you cover the full scope of the product's functionality

D.  

Because choosing a test technique is a common practice in software testing

A.  

Every executable statement Is covered.

B.  

Every output equivalence class has been tested.

C.  

Every input equivalence class has been tested.

D.  

The "dead" code has not been covered.

A.  

[ii] and [IV] are product risks; [i] and [iii] are project risks

B.  

[ii]and [iii] are product risks. [I] and [IV] are project risks.

C.  

[i], and [iV] are product risks; [ii] and [iii] are project risks

D.  

[i], [II] and [iii] are product risks, [IV] is a project risk.

A.  

Component - VI

Integration - IV

System -1

Acceptance - 111

B.  

Component - IV

Integration -1

System - VI

Acceptance - V

C.  

Component-I

Integration - V

System - II

Acceptance - IV

D.  

Component - V

Integration - II

System - IV

Acceptance - VI

A.  

Exhaustive testing can show the absence of defects.

B.  

To detect new defects, existing regression test cases must be updated regularly.

C.  

Late testing saves time and money, especially with scarce resources.

D.  

Fixing all detected defects ensures the success of the system under test.

A.  

System testing

B.  

Acceptance testing

C.  

Component integration testing

D.  

System integration testing

A.  

Where a developer and a tester work together on the same workstation while the developer actively writes code, the tester explores the code to find defects.

B.  

That can be organised into sessions guided by test charters outlining test objectives that will guide the testers' exploration

C.  

Where a team of testers explores all possible test techniques in order to determine the most suitable combination of these techniques to apply for a test project.

D.  

That aims at finding defects by designing tests that exercise all possible combinations of input values and preconditions

A.  

Fixing the cause

B.  

Reproducing the failure

C.  

Diagnosing the root cause

D.  

Adding new test cases

A.  

Planned tests have been executed.

B.  

Availability of testable requirements.

C.  

The number of unresolved defects is within an agreed limit.

D.  

The number of estimated remaining defects is sufficiently low.

A.  

Take on the role of developer to meet challenging project deadlines

B.  

Assume leadership aimed at imposing decisions on the rest of the team.

C.  

Use tools to make the execution of repetitive testing tasks more efficient.

D.  

Determine the corrective actions to get a test project on track in case of deviations from the test plan

A.  

The budget and schedule for the test project.

B.  

A detailed analysis of the defects found and their causes.

C.  

A detailed report on the test results after the test project is completed.

D.  

A list of test logs from the test execution.

A.  

Black-box testing techniques are based on experience with the test object without knowing the internal structure.

B.  

In black-box testing techniques, test cases are created based on the software's implementation.

C.  

Black-box testing techniques are based on analyzing the test object's specified and implied behavior without knowledge of its internal data structure.

D.  

Black-box testing techniques involve analyzing the specified behavior of the test object without knowledge of its internal structure.

A.  

Facilitator - Fixes defects in the work product under review

B.  

Scribe - Collates potential defects found during the individual review activity

C.  

Review Leader - Creates the work product under review

D.  

Author - Identify potential defects in the work product under review