Easter Sale Special 65% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: exams65

Certification in Control Self-Assessment® (CCSA®) Question and Answers

Certification in Control Self-Assessment® (CCSA®)

Last Update May 18, 2024
Total Questions : 270

We are offering FREE IIA-CCSA IIA exam questions. All you do is to just go and sign up. Give your details, prepare IIA-CCSA free exam questions and then go for complete pool of Certification in Control Self-Assessment® (CCSA®) test questions that will help you more.

IIA-CCSA pdf

IIA-CCSA PDF

$35  $99.99
IIA-CCSA Engine

IIA-CCSA Testing Engine

$42  $119.99
IIA-CCSA PDF + Engine

IIA-CCSA PDF + Testing Engine

$56  $159.99
Questions 1

An organization-wide commitment to quality is called Quality control.

Options:

A.  

True

B.  

False

Discussion 0
Questions 2

Unrestricted access to subsidiary ledgers and general ledger is a fraud warning sign of:

Options:

A.  

Accounts payable

B.  

Cash receipt

C.  

Inventory

D.  

Accounts receivable

Discussion 0
Questions 3

Performance measures should be comprehensive enough to reach valid conclusions about the program.

Options:

A.  

True

B.  

False

Discussion 0
Questions 4

In any organization of people, ___________ is the blending of purpose, commitment, capability, monitoring and learning.

Options:

A.  

Standardization

B.  

Communication

C.  

Essence of control

D.  

Reliability of internal/external reporting

Discussion 0
Questions 5

Effective and efficient use of the entity’s resources is called:

Options:

A.  

Resource control

B.  

Resource utilization

C.  

Operations controls

D.  

Compliance control

Discussion 0
Questions 6

Escalation of poor business decisional risk has extensive control response of complex review and can result in:

Options:

A.  

Loss of productivity

B.  

Excessive labor cost

C.  

Missed opportunities

D.  

Loss in process advancement

Discussion 0
Questions 7

___________ are clearly communicated to all employees and management obtains feedback signifying that the communication has been effective.

Options:

A.  

Entity wide objectives

B.  

Activity-level objectives

C.  

Presentations

D.  

Forms and means of communication

Discussion 0
Questions 8

Which of the following is Correct?

Options:

A.  

Risk appears in the finance profession as a qualitative element of holding expenses or the opportunity to gain profits from such investments.

B.  

Risk appears in the finance profession as a quantitative element of holding liabilities or the opportunity to gain profits from such investments.

C.  

Risk appears in the finance profession as a quantifiable element of holding assets or the opportunity to gain profits from such investments.

D.  

Risk appears in the finance profession as a quantitative element of holding revenues or the opportunity to gain profits from such investments.

Discussion 0
Questions 9

__________ is relating to the entity’s fulfillment with applicable laws and regulations.

Options:

A.  

Compliance control

B.  

Efficiency control

C.  

Timeliness control

D.  

Law enforcement

Discussion 0
Questions 10

A control objective is a statement of the desired result or purpose to be achieved by implementing control procedures within any activity.

Options:

A.  

True

B.  

False

Discussion 0
Questions 11

A successful Project has following phases:

Options:

A.  

Planning, Execution, Controlling

B.  

Initiation, Planning, Execution, Controlling

C.  

Initiation, Planning, Execution, Testing

D.  

Planning, Execution, Controlling, Testing

Discussion 0
Questions 12

Information related to either the elements outside the organization’s control or to elements that the organization can control at least to some extent is called:

Options:

A.  

Performance

B.  

Organizational

C.  

Explanatory

D.  

None of the above

Discussion 0
Questions 13

After the risks to the organization have been identified, management undertakes a thorough and complete analysis of their possible effects, this is called:

Options:

A.  

Risk assessment

B.  

Risk management

C.  

Risk analysis

D.  

Risk control

Discussion 0
Questions 14

Employees are provided a proper amount of supervision in:

Options:

A.  

Establishment of organizational objectives

B.  

Oversight groups

C.  

Assignment of authority

D.  

Human resource policies and practices

Discussion 0
Questions 15

The risk remaining after management takes action to reduce the impact and likelihood of an adverse event is called residual risk.

Options:

A.  

True

B.  

False

Discussion 0
Questions 16

In traditional approach, final report is issued by management and in control selfassessment approach it is issued by work teams’.

Options:

A.  

True

B.  

False

Discussion 0
Questions 17

The policy statement that defines the objectives for and commitment to risk management within the organization’s strategic and operational context is called:

Options:

A.  

Risk management

B.  

Enterprise risk management

C.  

Strategic risk management

D.  

Operational risk management

Discussion 0
Questions 18

The risk that some action or inaction by the entity will impair the organization’s ability to reach its goals and objectives is known as:

Options:

A.  

Reputation risk

B.  

Operational risk

C.  

Strategic risk

D.  

Fiscal risk

Discussion 0
Questions 19

_____________ define specific organizational goals and should be reasonably obtainable and contain execution strategies.

Options:

A.  

Operating objectives

B.  

Resourcing objectives

C.  

Organizational objectives

D.  

Executable objectives

Discussion 0
Questions 20

Which of the following is NOT the external factor that could affect the organization?

Options:

A.  

activities or initiatives by industry competitors

B.  

changes in production quotas or deadlines

C.  

economic shifts

D.  

technological advancements

Discussion 0
Questions 21

A process to identify, assess, manage and control potential events in order to provide reasonable assurance regarding the achievement of the organization’s objectives is called:

Options:

A.  

Activity management

B.  

Risk management

C.  

Control management

D.  

Accomplish management

Discussion 0
Questions 22

What is based on the extent of impact to the organization as a whole?

Options:

A.  

Promotion system

B.  

Code of conduct

C.  

Rank vulnerability

D.  

Rank inherent risk

Discussion 0
Questions 23

Determination that the evidence has a logical relationship to the findings is known as:

Options:

A.  

Competency

B.  

Feasibility

C.  

Relevancy

D.  

Testimonial

Discussion 0
Questions 24

Which of the following is NOT the rule of integrity?

Options:

A.  

Perform duty with honesty and responsibility.

B.  

Observe law and make disclosures expected by law.

C.  

Knowingly engage in acts that are discreditable to the organization.

D.  

Respect to and contribute to the legitimate objectives of the organization.

Discussion 0
Questions 25

Which evidence is obtained from individuals through oral or written statements such as interviews, surveys and questionnaires?

Options:

A.  

Documentary

B.  

Testimonial

C.  

Analytical

D.  

Physical

Discussion 0
Questions 26

Which of the following is Correct?

Options:

A.  

Workshops involve gathering information from individuals representing different levels in the press.

B.  

Workshops involve gathering information from work teams representing different levels in the business unit or function.

C.  

Workshops involve gathering information from individuals representing similar levels in the business unit or function.

D.  

Workshops involve gathering information from work teams representing similar levels in the lobby.

Discussion 0
Questions 27

No policy regarding identification, sale and disposal of obsolete and surplus materials is a fraud warning sign of Inventory

Options:

A.  

True

B.  

False

Discussion 0
Questions 28

The risk that deficiencies in expenditure control or revenues will adversely affect agreedupon outcomes or objectives is called:

Options:

A.  

Unmodified risk

B.  

Operational risk

C.  

Absolute risk

D.  

Fiscal risk

Discussion 0
Questions 29

_________ are preferred if the culture in the organization may hinder open, candid discussions in workshop settings or of management desires to minimize the time spent and cost incurred in gathering the information.

Options:

A.  

Interviews

B.  

Surveys

C.  

Dialogues

D.  

Conferences

Discussion 0
Questions 30

The change that results in a need to change policies, procedures, staffing levels or goals refers to which change?

Options:

A.  

Change in policy

B.  

Change in technology

C.  

Change in practices

D.  

Change in expertise

Discussion 0
Questions 31

Which of the following is Correct?

Options:

A.  

The organization’s competence to standards is appropriate for its size and the nature of its operations.

B.  

The organization’s operating style is appropriate for its size and the nature of its operations.

C.  

The organization’s organizational structure is appropriate for its size and the nature of its operations.

D.  

The organization’s organizational authority and responsibility is appropriate for its size and the nature of its operations.

Discussion 0
Questions 32

Which of the following is Correct?

Options:

A.  

Managers are often involved in CSA because of their expertise and experience in both business of the organization and its related risks and controls.

B.  

Internal auditors are often involved in CSA because of their expertise and experience in both business of the organization and its related risks and controls.

C.  

Team workers are often involved in CSA because of their experience in business of the organization.

D.  

External auditors are often involved in CSA because of their expertise and experience in both business of the organization and its related risks and controls.

Discussion 0
Questions 33

A method of measuring the statistical relationship that exists between two or variables is called:

Options:

A.  

Regression analysis

B.  

Trend analysis

C.  

Ratio analysis

D.  

None of the above

Discussion 0
Questions 34

Which auditors provide varying degrees of assurance about the state of effectiveness of the risk management and control processes of the organization?

Options:

A.  

Senior management

B.  

Operating managers

C.  

Internal & External

D.  

Organizational

Discussion 0
Questions 35

Accurate self-assessment is a realistic evaluation of your strengths and limitations.

Options:

A.  

True

B.  

False

Discussion 0
Questions 36

The technique that involves developing a sequence of possible events and projecting potential results refers to:

Options:

A.  

scenario

B.  

Action plan

C.  

synthetic act

D.  

none of the above

Discussion 0
Questions 37

In which standard, the chief executive should establish a follow-up process to monitor and ensure that management actions have been effectively implemented or that senior management has accepted the risk of not taking action.

Options:

A.  

2050.C1- Investigating progress

B.  

2500.A3- Implementing progress

C.  

2500.A1- Monitoring progress

D.  

2500.A2- Mitigating progress

Discussion 0
Questions 38

“I understand how to use the business unit’s new automated accounting software”, this question falls in which category?

Options:

A.  

Core questions

B.  

Business questions

C.  

workshop questions

D.  

Noneof the above

Discussion 0
Questions 39

The purpose of developing and organizational structure is:

Options:

A.  

To establish individual responsibilities to handle complexity of the organization’s processes.

B.  

To establish individual responsibilities as a means of control and to ensure the organization achieves its goals.

C.  

To establish individual responsibilities, their number and type.

D.  

To establish individual responsibilities to formalize the organization’s processes.

Discussion 0
Questions 40

Questions which generally address the control environment, risk assessment, control activities or monitoring are:

Options:

A.  

Core questions

B.  

Business questions

C.  

workshop questions

D.  

All of the above

Discussion 0