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Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge v5 (CCSKv5.0) Question and Answers

Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge v5 (CCSKv5.0)

Last Update Nov 30, 2025
Total Questions : 332

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Questions 1

When designing a cloud-native application that requires scalable and durable data storage, which storage option should be primarily considered?

Options:

A.  

Network Attached Storage (NAS)

B.  

Block storage

C.  

File storage

D.  

Object storage

Discussion 0
Questions 2

What Identity and Access Management (IAM) process decides to permit or deny a subject access to system objects like networks, data, or applications?

Options:

A.  

Authorization

B.  

Federation

C.  

Authentication

D.  

Provisioning

Discussion 0
Questions 3

Which of the following best describes the responsibility for security in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.  

Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) are solely responsible for security in the cloud environment. The Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) are accountable.

B.  

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) and Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) share security responsibilities. The exact allocation of responsibilities depends on the technology and context.

C.  

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) are solely responsible for security in the cloud environment. Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) have an advisory role.

D.  

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) and Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) share security responsibilities. The allocation of responsibilities is constant.

Discussion 0
Questions 4

Which of the following from the governance hierarchy provides specific goals to minimize risk and maintain a secure environment?

Options:

A.  

Implementation guidance

B.  

Control objectives

C.  

Policies

D.  

Control specifications

Discussion 0
Questions 5

What is true of companies considering a cloud computing business relationship?

Options:

A.  

The laws protecting customer data are based on the cloud provider and customer location only.

B.  

The confidentiality agreements between companies using cloud computing services is limited legally to the company, not the provider.

C.  

The companies using the cloud providers are the custodians of the data entrusted to them.

D.  

The cloud computing companies are absolved of all data security and associated risks through contracts and data laws.

E.  

The cloud computing companies own all customer data.

Discussion 0
Questions 6

How does Infrastructure as Code (IaC) facilitate rapid recovery in cybersecurity?

Options:

A.  

IaC is primarily used for designing network security policies

B.  

IaC enables automated and consistent deployment of recovery environments

C.  

IaC provides encryption and secure key management during recovery

D.  

IaC automates incident detection and alerting mechanisms

Discussion 0
Questions 7

In a cloud environment spanning multiple jurisdictions, what is the most important factor to consider for compliance?

Options:

A.  

Relying on the cloud service provider's compliance certifications for all jurisdictions

B.  

Focusing on the compliance requirements defined by the laws, regulations, and standards enforced in the jurisdiction where the company is based

C.  

Relying only on established industry standards since they adequately address all compliance needs

D.  

Understanding the legal and regulatory requirements of each jurisdiction where data originates, is stored, or processed

Discussion 0
Questions 8

What is the primary purpose of cloud governance in an organization?

Options:

A.  

To increase data transfer speeds within the cloud environment

B.  

To reduce the cost of cloud services

C.  

To ensure compliance, security, and efficient management aligned with the organization's goals

D.  

To eliminate the need for on-premises data centers

Discussion 0
Questions 9

Why is identity management at the organization level considered a key aspect in cybersecurity?

Options:

A.  

It replaces the need to enforce the principles of the need to know

B.  

It ensures only authorized users have access to resources

C.  

It automates and streamlines security processes in the organization

D.  

It reduces the need for regular security training and auditing, and frees up cybersecurity budget

Discussion 0
Questions 10

What technology is commonly used to establish an encrypted tunnel between a remote user's device and a private network over the public Internet?

Options:

A.  

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

B.  

Domain Name System (DNS)

C.  

Network Address Translation (NAT)

D.  

Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)

Discussion 0
Questions 11

Which Identity and Access Management (IAM) principle focuses on implementing multiple security layers to dilute access power, thereby averting a misuse or compromise?

Options:

A.  

Continuous Monitoring

B.  

Federation

C.  

Segregation of Duties

D.  

Principle of Least Privilege

Discussion 0
Questions 12

In Identity and Access Management (IAM) containment, why is it crucial to understand if an attacker escalated their identity?

Options:

A.  

It aids in determining the source IP of the attacker.

B.  

Because it simplifies the recovery process and increases the response time.

C.  

To prevent further unauthorized access and limit the management plane blast radius.

D.  

To facilitate the eradication of malware.

Discussion 0
Questions 13

CCM: A hypothetical start-up company called "ABC" provides a cloud based IT management solution. They are growing rapidly and therefore need to put controls in place in order to manage any changes in

their production environment. Which of the following Change Control & Configuration Management production environment specific control should they implement in this scenario?

Options:

A.  

Policies and procedures shall be established for managing the risks associated with applying changes to business-critical or customer (tenant)-impacting (physical and virtual) applications and system-system interface (API) designs and configurations, infrastructure network and systems components.

B.  

Policies and procedures shall be established, and supporting business processes and technical measures implemented, to restrict the installation of unauthorized software on organizationally-owned ormanaged user end-point devices (e.g. issued workstations, laptops, and mobile devices) and IT infrastructure network and systems components.

C.  

All cloud-based services used by the company's mobile devices or BYOD shall be pre-approved for usage and the storage of company business data.

D.  

None of the above

Discussion 0
Questions 14

Which aspects are most important for ensuring security in a hybrid cloud environment?

Options:

A.  

Use of encryption for all data at rest

B.  

Implementation of robust IAM and network security practices

C.  

Regular software updates and patch management

D.  

Deployment of multi-factor authentication only

Discussion 0
Questions 15

How does centralized logging simplify security monitoring and compliance?

Options:

A.  

It consolidates logs into a single location.

B.  

It decreases the amount of data that needs to be reviewed.

C.  

It encrypts all logs to prevent unauthorized access.

D.  

It automatically resolves all detected security threats.

Discussion 0
Questions 16

Which of the following best describes the shift-left approach in software development?

Options:

A.  

Relies only on automated security testing tools

B.  

Emphasizes post-deployment security audits

C.  

Focuses on security only during the testing phase

D.  

Integrates security early in the development process

Discussion 0
Questions 17

Which of the following is NOT a cloud computing characteristic that impacts incidence response?

Options:

A.  

The on demand self-service nature of cloud computing environments.

B.  

Privacy concerns for co-tenants regarding the collection and analysis of telemetry and artifacts associated with an incident.

C.  

The possibility of data crossing geographic or jurisdictional boundaries.

D.  

Object-based storage in a private cloud.

E.  

The resource pooling practiced by cloud services, in addition to the rapid elasticity offered by cloud infrastructures.

Discussion 0
Questions 18

Containers are highly portable code execution environments.

Options:

A.  

False

B.  

True

Discussion 0
Questions 19

What is one primary operational challenge associated with using cloud-agnostic container strategies?

Options:

A.  

Limiting deployment to a single cloud service

B.  

Establishing identity and access management protocols

C.  

Reducing the amount of cloud storage used

D.  

Management plane compatibility and consistent controls

Discussion 0
Questions 20

What is true of searching data across cloud environments?

Options:

A.  

You might not have the ability or administrative rights to search or access all hosted data.

B.  

The cloud provider must conduct the search with the full administrative controls.

C.  

All cloud-hosted email accounts are easily searchable.

D.  

Search and discovery time is always factored into a contract between the consumer and provider.

E.  

You can easily search across your environment using any E-Discovery tool.

Discussion 0
Questions 21

Select the best definition of “compliance” from the options below.

Options:

A.  

The development of a routine that covers all necessary security measures.

B.  

The diligent habits of good security practices and recording of the same.

C.  

The timely and efficient filing of security reports.

D.  

The awareness and adherence to obligations, including the assessment and prioritization of corrective actions deemed necessary and appropriate.

E.  

The process of completing all forms and paperwork necessary to develop a defensible paper trail.

Discussion 0
Questions 22

In the context of FaaS, what is primarily defined in addition to functions?

Options:

A.  

Data storage

B.  

Network configurations

C.  

User permissions

D.  

Trigger events

Discussion 0
Questions 23

What is true of security as it relates to cloud network infrastructure?

Options:

A.  

You should apply cloud firewalls on a per-network basis.

B.  

You should deploy your cloud firewalls identical to the existing firewalls.

C.  

You should always open traffic between workloads in the same virtual subnet for better visibility.

D.  

You should implement a default allow with cloud firewalls and then restrict as necessary.

E.  

You should implement a default deny with cloud firewalls.

Discussion 0
Questions 24

Why is it essential to include key metrics and periodic reassessment in cybersecurity governance?

Options:

A.  

To meet legal requirements and avoid fines

B.  

To ensure effective and continuous improvement of security measures

C.  

To document all cybersecurity incidents and monitor them overtime

D.  

To reduce the number of security incidents to zero

Discussion 0
Questions 25

In the context of cloud security, which approach prioritizes incoming data logsfor threat detection by applying multiple sequential filters?

Options:

A.  

Cascade-and-filter approach

B.  

Parallel processing approach

C.  

Streamlined single-filter method

D.  

Unfiltered bulk analysis

Discussion 0
Questions 26

What is one of the primary advantages of including Static Application Security Testing (SAST) in Continuous Integration (CI) pipelines?

Options:

A.  

Identifies code vulnerabilities early in the development

B.  

Increases the speed of deployment to production

C.  

Improves runtime performance of the application

D.  

Enhances the user interface of the application

Discussion 0
Questions 27

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of image factories in the context of virtual machine (VM) management?

Options:

A.  

Automating the VM image creation processes

B.  

Managing network configurations for VMs

C.  

Providing backup solutions for VM images

D.  

Enhancing security of VM images

Discussion 0
Questions 28

Which aspect of cybersecurity can AI enhance by reducing false positive alerts?

Options:

A.  

Anomaly detection

B.  

Assisting analysts

C.  

Threat intelligence

D.  

Automated responses

Discussion 0
Questions 29

What is the primary focus during the Preparation phase of the Cloud Incident Response framework?

Options:

A.  

Developing a cloud service provider evaluation criterion

B.  

Deploying automated security monitoring tools across cloud services

C.  

Establishing a Cloud Incident Response Team and response plans

D.  

Conducting regular vulnerability assessments on cloud infrastructure

Discussion 0
Questions 30

Which cloud service model allows users to access applications hosted and managed by the provider, with the user only needing to configure the application?

Options:

A.  

Software as a Service (SaaS)

B.  

Database as a Service (DBaaS)

C.  

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

D.  

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

Discussion 0
Questions 31

Which of the following best describes a key benefit of Software-Defined Networking (SDN)?

Options:

A.  

SDN is a hardware-based solution for optimizing network performance

B.  

SDN eliminates the need for physical network devices and cabling

C.  

SDN allows networks to be dynamically configured and managed through software

D.  

SDN is primarily focused on improving network security through advanced firewalls

Discussion 0
Questions 32

After an incident has been identified and classified, which activity is typically performed during the Containment, Eradication, and Recovery phase of incident response?

Options:

A.  

Documenting lessons learned and finalizing reports

B.  

Restoring systems to operational status while preventing recurrence

C.  

Monitoring network traffic for anomalies

D.  

Identifying and classifying security threats

Discussion 0
Questions 33

Which of the following best describes the Identity Provider (IdP) and its role in managing access to deployments?

Options:

A.  

The IdP is used for authentication purposes and does not play a role in managing access to deployments.

B.  

The IdP manages user, group, and role mappings for access to deployments across cloud providers.

C.  

The IdP solely manages access within a deployment and resides within the deployment infrastructure.

D.  

The IdP is responsible for creating deployments and setting up access policies within a single cloud provider.

Discussion 0
Questions 34

Cloud services exhibit five essential characteristics that demonstrate their relation to, and differences from, traditional computing approaches. Which one of the five characteristics is described as: a consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities such as server time and network storage as needed.

Options:

A.  

Rapid elasticity

B.  

Resource pooling

C.  

Broad network access

D.  

Measured service

E.  

On-demand self-service

Discussion 0
Questions 35

Which governance domain deals with evaluating how cloud computing affects compliance with internal

security policies and various legal requirements, such as regulatory and legislative?

Options:

A.  

Legal Issues: Contracts and Electronic Discovery

B.  

Infrastructure Security

C.  

Compliance and Audit Management

D.  

Information Governance

E.  

Governance and Enterprise Risk Management

Discussion 0
Questions 36

Which layer is the most important for securing because it is considered to be the foundation for secure cloud operations?

Options:

A.  

Infrastructure

B.  

Datastructure

C.  

Infostructure

D.  

Applistructure

E.  

Metastructure

Discussion 0
Questions 37

Which concept is a mapping of an identity, including roles, personas, and attributes, to an authorization?

Options:

A.  

Access control

B.  

Federated Identity Management

C.  

Authoritative source

D.  

Entitlement

E.  

Authentication

Discussion 0
Questions 38

In securing virtual machines (VMs), what is the primary role of using an “image factory" in VM deployment?

Options:

A.  

To encrypt data within VMs for secure storage

B.  

To facilitate direct manual intervention in VM deployments

C.  

To enable rapid scaling of virtual machines on demand

D.  

To ensure consistency, security, and efficiency in VM image creation

Discussion 0
Questions 39

Which method is considered best practice for creating secure virtual machine (VM) images?

Options:

A.  

Downloading images from random online repositories

B.  

Using image factories and trusted sources

C.  

Cloning existing, running VMs

D.  

Manually configuring each VM image

Discussion 0
Questions 40

What is the primary benefit of Federated Identity Management in an enterprise environment?

Options:

A.  

It allows single set credential access to multiple systems and services

B.  

It encrypts data between multiple systems and services

C.  

It segregates user permissions across different systems and services

D.  

It enhances multi-factor authentication across all systems and services

Discussion 0
Questions 41

Which data security control is the LEAST likely to be assigned to an IaaS provider?

Options:

A.  

Application logic

B.  

Access controls

C.  

Encryption solutions

D.  

Physical destruction

E.  

Asset management and tracking

Discussion 0
Questions 42

The containment phase of the incident response lifecycle requires taking systems offline.

Options:

A.  

False

B.  

True

Discussion 0
Questions 43

Which of the following BEST describes a benefit of Infrastructure as Code (IaC) in cybersecurity contexts?

Options:

A.  

Reduces the need for security auditing

B.  

Enables consistent security configurations through automation

C.  

Increases manual control over security settings

D.  

Increases scalability of cloud resources

Discussion 0
Questions 44

In federated identity management, what role does the identity provider (IdP) play in relation to the relying party?

Options:

A.  

The IdP relies on the relying party to authenticate and authorize users.

B.  

The relying party makes assertions to the IdP about user authorizations.

C.  

The IdP and relying party have no direct trust relationship.

D.  

The IdP makes assertions to the relying party after building a trust relationship.

Discussion 0
Questions 45

What process involves an independent examination of records, operations, processes, and controls within an organization to ensure compliance with cybersecurity policies, standards, and regulations?

Options:

A.  

Risk assessment

B.  

Audit

C.  

Penetration testing

D.  

Incident response

Discussion 0
Questions 46

Which attack surfaces, if any, does virtualization technology introduce?

Options:

A.  

The hypervisor

B.  

Virtualization management components apart from the hypervisor

C.  

Configuration and VM sprawl issues

D.  

All of the above

Discussion 0
Questions 47

What is the primary role of Identity and Access Management (IAM)?

Options:

A.  

To encrypt data at rest and in transit

B.  

Ensure only authorized entities access resources

C.  

To monitor and log all user activities and traffic

D.  

Ensure all users have the same level of access

Discussion 0
Questions 48

Which of the following best describes an authoritative source in the context of identity management?

Options:

A.  

A list of permissions assigned to different users

B.  

A network resource that handles authorization requests

C.  

A database containing all entitlements

D.  

A trusted system holding accurate identity information

Discussion 0
Questions 49

What is a key advantage of using Policy-Based Access Control (PBAC) for cloud-based access management?

Options:

A.  

PBAC eliminates the need for defining and managing user roles and permissions.

B.  

PBAC is easier to implement and manage compared to Role-Based Access Control (RBAC).

C.  

PBAC allows enforcement of granular, context-aware security policies using multiple attributes.

D.  

PBAC ensures that access policies are consistent across all cloud providers and platforms.

Discussion 0
Questions 50

What is known as a code execution environment running within an operating system that shares and uses the resources of the operating system?

Options:

A.  

Platform-based Workload

B.  

Pod

C.  

Abstraction

D.  

Container

E.  

Virtual machine

Discussion 0
Questions 51

Cloud applications can use virtual networks and other structures, for hyper-segregated environments.

Options:

A.  

False

B.  

True

Discussion 0
Questions 52

ENISA: Which is a potential security benefit of cloud computing?

Options:

A.  

More efficient and timely system updates

B.  

ISO 27001 certification

C.  

Provider can obfuscate system O/S and versions

D.  

Greater compatibility with customer IT infrastructure

E.  

Lock-In

Discussion 0
Questions 53

In a containerized environment, what is fundamental to ensuring runtime protection for deployed containers?

Options:

A.  

Implementing real-time visibility

B.  

Deploying container-specific antivirus scanning

C.  

Using static code analysis tools in the pipeline

D.  

Full packet network monitoring

Discussion 0
Questions 54

What is the primary purpose of Identity and Access Management (IAM) systems in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.  

To encrypt data to ensure its confidentiality

B.  

To govern identities' access to resources in the cloud

C.  

To monitor network traffic for suspicious activity

D.  

To provide a backup solution for cloud data

Discussion 0
Questions 55

Use elastic servers when possible and move workloads to new instances.

Options:

A.  

False

B.  

True

Discussion 0
Questions 56

When mapping functions to lifecycle phases, which functions are required to successfully process data?

Options:

A.  

Create, Store, Use, and Share

B.  

Create and Store

C.  

Create and Use

D.  

Create, Store, and Use

E.  

Create, Use, Store, and Delete

Discussion 0
Questions 57

What type of information is contained in the Cloud Security Alliance's Cloud Control Matrix?

Options:

A.  

Network traffic rules for cloud environments

B.  

A number of requirements to be implemented, based upon numerous standards and regulatory requirements

C.  

Federal legal business requirements for all cloud operators

D.  

A list of cloud configurations including traffic logic and efficient routes

E.  

The command and control management hierarchy of typical cloud company

Discussion 0
Questions 58

In the shared security model, how does the allocation of responsibility vary by service?

Options:

A.  

Shared responsibilities should be consistent across all services.

B.  

Based on the per-service SLAs for security.

C.  

Responsibilities are the same across IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS in the shared model.

D.  

Responsibilities are divided between the cloud provider and the customer based on the service type.

Discussion 0
Questions 59

Which resilience tool helps distribute network or application traffic across multiple servers to ensure reliability and availability?

Options:

A.  

Redundancy

B.  

Auto-scaling

C.  

Load balancing

D.  

Failover

Discussion 0
Questions 60

Which factor is typically considered in data classification?

Options:

A.  

CI/CD step

B.  

Storage capacity requirements

C.  

Sensitivity of data

D.  

Data controller

Discussion 0
Questions 61

How does cloud sprawl complicate security monitoring in an enterprise environment?

Options:

A.  

Cloud sprawl disperses assets, making it harder to monitor assets.

B.  

Cloud sprawl centralizes assets, simplifying security monitoring.

C.  

Cloud sprawl reduces the number of assets, easing security efforts.

D.  

Cloud sprawl has no impact on security monitoring.

Discussion 0
Questions 62

Which term describes any situation where the cloud consumer does

not manage any of the underlying hardware or virtual machines?

Options:

A.  

Serverless computing

B.  

Virtual machineless

C.  

Abstraction

D.  

Container

E.  

Provider managed

Discussion 0
Questions 63

Why is it important for Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) to document security controls?

Options:

A.  

It allows CSPs to reduce operational costs and increase security efficiency

B.  

It ensures transparency and accountability for security measures

C.  

It reduces the frequency for regular independent audits

D.  

It helps CSPs enhance their marketing strategies and relationship with policymakers

Discussion 0
Questions 64

ENISA: A reason for risk concerns of a cloud provider being acquired is:

Options:

A.  

Arbitrary contract termination by acquiring company

B.  

Resource isolation may fail

C.  

Provider may change physical location

D.  

Mass layoffs may occur

E.  

Non-binding agreements put at risk

Discussion 0
Questions 65

Which strategy is critical for securing containers at the image creation stage?

Options:

A.  

Implementing network segmentation

B.  

Using secure, approved base images

C.  

Regularly updating repository software

D.  

Enforcing runtime protection measures

Discussion 0
Questions 66

How does running applications on distinct virtual networks and only connecting networks as needed help?

Options:

A.  

It reduces hardware costs

B.  

It provides dynamic and granular policies with less management overhead

C.  

It locks down access and provides stronger data security

D.  

It reduces the blast radius of a compromised system

E.  

It enables you to configure applications around business groups

Discussion 0
Questions 67

What does Zero Trust Network Access (ZTNA) primarily use to control access to applications?

Options:

A.  

Geolocation data exclusively

B.  

Username and password

C.  

IP address and port number

D.  

Identity, device, and contextual factors

Discussion 0
Questions 68

Which of the following best explains how Multifactor Authentication (MFA) helps prevent identity-based attacks?

Options:

A.  

MFA relies on physical tokens and biometrics to secure accounts.

B.  

MFA requires multiple forms of validation that would have to compromise.

C.  

MFA requires and uses more complex passwords to secure accounts.

D.  

MFA eliminates the need for passwords through single sign-on.

Discussion 0
Questions 69

How can virtual machine communications bypass network security controls?

Options:

A.  

VM communications may use a virtual network on the same hardware host

B.  

The guest OS can invoke stealth mode

C.  

Hypervisors depend upon multiple network interfaces

D.  

VM images can contain rootkits programmed to bypass firewalls

E.  

Most network security systems do not recognize encrypted VM traffic

Discussion 0
Questions 70

Which of the following is used for governing and configuring cloud resources and is a top priority in cloud security programs?

Options:

A.  

Management Console

B.  

Management plane

C.  

Orchestrators

D.  

Abstraction layer

Discussion 0
Questions 71

Which of the following is a primary benefit of using Infrastructure as Code (IaC) in a security context?

Options:

A.  

Manual patch management

B.  

Ad hoc security policies

C.  

Static resource allocation

D.  

Automated compliance checks

Discussion 0
Questions 72

What type of logs record interactions with specific services in a system?

Options:

A.  

(Service and Application Logs

B.  

Security Logs

C.  

Network Logs

D.  

Debug Logs

Discussion 0
Questions 73

All cloud services utilize virtualization technologies.

Options:

A.  

False

B.  

True

Discussion 0
Questions 74

Which of the following items is NOT an example of Security as a Service (SecaaS)?

Options:

A.  

Spam filtering

B.  

Authentication

C.  

Provisioning

D.  

Web filtering

E.  

Intrusion detection

Discussion 0
Questions 75

How should an SDLC be modified to address application security in a Cloud Computing environment?

Options:

A.  

Integrated development environments

B.  

Updated threat and trust models

C.  

No modification is needed

D.  

Just-in-time compilers

E.  

Both B and C

Discussion 0
Questions 76

Which type of cloud workload would be most appropriate for running isolated applications with minimum resource overhead?

Options:

A.  

Containers

B.  

Function as a Service (FaaS)

C.  

AI Workloads

D.  

Virtual Machines (VMs)

Discussion 0
Questions 77

How is encryption managed on multi-tenant storage?

Options:

A.  

Single key for all data owners

B.  

One key per data owner

C.  

Multiple keys per data owner

D.  

The answer could be A, B, or C depending on the provider

E.  

C for data subject to the EU Data Protection Directive; B for all others

Discussion 0
Questions 78

In preparing for cloud incident response, why is updating forensics tools for virtual machines (VMs) and containers critical?

Options:

A.  

To comply with cloud service level agreements (SLAs)

B.  

To streamline communication with cloud service providers and customers

C.  

To ensure compatibility with cloud environments for effective incident analysis

D.  

To increase the speed of incident response team deployments

Discussion 0
Questions 79

CCM: The Cloud Service Delivery Model Applicability column in the CCM indicates the applicability of the cloud security control to which of the following elements?

Options:

A.  

Mappings to well-known standards and frameworks

B.  

Service Provider or Tenant/Consumer

C.  

Physical, Network, Compute, Storage, Application or Data

D.  

SaaS, PaaS or IaaS

Discussion 0
Questions 80

Which of the following best describes the purpose of cloud security control objectives?

Options:

A.  

They are standards that cannot be modified to suit the unique needs of different cloud environments.

B.  

They focus on the technical aspects of cloud security with less consideration on the broader organizational goals.

C.  

They dictate specific implementation methods for securing cloud environments, tailored to individual cloud providers.

D.  

They provide outcome-focused guidelines for desired controls, ensuring measurable and adaptable security measures

Discussion 0
Questions 81

Which of the following statements is true in regards to Data Loss Prevention (DLP)?

Options:

A.  

DLP can provide options for quickly deleting all of the data stored in a cloud environment.

B.  

DLP can classify all data in a storage repository.

C.  

DLP never provides options for how data found in violation of a policy can be handled.

D.  

DLP can provide options for where data is stored.

E.  

DLP can provide options for how data found in violation of a policy can be handled.

Discussion 0
Questions 82

What's the best way for organizations to establish a foundation for safeguarding data, upholding privacy, and meeting regulatory requirements in cloud applications?

Options:

A.  

By implementing end-to-end encryption and multi-factor authentication

B.  

By conducting regular security audits and updates

C.  

By deploying intrusion detection systems and monitoring

D.  

By integrating security at the architectural and design level

Discussion 0
Questions 83

How does virtualized storage help avoid data loss if a drive fails?

Options:

A.  

Multiple copies in different locations

B.  

Drives are backed up, swapped, and archived constantly

C.  

Full back ups weekly

D.  

Data loss is unavoidable with drive failures

E.  

Incremental backups daily

Discussion 0
Questions 84

Which practice minimizes human error in long-running cloud workloads’ security management?

Options:

A.  

Increasing manual security audits frequency

B.  

Converting all workloads to ephemeral

C.  

Restricting access to workload configurations

D.  

Implementing automated security and compliance checks

Discussion 0
Questions 85

How does DevSecOps fundamentally differ from traditional DevOps in the development process?

Options:

A.  

DevSecOps removes the need for a separate security team.

B.  

DevSecOps focuses primarily on automating development without security.

C.  

DevSecOps reduces the development time by skipping security checks.

D.  

DevSecOps integrates security into every stage of the DevOps process.

Discussion 0
Questions 86

Which aspect of assessing cloud providers poses the most significant challenge?

Options:

A.  

Inconsistent policy standards and the proliferation of provider requirements.

B.  

Limited visibility into internal operations and technology.

C.  

Excessive details shared by the cloud provider and consequent information overload.

D.  

Poor provider documentation and over-reliance on pooled audit.

Discussion 0
Questions 87

Which cloud security model type provides generalized templates for helping implement cloud security?

Options:

A.  

Conceptual models or frameworks

B.  

Design patterns

C.  

Controls models or frameworks

D.  

Reference architectures

E.  

Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM)

Discussion 0
Questions 88

Why is early integration of pre-deployment testing crucial in a cybersecurity project?

Options:

A.  

It identifies issues before full deployment, saving time and resources.

B.  

It increases the overall testing time and costs.

C.  

It allows skipping final verification tests.

D.  

It eliminates the need for continuous integration.

Discussion 0
Questions 89

What is resource pooling?

Options:

A.  

The provider’s computing resources are pooled to serve multiple consumers.

B.  

Internet-based CPUs are pooled to enable multi-threading.

C.  

The dedicated computing resources of each client are pooled together in a colocation facility.

D.  

Placing Internet (“cloud”) data centers near multiple sources of energy, such as hydroelectric dams.

E.  

None of the above.

Discussion 0
Questions 90

Which of the following is a perceived advantage or disadvantage of managing enterprise risk for cloud deployments?

Options:

A.  

More physical control over assets and processes.

B.  

Greater reliance on contracts, audits, and assessments due to lack of visibility or management.

C.  

Decreased requirement for proactive management of relationship and adherence to contracts.

D.  

Increased need, but reduction in costs, for managing risks accepted by the cloud provider.

E.  

None of the above.

Discussion 0
Questions 91

Which of the following best describes a primary focus of cloud governance with an emphasis on security?

Options:

A.  

Enhancing user experience with intuitive interfaces.

B.  

Maximizing cost savings through resource optimization.

C.  

Increasing scalability and flexibility of cloud solutions.

D.  

Ensuring compliance with regulatory requirements and internal policies.

Discussion 0
Questions 92

Which concept focuses on maintaining the same configuration for all infrastructure components, ensuring they do not change once deployed?

Options:

A.  

Component credentials

B.  

Immutable infrastructure

C.  

Infrastructure as code

D.  

Application integration

Discussion 0
Questions 93

Which plane in a network architecture is responsible for controlling all administrative actions?

Options:

A.  

Forwarding plane

B.  

Management plane

C.  

Data plane

D.  

Application plane

Discussion 0
Questions 94

Which best practice is recommended when securing object repositories in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.  

Using access controls as the sole security measure

B.  

Encrypting all objects in the repository

C.  

Encrypting the access paths only

D.  

Encrypting only sensitive objects

Discussion 0
Questions 95

What is a PRIMARY cloud customer responsibility when managing SaaS applications in terms of security and compliance?

Options:

A.  

Generating logs within the SaaS applications

B.  

Managing the financial costs of SaaS subscriptions

C.  

Providing training sessions for staff on using SaaS tools

D.  

Evaluating the security measures and compliance requirements

Discussion 0
Questions 96

Which of the following is the MOST common cause of cloud-native security breaches?

Options:

A.  

Inability to monitor cloud infrastructure for threats

B.  

IAM failures

C.  

Lack of encryption for data at rest

D.  

Vulnerabilities in cloud provider's physical infrastructure

Discussion 0
Questions 97

The Software Defined Perimeter (SDP) includes which components?

Options:

A.  

Client, Controller, and Gateway

B.  

Client, Controller, Firewall, and Gateway

C.  

Client, Firewall, and Gateway

D.  

Controller, Firewall, and Gateway

E.  

Client, Controller, and Firewall

Discussion 0
Questions 98

Which cloud storage technology is basically a virtual hard drive for instanced or VMs?

Options:

A.  

Volume storage

B.  

Platform

C.  

Database

D.  

Application

E.  

Object storage

Discussion 0
Questions 99

What is a primary benefit of implementing micro-segmentation within a Zero Trust Architecture?

Options:

A.  

Simplifies network design and maintenance

B.  

Enhances security by isolating workloads from each other

C.  

Increases the overall performance of network traffic

D.  

Reduces the need for encryption across the network

Discussion 0