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ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level CTFL 4.0 Exam Question and Answers

ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level CTFL 4.0 Exam

Last Update Nov 30, 2025
Total Questions : 188

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Questions 1

Which ONE of the following options BEST describes thethird test quadrant (Q3)?

Options:

A.  

This test quadrant contains smoke tests and non-functional tests (except usability tests). These tests are often automated.

B.  

This test quadrant is business-facing and criticizes the system. It contains exploratory testing, usability testing, and user acceptance testing.

C.  

This test quadrant contains functional tests, examples, user story tests, user experience prototypes,API testing, and simulations. These tests check the acceptance criteria and can be manual or automated.

D.  

This test quadrant is technology-facing and supports the team. These tests should be automated and included in the continuous integration (CI) process.

Discussion 0
Questions 2

Use Scenario 1 “Happy Tomatoes” (from the previous question).

When running test caseTC_59, the actual result fort = 35degrees Celsius isOUTPUT = Xinstead of the expected output.

Which information should NOT be included in the defect report?

Options:

A.  

Identification of the test object and test environment

B.  

A concise title and a short summary of the defect being reported

C.  

Description of the structure of the test team

D.  

Expected results and actual results

Discussion 0
Questions 3

From a testing perspective, configuration management

Options:

A.  

Allows the expected results to be compared with the actual results.

B.  

Allows the tracking of all changes to versions of the testware.

C.  

Includes all activities that direct and control an organisation with regard to quality

D.  

Focuses on configuring static analysis tools to choose the most suitable breadth and depth of analysis.

Discussion 0
Questions 4

Which of the following statements are true?

1. Early and frequent feedback helps to avoid requirements misunderstanding.

2. Early feedback allows teams to do more with less.

3. Early feedback allows the team to focus on the most Important features.

4. Early and frequent feedback clarifies customer feedback by applying static testing techniques

Select the correct answer:

Options:

A.  

3

B.  

2

C.  

1

D.  

4

Discussion 0
Questions 5

Which of the following s the most correct statement about state testing techniques?

Options:

A.  

Static techniques can be used before all code is ready for execution

B.  

Static techniques find more detects then dynamic techniques.

C.  

Static techniques can be used by inexperienced users.

D.  

Static techniques are always cheaper than dynamic techniques.

Discussion 0
Questions 6

The tests at the bottom layer of the test pyramid:

Options:

A.  

run faster than the tests at the top layer of the pyramid

B.  

cover larger pieces of functionalities than the tests at the top layer of the pyramid

C.  

are defined as 'Ul Tests' or 'End-To-End tests' in the different models of the pyramid

D.  

are unscripted tests produced by experience-based test techniques

Discussion 0
Questions 7

A financial institution is to implement a system that calculates the interest rates paid on investment accounts based on the sum invested.

You are responsible for testing the system and decide to use equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis to design test cases. The requirements describe the following expectations:

Investment range| Interest rate

R500 to RIO 00010%

RIO 001 to R50 00011%

R50 001 to RlOOOOO12%

RIOOOOl to R500 000| 13%

What is the minimum number of test cases required to cover all valid equivalence partitions for calculating the interest?

Options:

A.  

5

B.  

4

C.  

8

D.  

16

Discussion 0
Questions 8

A state transition diagram describes a control system’s behavior in different operational modes. The initial state is“NORMAL MODE”.

Which ONE of the following test cases covers anINVALID sequence?

Options:

A.  

NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → DEGRADED MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE

B.  

NORMAL MODE → DEGRADED MODE → NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → DEGRADED MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE

C.  

NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → DEGRADED MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE → DEGRADED MODE

D.  

NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE

Discussion 0
Questions 9

Which of the following statements about static testing and dynamic testing is true?

Options:

A.  

Unlike dynamic testing, which can be also performed manually, static testing cannot be performed without specialized tools

B.  

Static testing is usually much less cost-effective than dynamic testing

C.  

Unlike dynamic testing, which focuses on detecting potential defects, static testing focuses on detecting failures which may be due to actual defects

D.  

Both static testing and dynamic testing can be used to highlight issues associated with non-functional characteristics

Discussion 0
Questions 10

Which two of the following statements describe the advantages provided by good traceability between the test basis and test work products?

I. Analyzing the impact of changes.

ii. A measure of code quality.

iii. Accurate test estimation.

iv. Making testing auditable.

Select the correct answer:

Options:

A.  

i and ii

B.  

i and iv

C.  

i and iii

D.  

ii and iii

Discussion 0
Questions 11

The following 4 equivalence classes are given:

Which of the following alternatives includes correct test values for x. based on equivalence partitioning?

Options:

A.  

-100; 100:1000; 1001

B.  

-500; 0; 100; 1000

C.  

-99; 99:101; 1001

D.  

-1000; -100; 100; 1000

Discussion 0
Questions 12

A test manager decided to skip static testing since he believes bugs can be found easily by doing dynamic testing. Was this decision right or wrong?

Options:

A.  

The decision was wrong. Ensuring quality mandates that static testing is performed after performing the dynamic testing.

B.  

The decision was right. Static testing is usually redundant if a product is planned to go through a full-cycle of dynamic testing.

C.  

The decision was right. Most of the bugs are easier to identify during the dynamic testing.

D.  

The decision was wrong. Static testing can find defects early in the development process, reducing the overall cost of testing and development

Discussion 0
Questions 13

Which statement is true regarding confirmation testing and regression testing?

Options:

A.  

Confirmation testing confirms the quality of the test being run while regression testing ensures that the software still works after a change has been made.

B.  

Confirmation testing is an optional activity whilst regression testing is not negotiable.

C.  

Confirmation testing aims to verify that a defect has been resolved and regression testing ensuring that existing functionality still works after a change.

D.  

Testers' involvement is essential whilst running retesting and regression testing.

E.  

TESTER Involvement is essential whilst running retesting and regression testing.

Discussion 0
Questions 14

Which of the following statements is NOT true about Configuration management and software testing?

Options:

A.  

Configuration management helps maintain consistent versions of software artifacts.

B.  

Configuration management supports the build process, which is essential for delivering a test release into the test environment.

C.  

When testers report defects, they need to reference version-controlled items.

D.  

Version controlled test ware increases the chances of finding defects in the software under test.

Discussion 0
Questions 15

Which of the following statements is an example of testing contributing to higher quality?

Options:

A.  

A test leader writes a test summary report

B.  

A project manager asks to a test leader to estimate the test effort

C.  

A tester installs a test ten in the lest environment

D.  

A tester finds a bug which is resolved prior to release

Discussion 0
Questions 16

Which ONE of the following is a GOOD testing practice that is INDEPENDENT of the chosen SDLC (Software Development Life Cycle) model?

Options:

A.  

Testers are involved in reviewing work products as soon as the final version of this documentation is available so that this earlier testing and defect detection can support the “shift-left" strategy.

B.  

Test analysis and design for a specific test level begin during the corresponding development phase of the SDLC, allowing testing to follow the principle of late testing.

C.  

For every software development activity, there is a corresponding testing activity, ensuring that all development activities are subject to quality assurance.

D.  

Different test levels have specific and overlapping test objectives, allowing tests to be appropriate to specific test object types while managing redundancy.

Discussion 0
Questions 17

An application is subjected to a constant load for an extended period of time as part of a performance test While running this test, the response time of the application steadily slows down, which results in a requirement not being met This slowdown is caused by a memory leak where the application code does not properly release some of the dynamically allocated memory when it is no longer needed. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Options:

A.  

The slowdown is a failure while the memory leak is a defect

B.  

The slowdown is a defect while the memory leak is an error.

C.  

The slowdown is an error; the memory leak is a defect.

D.  

The slowdown is a defect; the memory leak is a failure.

Discussion 0
Questions 18

A company wants to reward each of its salespeople with an annual bonus that represents the sum of all the bonuses accumulated for every single sale made by that salesperson. The bonus for a single sale can take on the following four values: 3%, 5%, 7% and 10% (the percentage refers to the amount of the single sale). These values are determined on the basis of the type of customer (classified as "Basic" or "Premium") to which such sale was made, and on the amount of such sale classified into the following three groups G1, G2 and G3:

• [G1]: less than 300 euros

• [G2]: between 300 and 2000 euros

• [G3]: greater than 2000 euros

Which of the following is the minimum number of test cases needed to cover the full decision table associated with this scenario?

Options:

A.  

12

B.  

6

C.  

4

D.  

3

Discussion 0
Questions 19

Consider the following examples of risks identified in different software development projects

[1]. It may not be possible to generate the expected workloads to run performance tests, due to the poor hardware equipment of the machines (load injectors) that should generate these workloads.

[ii]. A user's session on a web application is not invalidated after a certain period of inactivity (configured by the system administrator) of the user,

[iii]. The test team will not have an adequate requirements specification (since many requirements will still be missing) by the time test design and analysis activities should begin according to the test plan.

[IV]. Following a failure, the system is unable to continue to maintain its pre-failure operation and some data becomes corrupted.

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Options:

A.  

[ii] and [IV] are product risks; [i] and [iii] are project risks

B.  

[ii]and [iii] are product risks. [I] and [IV] are project risks.

C.  

[i], and [iV] are product risks; [ii] and [iii] are project risks

D.  

[i], [II] and [iii] are product risks, [IV] is a project risk.

Discussion 0
Questions 20

Which of the following is a role that is usually responsible for documenting the findings (e.g., action items, decisions, recommendations) made by the review team as part of a typical formal review?

Options:

A.  

Review leader

B.  

Facilitator.

C.  

Recorder.

D.  

Moderator

Discussion 0
Questions 21

Scenario 2 “Big Drop”:

A company“The Big Drop”providesbulk discounts and frequent customer discountsas follows:

How manypossible decision rulescan be extracted from this table?

Options:

A.  

5 decision rules

B.  

6 decision rules

C.  

32 decision rules

D.  

8 decision rules

Discussion 0
Questions 22

Which of the following statements about white-box test techniques is true?

Options:

A.  

Achieving full statement coverage and full branch coverage for a software product means that such software product has been fully tested and there are no remaining bugs within the code

B.  

Code-related white-box test techniques are not required to measure the actual code coverage achieved by black-box testing, as code coverage can be measured using the coverage criteria associated with black-box test techniques

C.  

Branch coverage is the most thorough code-related white-box test technique, and therefore applicable standards prescribe achieving full branch coverage at the highest safety levels for safety-critical systems

D.  

Code-related white-box test techniques provide an objective measure of coverage and can be used to complement black-box test techniques to increase confidence in the code

Discussion 0
Questions 23

Which ONE of the following work products TYPICALLY belongs to test execution?

Options:

A.  

Test logs that document the results of test execution.

B.  

Automated test scripts used for test execution.

C.  

A test plan that describes the test strategy and test objectives.

D.  

A list of test conditions prioritized during test analysis.

Discussion 0
Questions 24

Atypical generic skill required for the role of tester is the ability to

Options:

A.  

Take on the role of developer to meet challenging project deadlines

B.  

Assume leadership aimed at imposing decisions on the rest of the team.

C.  

Use tools to make the execution of repetitive testing tasks more efficient.

D.  

Determine the corrective actions to get a test project on track in case of deviations from the test plan

Discussion 0
Questions 25

In a two-hour uninterrupted test session, performed as part of an iteration on an Agile project, a heuristic checklist was used to help the tester focus on some specific usability issues of a web application.

The unscripted tests produced by the tester's experience during such session belong to which one of the following testing quadrants?

Options:

A.  

Q1

B.  

Q2

C.  

Q3

D.  

Q4

Discussion 0
Questions 26

Which TWO of the following are benefits of continuous integration?

I. Allows earlier detection and easier root cause analysis of integration problems and conflicting changes.

II. Removes the need for manual test analysis, design and execution.

Hi. Removes the dependency on automated regression packs when integrating larger systems, or components.

iv. Gives the development team regular feedback on whether the code is working.

Select the correct answer:

Options:

A.  

i and iv

B.  

i and ii

C.  

i and iii

D.  

iii and iv

Discussion 0
Questions 27

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Options:

A.  

User acceptance tests are usually automated and aim to verify the acceptance criteria for user stories

B.  

Acceptance criteria for user stories can include details on data definitions, for example by describing the format, allowed values, and default values for a data item

C.  

Acceptance criteria for user stones should focus on positive scenarios, while negative scenarios should be excluded

D.  

Tests derived from acceptance criteria for user stories are not included in any of the four testing quadrants

Discussion 0
Questions 28

Determining the schedule for each testing activity and test milestones for a test project, using activity estimates, available resources, and other constraints is a typical task performed during

Options:

A.  

Test execution

B.  

Test design.

C.  

Test analysis.

D.  

Test planning

Discussion 0
Questions 29

Which of the following statements about white-box testing is FALSE?

Options:

A.  

Static testing can benefit from using code-related white-box test techniques during code reviews.

B.  

White-box testing allows suggesting test cases for increasing coverage levels which are based on objective measures

C.  

Achieving full code coverage for a component or a system ensures that it has been fully tested

D.  

Black-box testing can benefit from using code-related white-box test techniques to increase confidence in the code.

Discussion 0
Questions 30

Which of the following about typical information found within a test plan is FALSE?

Options:

A.  

The need to temporarily have additional test personnel available for specific test phases and/or test activities

B.  

The conditions that must be met in order for the test execution activities to be considered completed.

C.  

The list of the product risks which have not been fully mitigated at the end of test execution.

D.  

The conditions that must be met for part of all the planned activities to be suspended and resumed.

Discussion 0
Questions 31

The following diagram displays the logical dependencies between requirements and the individual requirement priorities. For example, "R2->R3" means that R3 is dependent on R2. Priority is indicated by the number next to the letter ”P" i.e. P1 has a higher priority than P2.

Which one of the following options best describes the test execution sequence using both requirement dependency and priority

Options:

A.  

R2. R1, R3. R4. R5, R6. R7, R8.

B.  

R1, R2, R3, R4, R5, R6, R7, R8.

C.  

R2, R4. R8, R5, R1, R6, R3, R7.

D.  

. R2, R1,R3,R7,R6,R5,R4,R8.

Discussion 0
Questions 32

You are testing the latest version of an air-traffic control system prior to production deployment using exploratory testing. After following an unusual sequence of input steps, the system crashes. After the crash, you document a defect report with the following information:

•Title: System crashes unexpectedly during input.

•Brief summary: System crashes when an unusual sequence of inputs is used.

•Version: V1.001

•Test: Exploratory testing prior to production deployment

•Priority: Urgent

•Risk: High

•References: Screenshot of crashed application

What critical Information Is missing from this report?

Options:

A.  

Conclusions, recommendations, and approvals.

B.  

Change history.

C.  

Description of the defect to enable reproduction.

D.  

Status of defect

Discussion 0
Questions 33

For the same financial institution in Question 12, with the same requirements and expectations, what would be the most likely investment values used in testing if two-point boundary value analysis is used to design test cases specific to the 13% interest rate equivalence partition?

Options:

A.  

R100 000, R100 001, R500 000, R500 001.

B.  

R99 999, R100 000, R499 999, R500 000.

C.  

R100 000. R500 000.

D.  

R99 000, R500 001.

Discussion 0
Questions 34

During which main group of test activity are the following tasks performed?

•Checking test results and logs against specified coverage criteria.

•Assessing the level of component or system quality based on test results and logs.

•Determining whether more tests are needed.

Select the correct answer:

Options:

A.  

Test planning.

B.  

Test analysis.

C.  

Test design.

D.  

Test monitoring and control.

Discussion 0
Questions 35

Which ONE of the following statements BEST applies tochecklist-based testing?

Options:

A.  

Checklists should contain general guidelines to ensure that all aspects of the software are covered.

B.  

Checklists should contain specific test conditions that can be individually and directly checked.

C.  

Checklists should primarily consist of automated test cases to maximize efficiency.

D.  

Checklists should be used exclusively for functional testing, as they are unsuitable for non-functional testing.

Discussion 0
Questions 36

Consider a given test plan which, among others, contains the following three sections: "Test Scope", "Testing Communication", and "Stakeholders". The features of the test object to be tested and those excluded from the testing represent information that is:

Options:

A.  

not usually included in a test plan, and therefore in the given test plan it should not be specified neither within the three sections mentioned, nor within the others

B.  

usually included in a test plan and, in the given test plan, it is more likely to be specified within "Test Scope" rather than in the other two sections mentioned

C.  

usually included in a test plan and, in the given test plan, it is more likely to be specified within "Testing Communication" rather than in the other two sections mentioned

D.  

usually included in a test plan and, in the given test plan, it is more likely to be specified within "Stakeholders" rather than in the other two sections mentioned

Discussion 0
Questions 37

The acceptance criteria associated with a user story:

Options:

A.  

are often written in a rule-oriented format using the template referred to as "Given/When/Then"

B.  

are often documented following in rule-oriented format using the following template: "As a [role], I want [feature], so that I can [benefit]"

C.  

can be written in different formats and represent an aspect of a user story referred to as confirmation' of the so called "3 C's"

D.  

must be written in one of the two following formats: scenario-oriented or rule-oriented

Discussion 0
Questions 38

Which of the following statements about checklist-based testing is TRUE?

Options:

A.  

Checklist-based testing is a technique for managing the review meeting that can be applied in those reviews where the use of checklists is mandatory, as is often the case in formal reviews.

B.  

Checklist-based testing is a review technique that can be used in a formal review process where reviewers, during individual review, try to detect issues within the work product based on a checklist

C.  

In checklist-based testing, using checklists at a high level of detail is more likely to produce test cases that are easier to reproduce than those using checklists at a low level of detail

D.  

Checklists used in checklist-based testing should be reviewed periodically for updates as, over time, test cases designed using the same checklist may become less effective at finding defects.

Discussion 0
Questions 39

Which of the following statements about traceability is FALSE?

Options:

A.  

Traceability between test basis items and the test cases designed to cover them, makes it possible to determine which test basis items have been covered by the executed test cases.

B.  

Traceability between test basis items and the test cases designed to cover them, enables experience-based test techniques to be applied

C.  

Traceability between test basis items and the test cases designed to cover them, enables identification of which test cases will be affected by changes to the test basis items.

D.  

Traceability can be established and maintained through all the test documentation for a given test level, such as from test conditions through test cases to test scripts.

Discussion 0
Questions 40

Consider the following simplified version of a state transition diagram that specifies the behavior of a video poker game:

What Is the minimum number of test cases needed to cover every unique sequence of up to 3 states/2 transitions starting In the "Start" state and ending In the "End" state?

Options:

A.  

1

B.  

2

C.  

3

D.  

4

Discussion 0
Questions 41

Which sequence of stated in the answer choices is correct in accordance with the following figure depicting the life-cycle of a defect?

Options:

A.  

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1

B.  

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1->S2->S3

C.  

S0->S1->S2~>S3->S4

D.  

S0->S1 ->S2->S3->S5->S3->S4

Discussion 0
Questions 42

Which ONE of the following options is NOT a test objective?

Options:

A.  

Verifying whether specified requirements have been fulfilled

B.  

Triggering failures and finding defects

C.  

Finding errors

D.  

Validating whether the test object is complete and works as expected by the stakeholders

Discussion 0
Questions 43

Which ONE of the following options identifies the perspectives through which acollective authorship processgenerates a shared vision of user stories?

Options:

A.  

Product owner, development, and testing

B.  

Business, architecture, and testing

C.  

Business, development, and testing

D.  

Business, development, and acceptance testing

Discussion 0
Questions 44

Which of the following statements refers to a good testing practice that applies to all software development lifecycles?

Options:

A.  

Each test level should have its own specific test objectives that should be consistent with the software development lifecycle phase or type of activities it addresses.

B.  

Test analysis and design for any test levels should begin as soon as coding is complete, and all system components are available for testing

C.  

The most efficient and effective method of conveying information to and within a development team is face-to-face conversation.

D.  

All the tests should be automated and run as part of the continuous integration process with every software change

Discussion 0
Questions 45

In which one of the following test techniques are test cases derived from the analysis of the software architecture?

Options:

A.  

Black-box test techniques.

B.  

Experience-based test techniques.

C.  

Checklist-based test techniques.

D.  

White-box test techniques.

Discussion 0
Questions 46

Select the roles required in a formal review:

Options:

A.  

Author, Management, Facilitator, Review Leader, Reviewers, Scribe

B.  

Author, Tester. Facilitator. Review Leader. Reviewers. Scribe

C.  

Author, Business analyst. Facilitator, Review Leader. Reviewers. Scribe

D.  

Author. Developer, Facilitator. Review Leader. Reviewers. Scribe

Discussion 0
Questions 47

A calculator software is used to calculate the result for 5+6.

The user noticed that the result given is 6.

This is an example of;

Options:

A.  

Mistake

B.  

Fault

C.  

Error

D.  

Failure

Discussion 0
Questions 48

Which of the following issues cannot be identified by static analysis tools?

Options:

A.  

Very low MTBF (Mean Time Between failure)

B.  

Potentially endless loops

C.  

Referencing a variable with an undefined value

D.  

Security vulnerabilities

Discussion 0
Questions 49

Use Scenario 1 “Happy Tomatoes” (from the previous question).

Using theBoundary Value Analysis (BVA)technique (in its two-point variant), identify the set of input values that provides the HIGHEST coverage.

Options:

A.  

{7,8,21,22,29,30}

B.  

{7,8,22,23,29,30}

C.  

{6,7,8,21,22,29,31}

D.  

{6,7,21,22,29,30}

Discussion 0
Questions 50

As a result of the joint evaluation of a product version with the customer, it has been concluded that it would be appropriate to retrieve an earlier version of the product and carry out a benchmark. Depending on the result, further development will be carried out based on the current version or the retrieved version.

Which mechanism, process, and/or technique will allow the specific version (including the testing work products) of a given software product to be restored?

Options:

A.  

Defect management

B.  

Configuration management

C.  

Change management

D.  

Risk management

Discussion 0
Questions 51

Which of the following statements about how different types of test tools support testers is true?

Options:

A.  

The support offered by a test data preparation tool is often leveraged by testers to run automated regression test suites

B.  

The support offered by a performance testing tool is often leveraged by testers to run load tests

C.  

The support offered by a bug prediction tool is often used by testers to track the bugs they found

D.  

The support offered by a continuous integration tool is often leveraged by testers to automatically generate test cases from a model

Discussion 0
Questions 52

You are an experienced tester on a project with incomplete requirements and under pressure to deploy.

What type of testing should you do?

Options:

A.  

Decision-based testing.

B.  

Checklist-based testing.

C.  

Error guessing.

D.  

Exploratory testing.

Discussion 0
Questions 53

In addition to thorough testing of the requirements specification, a development team aims to involve users as early as possible in the development process, using practices such as prototyping, to ensure that the software systems being developed will meet the users' expectations. This approach is especially useful at mitigating the risks associated with one of the seven testing principles, which one?

Options:

A.  

Tests wear out

B.  

Absence-of-errors fallacy

C.  

Working software over comprehensive documentation.

D.  

Defects cluster together

Discussion 0
Questions 54

Which of the following statements about static testing and dynamic testing is TRUE?

Options:

A.  

Static testing is better suited than dynamic testing for highlighting issues that could indicate inappropriate code modulansation.

B.  

Dynamic testing can only be applied to executable work products, while static testing can only be applied to non-executable work products.

C.  

Both dynamic testing and static testing cause failures, but failures caused by static testing are usually easier and cheaper to analyse.

D.  

Security vulnerabilities can only be detected when the software is being executed, and thus they can only be detected through dynamic testing, not through static testing

Discussion 0
Questions 55

A requirement specifies that a certain identifier (ID) must be between 5 and 10 characters long, must contain only alphanumenc characters, and its first character must be a letter As a tester, you want to apply one-dimensional equivalence partitioning to test this ID. This means that you have to apply equivalence partitioning individually: to the length of the ID, the type of characters contained within the ID, and the type of the first character of the ID. What is the number of partitions to cover?

Options:

A.  

7.

B.  

6.

C.  

5.

D.  

3.

Discussion 0
Questions 56

Which of the following best describes the relationship between a test progress report and a test summary report?

Options:

A.  

The test report prepared during a test activity may be referred to as a test progress report, while a test report prepared at the end of a test activity may be referred to as a test summary report.

B.  

The test report prepared during a test activity may be referred to as a test summary report, while a test report prepared at the end of a test activity may be referred to as a test progress report.

C.  

There is no difference between a test progress report and a test summary report.

D.  

Both the test progress report and the test summary report should always be generated via an automated tool.

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