A.  

The defendant made a false statement that was material

B.  

The defendant made a false statement white under oath.

C.  

The defendant made the statement with knowledge of its falsity

D.  

The defendant made a false statement in a court of law.

A.  

Mobile payment scheme

B.  

Integration scheme

C.  

Reverse deposit scheme

D.  

Structuring scheme

A.  

When litigation is reasonably anticipated

B.  

When the company receives notice of the lawsuit

C.  

When the judge sets the schedule for discovery

D.  

When the court orders the party to produce the evidence

A.  

A tax credit evasion scheme

B.  

A value-added tax evasion scheme

C.  

An excise tax evasion scheme

D.  

An income and wealth tax evasion scheme

A.  

The government relied on the false statement

B.  

The defendant knew the statement was false

C.  

The defendant made a false statement

D.  

The false statement was material

A.  

Injunctions

B.  

Production writs

C.  

Indictments

D.  

Affidavits of documents

A.  

An organization must delete a data subject's personal data automatically when the data are no longer m use.

B.  

An organization must have a documented lawful basis for collecting or processing personal data.

C.  

An organization generally must notify all affected data subjects without undue delay when a high-risk data breach occurs

D.  

An organization must confirm or deny that it possesses a data subject's personal data upon that individual's request

A.  

True

B.  

False

A.  

Right of the accused to be released from custody pending trial

B.  

Right of the accused to a trial without public disclosure of the results

C.  

Right of the accused to unlimited appeals in criminal trials

D.  

Right of the accused to be informed of criminal charges

A.  

Require individuals to make a disclosure any time currency is physically transported into or out of a country, regardless of the currency amount.

B.  

Eliminate the practice of carrying currency above a certain threshold across international borders.

C.  

Establish reporting thresholds for physically carrying currency or currency equivalents into or out of a country.

D.  

Stipulate that financial institutions must inform authorities any time they conduct a transaction involving a cash equivalent originating from another country.

A.  

Reorganization bankruptcy

B.  

Debt adjustment bankruptcy

C.  

Debt dismissal bankruptcy

D.  

Liquidation bankruptcy

A.  

true

B.  

False

A.  

Obstruction of justice

B.  

Fraudulent misrepresentation

C.  

Conspiracy to influence the court

D.  

Judicial extortion

A.  

A red flag of a front business is the observation of a large number of customers during peak operating hours

B.  

Front businesses provide cover for delivery and transportation related to illegal activity

C.  

From criminals' perspective a disadvantage to front businesses is that they generally must pay taxes on the illicit income

D.  

Front businesses benefit launderers by providing a safe place to manage criminal activities

A.  

Myopic vision

B.  

Personal attack

C.  

Bias

D.  

Sounding board

A.  

Adversarial process

B.  

Substantive law process

C.  

Inquisitorial process

D.  

Common law process

A.  

Punitive damages

B.  

Declaratory relief

C.  

Injunction

D.  

Monetary relief

A.  

The expert has the discretion to determine the scope of the examinations

B.  

The judge is not allowed to question the expert's credibility under any circumstance

C.  

The parties determine the extent of consideration to be given to the expert's testimony

D.  

The parties are often allowed to question the expert's methods and analysis

A.  

The expectation of making a profit

B.  

Profits derived solely from the investor's management activity

C.  

investment m a common enterprise

D.  

An investment of money or other asset

A.  

The agent must have purported to act on behalf of or as an agent for an identified principal

B.  

The agent must have had an undisclosed interest m a matter that could influence their professional role

C.  

The agent must have informed the principal of their actions

D.  

The agent must have been authorized by someone with actual authority to carry out the transaction at issue

A.  

A domestic credit card purchase of a piece of jewelry above the jurisdiction's designated threshold

B.  

A cash payment to a restaurant supplier for restaurant supplies above the jurisdiction's designated threshold

C.  

An international purchase of a small boat with a lump-sum cash payment below the jurisdiction's designated threshold

D.  

A lump-sum cash deposit to a bank above the jurisdiction's designated threshold

A.  

The defendant acted intentionally or recklessly.

B.  

The victim's distress occurred for at least two years.

C.  

The defendant engaged in extreme and outrageous conduct.

D.  

The victim suffered distress due to the defendant's conduct.

A.  

Certification in a specific field is always enough to qualify an expert

B.  

An excerpt is not qualified to testify unless all parties to the litigation approve

C.  

Experts are generally prohibited from serving as expert witnesses in multiple cases

D.  

The qualification of an expert is generally based on standardized requirements

A.  

There are justified gaps in the work history of promoters at the entity.

B.  

The entity is known to have a history of regulatory problems.

C.  

There is a lack of customer complaints against the entity.

D.  

The entity's website contains detailed background information.

A.  

Declaratory relief

B.  

Carnages

C.  

Equitable relief

D.  

Injunction

A.  

Purpose of the communications was to seek or provide legal advice

B.  

A lawsuit has been filed

C.  

Intent to keep the communications confidential

D.  

Communication between a legal advisor and a client

A.  

In a mediation session, the mediator tries to help the parties reach a settlement.

B.  

In an arbitration proceeding, the arbitrator tries to help the parties reach a settlement.

C.  

In an arbitration proceeding that is nonbinding, issues are final and cannot later be determined by a court in a trial.

D.  

In a mediation session, the mediator decides the outcome of a case by deciding who should win the dispute.

A.  

The victim relied on the misrepresentation

B.  

The defendant acted negligently

C.  

The defendant made a false statement (i, e., a misrepresentation of fact)

D.  

The victim suffered damages as a result of the misrepresentation

A.  

The primary purpose of the litigation privilege is to protect confidential communications between a client and the client's legal representative

B.  

The litigation privilege only protects documents and materials prepared by an attorney

C.  

The litigation privilege applies only while a trial is underway

D.  

The litigation privilege applies only to documents and materials prepared in anticipation of litigation

A.  

The defendant acted negligently.

B.  

The defendant gave or received a thing of value.

C.  

The principal suffered damages as a result of the bribe

D.  

The defendant failed to exercise due care.

A.  

Conflict of interest

B.  

Defamation

C.  

Public disclosure of private facts

D.  

Slander

A.  

The entity's website contains detailed background information.

B.  

There is an unexplained absence of customer complaints against the entity.

C.  

There are justified gaps in the work history of promoters at the entity

D.  

The agents working at the entity have criminal records.

A.  

Generally, the court appoints the primary expert witnesses in inquisitorial jurisdictions.

B.  

Generally, only the parties may select expert witnesses in inquisitor jurisdictions

C.  

Generally the court selects the primary expert witnesses in adversarial jurisdictions

D.  

Generally, only the parties may select experts to introduce testimony in adversarial jurisdictions

A.  

Yes, the evil action can be filed if the jurisdiction permits parallel proceedings.

B.  

No, the civil action cannot be filed if the jurisdiction prohibits counterclaims.

C.  

Yes, the evil action can be filed if the jurisdiction permits analogous cairns.

D.  

No, the civil action cannot be filed if the jurisdiction prohibits double jeopardy.

A.  

Front businesses are a favored method because it is easy to match the costs associated with providing customers food, liquor, and entertainment with the revenues produced.

B.  

Bars, restaurants, and nightclubs are commonly used as front businesses because these venues tend to charge relatively low prices and customers rarely vary in their purchases.

C.  

Front businesses can often be detected because these businesses have a large number of customers during peak operating hours and high income.

D.  

A front business that conducts legitimate business can provide cover for delivery and transportation related to illegal activity.

A.  

Overstating revenues

B.  

Reporting real estate purchases

C.  

Recording but not depositing revenue

D.  

None of the above

A.  

Mya will assist the fact finder by drawing conclusions regarding the accused's guilt or innocence.

B.  

Mya will assist the fact finder by providing specialized knowledge on the admissibility of evidence in the case.

C.  

Mya will assist the fact finder by drawing conclusions on the credibility of other witnesses.

D.  

Mya will assist the fact finder by providing specialized knowledge that will help them understand evidence.

A.  

True

B.  

False

A.  

The courts are allowed to consider both codified statutes and previous court decisions but are bound by neither

B.  

The courts are bound by both previous court decisions and codified principles or statutes

C.  

The courts are bound primarily by previous court decisions to reserve legal issues

D.  

The courts are bound by codified principles or statures but are not bound by previous court decisions

A.  

Allison cannot be fired for misappropriating funds from her employer

B.  

Allison cannot be fired for any reason

C.  

Alison cannot be fired for informing the government of her employee’s fraud

D.  

None of the above

A.  

The plaintiff's complaint must typically contain a copy of all documents that might be relevant to the case.

B.  

Civil actions begin with the filing of a pleading, usually in the jurisdiction where the defendant resides or where the claim originated.

C.  

The plaintiff's complaint does not need to state the grounds for legal relief.

D.  

All of the above are correct.

A.  

If opposing counsel asks an overly complex question during cross-examination, witnesses should ask for the question to be rephrased

B.  

If an expert witness's opinion is at risk of being distorted during cross-examination, the expert should avoid answering the question

C.  

The primary purpose of cross-examination is for opposing counsel to discover information previously unknown to opposing counsel.

D.  

The general rule is for opposing counsel to cross-examine all witnesses to ensure that important details are not missed by the fact finder

A.  

To help reduce the risk of future illegal practices by an organization accused of misconduct.

B.  

To save trial resources by getting the defendant to plead guilty to a less serious offense.

C.  

To postpone prosecution until a company conducts an adequate internal investigation.

D.  

To increase the likelihood of conviction if a company is accused of subsequent misconduct.

A.  

A domestic cash deposit into a bank of a sum that is below the jurisdiction's designated threshold.

B.  

A single cash purchase of restaurant supplies for a sum that is above the jurisdiction's designated threshold.

C.  

A single cash purchase of casino credits for a sum that is above the jurisdiction's designated threshold.

D.  

All of the above.

A.  

Public disclosure of private facts

B.  

Negligent misrepresentation

C.  

Slander

D.  

Defamation

A.  

Digital currencies are subject to all of the same regulations as payments made through traditional financial institutions

B.  

Digital currencies are attractive to money launderers because payments often cross jurisdictional boundaries, making it difficult for authorities to pursue enforcement

C.  

Digital currencies are attractive to money launderers because they are a payment method that provides complete anonymity

D.  

Digital currencies are not typically used to launder money due to strict customer identification or recordkeeping requirements enforced in all jurisdictions

A.  

When he first deposited the funds into a domestic account

B.  

When he first stole the cash from his employer

C.  

When he moved the funds through several transactions using foreign accounts

D.  

When he spent the money