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Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (CCSKv5.0) Question and Answers

Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (CCSKv5.0)

Last Update Sep 21, 2025
Total Questions : 305

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Questions 1

Which of the following statements is true in regards to Data Loss Prevention (DLP)?

Options:

A.  

DLP can provide options for quickly deleting all of the data stored in a cloud environment.

B.  

DLP can classify all data in a storage repository.

C.  

DLP never provides options for how data found in violation of a policy can be handled.

D.  

DLP can provide options for where data is stored.

E.  

DLP can provide options for how data found in violation of a policy can be handled.

Discussion 0
Questions 2

What is a cloud workload in terms of infrastructure and platform deployment?

Options:

A.  

A network of servers connected to execute processes

B.  

A collection of physical hardware used to run applications

C.  

A single software application hosted on the cloud

D.  

Application software deployable on infrastructure/platform

Discussion 0
Questions 3

How does serverless computing impact infrastructure management responsibility?

Options:

A.  

Requires extensive on-premises infrastructure

B.  

Shifts more responsibility to cloud service providers

C.  

Increases workload for developers

D.  

Eliminates need for cloud service providers

Discussion 0
Questions 4

What is the purpose of access policies in the context of security?

Options:

A.  

Access policies encrypt sensitive data to protect it from disclosure and unrestricted access.

B.  

Access policies define the permitted actions that can be performed on resources.

C.  

Access policies determine where data can be stored.

D.  

Access policies scan systems to detect and remove malware infections.

Discussion 0
Questions 5

What is the primary purpose of Cloud Infrastructure Entitlement Management (CIEM) in cloud environments?

Options:

A.  

Monitoring network traffic

B.  

Deploying cloud services

C.  

Governing access to cloud resources

D.  

Managing software licensing

Discussion 0
Questions 6

Which of the following BEST describes a benefit of Infrastructure as Code (IaC) in cybersecurity contexts?

Options:

A.  

Reduces the need for security auditing

B.  

Enables consistent security configurations through automation

C.  

Increases manual control over security settings

D.  

Increases scalability of cloud resources

Discussion 0
Questions 7

When establishing a cloud incident response program, what access do responders need to effectively analyze incidents?

Options:

A.  

Access limited to log events for incident analysis

B.  

Unlimited write access for all responders at all times

C.  

Full-read access without any approval process

D.  

Persistent read access and controlled write access for critical situations

Discussion 0
Questions 8

Which of the following best describes the responsibility for security in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.  

Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) are solely responsible for security in the cloud environment. The Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) are accountable.

B.  

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) and Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) share security responsibilities. The exact allocation of responsibilities depends on the technology and context.

C.  

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) are solely responsible for security in the cloud environment. Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) have an advisory role.

D.  

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) and Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) share security responsibilities. The allocation of responsibilities is constant.

Discussion 0
Questions 9

Which Identity and Access Management (IAM) principle focuses on implementing multiple security layers to dilute access power, thereby averting a misuse or compromise?

Options:

A.  

Continuous Monitoring

B.  

Federation

C.  

Segregation of Duties

D.  

Principle of Least Privilege

Discussion 0
Questions 10

A company plans to shift its data processing tasks to the cloud. Which type of cloud workload best describes the use of software emulations of physical computers?

Options:

A.  

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

B.  

Serverless Functions (FaaS)

C.  

Containers

D.  

Virtual Machines (VMs)

Discussion 0
Questions 11

Big data includes high volume, high variety, and high velocity.

Options:

A.  

False

B.  

True

Discussion 0
Questions 12

What is a key advantage of using Policy-Based Access Control (PBAC) for cloud-based access management?

Options:

A.  

PBAC eliminates the need for defining and managing user roles and permissions.

B.  

PBAC is easier to implement and manage compared to Role-Based Access Control (RBAC).

C.  

PBAC allows enforcement of granular, context-aware security policies using multiple attributes.

D.  

PBAC ensures that access policies are consistent across all cloud providers and platforms.

Discussion 0
Questions 13

Cloud services exhibit five essential characteristics that demonstrate their relation to, and differences from, traditional computing approaches. Which one of the five characteristics is described as: a consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities such as server time and network storage as needed.

Options:

A.  

Rapid elasticity

B.  

Resource pooling

C.  

Broad network access

D.  

Measured service

E.  

On-demand self-service

Discussion 0
Questions 14

Which of the following best explains how Multifactor Authentication (MFA) helps prevent identity-based attacks?

Options:

A.  

MFA relies on physical tokens and biometrics to secure accounts.

B.  

MFA requires multiple forms of validation that would have to compromise.

C.  

MFA requires and uses more complex passwords to secure accounts.

D.  

MFA eliminates the need for passwords through single sign-on.

Discussion 0
Questions 15

In a cloud environment spanning multiple jurisdictions, what is the most important factor to consider for compliance?

Options:

A.  

Relying on the cloud service provider's compliance certifications for all jurisdictions

B.  

Focusing on the compliance requirements defined by the laws, regulations, and standards enforced in the jurisdiction where the company is based

C.  

Relying only on established industry standards since they adequately address all compliance needs

D.  

Understanding the legal and regulatory requirements of each jurisdiction where data originates, is stored, or processed

Discussion 0
Questions 16

Which data security control is the LEAST likely to be assigned to an IaaS provider?

Options:

A.  

Application logic

B.  

Access controls

C.  

Encryption solutions

D.  

Physical destruction

E.  

Asset management and tracking

Discussion 0
Questions 17

ENISA: Which is a potential security benefit of cloud computing?

Options:

A.  

More efficient and timely system updates

B.  

ISO 27001 certification

C.  

Provider can obfuscate system O/S and versions

D.  

Greater compatibility with customer IT infrastructure

E.  

Lock-In

Discussion 0
Questions 18

Which of the following best describes compliance in the context of cybersecurity?

Options:

A.  

Defining and maintaining the governance plan

B.  

Adherence to internal policies, laws, regulations, standards, and best practices

C.  

Implementing automation technologies to monitor the control implemented

D.  

Conducting regular penetration testing as stated in applicable laws and regulations

Discussion 0
Questions 19

If the management plane has been breached, you should confirm the templates/configurations for your infrastructure or applications have not also been compromised.

Options:

A.  

False

B.  

True

Discussion 0
Questions 20

What is the primary function of a Load Balancer Service in a Software Defined Network (SDN) environment?

Options:

A.  

To create isolated virtual networks

B.  

To monitor network performance and activity

C.  

To distribute incoming network traffic across multiple destinations

D.  

To encrypt data for secure transmission

Discussion 0
Questions 21

Which aspect is most important for effective cloud governance?

Options:

A.  

Formalizing cloud security policies

B.  

Implementing best-practice cloud security control objectives

C.  

Negotiating SLAs with cloud providers

D.  

Establishing a governance hierarchy

Discussion 0
Questions 22

In the Software-as-a-service relationship, who is responsible for the majority of the security?

Options:

A.  

Application Consumer

B.  

Database Manager

C.  

Application Developer

D.  

Cloud Provider

E.  

Web Application CISO

Discussion 0
Questions 23

Which aspect is crucial for crafting and enforcing CSP (Cloud Service Provider) policies?

Options:

A.  

Integration with network infrastructure

B.  

Adherence to software development practices

C.  

Optimization for cost reduction

D.  

Alignment with security objectives and regulatory requirements

Discussion 0
Questions 24

What key characteristic differentiates cloud networks from traditional networks?

Options:

A.  

Cloud networks are software-defined networks (SDNs)

B.  

Cloud networks rely on dedicated hardware appliances

C.  

Cloud networks are less scalable than traditional networks

D.  

Cloud networks have the same architecture as traditional networks

Discussion 0
Questions 25

What is the primary goal of implementing DevOps in a software development lifecycle?

Options:

A.  

To create a separation between development and operations

B.  

To eliminate the need for IT operations by automating all tasks

C.  

To enhance collaboration between development and IT operations for efficient delivery

D.  

To reduce the development team size by merging roles

Discussion 0
Questions 26

Use elastic servers when possible and move workloads to new instances.

Options:

A.  

False

B.  

True

Discussion 0
Questions 27

What does orchestration automate within a cloud environment?

Options:

A.  

Monitoring application performance

B.  

Manual configuration of security policies

C.  

Installation of operating systems

D.  

Provisioning of VMs, networking and other resources

Discussion 0
Questions 28

Which of the following is a primary benefit of using Infrastructure as Code (IaC) in a security context?

Options:

A.  

Manual patch management

B.  

Ad hoc security policies

C.  

Static resource allocation

D.  

Automated compliance checks

Discussion 0
Questions 29

Which of the following is NOT normally a method for detecting and preventing data migration into the cloud?

Options:

A.  

Intrusion Prevention System

B.  

URL filters

C.  

Data Loss Prevention

D.  

Cloud Access and Security Brokers (CASB)

E.  

Database Activity Monitoring

Discussion 0
Questions 30

Which cloud service model requires the customer to manage the operating system and applications?

Options:

A.  

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

B.  

Network as a Service (NaaS)

C.  

Infrastructure as a Service (laaS)

D.  

Software as a Service (SaaS)

Discussion 0
Questions 31

What can be implemented to help with account granularity and limit

blast radius with laaS an PaaS?

Options:

A.  

Configuring secondary authentication

B.  

Establishing multiple accounts

C.  

Maintaining tight control of the primary account holder credentials

D.  

Implementing least privilege accounts

E.  

Configuring role-based authentication

Discussion 0
Questions 32

To understand their compliance alignments and gaps with a cloud provider, what must cloud customers rely on?

Options:

A.  

Provider documentation

B.  

Provider run audits and reports

C.  

Third-party attestations

D.  

Provider and consumer contracts

E.  

EDiscovery tools

Discussion 0
Questions 33

CCM: In the CCM tool, “Encryption and Key Management” is an example of which of the following?

Options:

A.  

Risk Impact

B.  

Domain

C.  

Control Specification

Discussion 0
Questions 34

Which aspect of a Cloud Service Provider's (CSPs) infrastructure security involves protecting the interfaces used to manage configurations and resources?

Options:

A.  

Management plane

B.  

Virtualization layers

C.  

Physical components

D.  

PaaS/SaaS services

Discussion 0
Questions 35

In which type of environment is it impractical to allow the customer to conduct their own audit, making it important that the data center operators are required to provide auditing for the customers?

Options:

A.  

Multi-application, single tenant environments

B.  

Long distance relationships

C.  

Multi-tenant environments

D.  

Distributed computing arrangements

E.  

Single tenant environments

Discussion 0
Questions 36

What is the primary purpose of implementing a systematic data/asset classification and catalog system in cloud environments?

Options:

A.  

To automate the data encryption process across all cloud services

B.  

To reduce the overall cost of cloud storage solutions

C.  

To apply appropriate security controls based on asset sensitivity and importance

D.  

To increase the speed of data retrieval within the cloud environment

Discussion 0
Questions 37

For third-party audits or attestations, what is critical for providers to publish and customers to evaluate?

Options:

A.  

Scope of the assessment and the exact included features and services for the assessment

B.  

Provider infrastructure information including maintenance windows and contracts

C.  

Network or architecture diagrams including all end point security devices in use

D.  

Service-level agreements between all parties

E.  

Full API access to all required services

Discussion 0
Questions 38

Vulnerability assessments cannot be easily integrated into CI/CD pipelines because of provider restrictions.

Options:

A.  

False

B.  

True

Discussion 0
Questions 39

In the context of cloud workload security, which feature directly contributes to enhanced performance and resource utilization without incurring excess costs?

Options:

A.  

Fixed resource allocations

B.  

Unlimited data storage capacity

C.  

Increased on-premise hardware

D.  

Elasticity of cloud resources

Discussion 0
Questions 40

What is a key benefit of using customer-managed encryption keys with cloud key management service (KMS)?

Options:

A.  

Customers can bypass the need for encryption

B.  

Customers retain control over their encryption keys

C.  

Customers can share their encryption keys more easily

D.  

It reduces the computational load on the cloud service provider

Discussion 0
Questions 41

Which of the following best describes a risk associated with insecure interfaces and APIs?

Options:

A.  

Ensuring secure data encryption at rest

B.  

Man-in-the-middle attacks

C.  

Increase resource consumption on servers

D.  

Data exposure to unauthorized users

Discussion 0
Questions 42

Which of the following is one of the five essential characteristics of cloud computing as defined by NIST?

Options:

A.  

Multi-tenancy

B.  

Nation-state boundaries

C.  

Measured service

D.  

Unlimited bandwidth

E.  

Hybrid clouds

Discussion 0
Questions 43

In the context of Software-Defined Networking (SDN), what does decoupling the network control plane from the data plane primarily achieve?

Options:

A.  

Enables programmatic configuration

B.  

Decreases network security

C.  

Increases hardware dependency

D.  

Increases network complexity

Discussion 0
Questions 44

CCM: In the CCM tool, ais a measure that modifies risk and includes any process, policy, device, practice or any other actions which modify risk.

Options:

A.  

Risk Impact

B.  

Domain

C.  

Control Specification

Discussion 0
Questions 45

What Identity and Access Management (IAM) process decides to permit or deny a subject access to system objects like networks, data, or applications?

Options:

A.  

Authorization

B.  

Federation

C.  

Authentication

D.  

Provisioning

Discussion 0
Questions 46

What's the best way for organizations to establish a foundation for safeguarding data, upholding privacy, and meeting regulatory requirements in cloud applications?

Options:

A.  

By implementing end-to-end encryption and multi-factor authentication

B.  

By conducting regular security audits and updates

C.  

By deploying intrusion detection systems and monitoring

D.  

By integrating security at the architectural and design level

Discussion 0
Questions 47

Which of the following best describes how cloud computing manages shared resources?

Options:

A.  

Through virtualization, with administrators allocating resources based on SLAs

B.  

Through abstraction and automation to distribute resources to customers

C.  

By allocating physical systems to a single customer at a time

D.  

Through manual configuration of resources for each user need

Discussion 0
Questions 48

Which of the following is NOT a cloud computing characteristic that impacts incidence response?

Options:

A.  

The on demand self-service nature of cloud computing environments.

B.  

Privacy concerns for co-tenants regarding the collection and analysis of telemetry and artifacts associated with an incident.

C.  

The possibility of data crossing geographic or jurisdictional boundaries.

D.  

Object-based storage in a private cloud.

E.  

The resource pooling practiced by cloud services, in addition to the rapid elasticity offered by cloud infrastructures.

Discussion 0
Questions 49

Without virtualization, there is no cloud.

Options:

A.  

False

B.  

True

Discussion 0
Questions 50

Which technique is most effective for preserving digital evidence in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.  

Analyzing management plane logs

B.  

Regularly backing up data

C.  

Isolating the compromised system

D.  

Taking snapshots of virtual machines

Discussion 0
Questions 51

Which aspect of assessing cloud providers poses the most significant challenge?

Options:

A.  

Inconsistent policy standards and the proliferation of provider requirements.

B.  

Limited visibility into internal operations and technology.

C.  

Excessive details shared by the cloud provider and consequent information overload.

D.  

Poor provider documentation and over-reliance on pooled audit.

Discussion 0
Questions 52

In the cloud provider and consumer relationship, which entity

manages the virtual or abstracted infrastructure?

Options:

A.  

Only the cloud consumer

B.  

Only the cloud provider

C.  

Both the cloud provider and consumer

D.  

It is determined in the agreement between the entities

E.  

It is outsourced as per the entity agreement

Discussion 0
Questions 53

How can virtual machine communications bypass network security controls?

Options:

A.  

VM communications may use a virtual network on the same hardware host

B.  

The guest OS can invoke stealth mode

C.  

Hypervisors depend upon multiple network interfaces

D.  

VM images can contain rootkits programmed to bypass firewalls

E.  

Most network security systems do not recognize encrypted VM traffic

Discussion 0
Questions 54

What should every cloud customer set up with its cloud service provider (CSP) that can be utilized in the event of an incident?

Options:

A.  

A data destruction plan

B.  

A communication plan

C.  

A back-up website

D.  

A spill remediation kit

E.  

A rainy day fund

Discussion 0
Questions 55

What is known as the interface used to connect with the metastructure and configure the cloud environment?

Options:

A.  

Administrative access

B.  

Management plane

C.  

Identity and Access Management

D.  

Single sign-on

E.  

Cloud dashboard

Discussion 0
Questions 56

Why is early integration of pre-deployment testing crucial in a cybersecurity project?

Options:

A.  

It identifies issues before full deployment, saving time and resources.

B.  

It increases the overall testing time and costs.

C.  

It allows skipping final verification tests.

D.  

It eliminates the need for continuous integration.

Discussion 0
Questions 57

What type of logs record interactions with specific services in a system?

Options:

A.  

(Service and Application Logs

B.  

Security Logs

C.  

Network Logs

D.  

Debug Logs

Discussion 0
Questions 58

What is true of companies considering a cloud computing business relationship?

Options:

A.  

The laws protecting customer data are based on the cloud provider and customer location only.

B.  

The confidentiality agreements between companies using cloud computing services is limited legally to the company, not the provider.

C.  

The companies using the cloud providers are the custodians of the data entrusted to them.

D.  

The cloud computing companies are absolved of all data security and associated risks through contracts and data laws.

E.  

The cloud computing companies own all customer data.

Discussion 0
Questions 59

What process involves an independent examination of records, operations, processes, and controls within an organization to ensure compliance with cybersecurity policies, standards, and regulations?

Options:

A.  

Risk assessment

B.  

Audit

C.  

Penetration testing

D.  

Incident response

Discussion 0
Questions 60

Which layer is the most important for securing because it is considered to be the foundation for secure cloud operations?

Options:

A.  

Infrastructure

B.  

Datastructure

C.  

Infostructure

D.  

Applistructure

E.  

Metastructure

Discussion 0
Questions 61

Which of the following is used for governing and configuring cloud resources and is a top priority in cloud security programs?

Options:

A.  

Management Console

B.  

Management plane

C.  

Orchestrators

D.  

Abstraction layer

Discussion 0
Questions 62

Which statement best describes the Data Security Lifecycle?

Options:

A.  

The Data Security Lifecycle has six stages, is strictly linear, and never varies.

B.  

The Data Security Lifecycle has six stages, can be non-linear, and varies in that some data may never pass through all stages.

C.  

The Data Security Lifecycle has five stages, is circular, and varies in that some data may never pass through all stages.

D.  

The Data Security Lifecycle has six stages, can be non-linear, and is distinct in that data must always pass through all phases.

E.  

The Data Security Lifecycle has five stages, can be non-linear, and is distinct in that data must always pass through all phases.

Discussion 0
Questions 63

Which type of controls should be implemented when required controls for a cybersecurity framework cannot be met?

Options:

A.  

Detective controls

B.  

Preventive controls

C.  

Compensating controls

D.  

Administrative controls

Discussion 0
Questions 64

What is the primary objective of posture management in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.  

Automating incident response procedures

B.  

Optimizing cloud cost efficiency

C.  

Continuous monitoring of configurations

D.  

Managing user access permissions

Discussion 0
Questions 65

Which of the following enhances Platform as a Service (PaaS) security by regulating traffic into PaaS components?

Options:

A.  

Intrusion Detection Systems

B.  

Hardware Security Modules

C.  

Network Access Control Lists

D.  

API Gateways

Discussion 0
Questions 66

What are the most important practices for reducing vulnerabilities in virtual machines (VMs) in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.  

Disabling unnecessary VM services and using containers

B.  

Encryption for data at rest and software bill of materials

C.  

Using secure base images, patch and configuration management

D.  

Network isolation and monitoring

Discussion 0
Questions 67

Which tool is most effective for ensuring compliance and identifying misconfigurations in cloud management planes?

Options:

A.  

Data Security Posture Management (DSPM)

B.  

SaaS Security Posture Management (SSPM)

C.  

Cloud Detection and Response (CDR)

D.  

Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM)

Discussion 0
Questions 68

Which of the following best describes the multi-tenant nature of cloud computing?

Options:

A.  

Cloud customers operate independently without sharing resources

B.  

Cloud customers share a common pool of resources but are segregated and isolated from each other

C.  

Multiple cloud customers are allocated a set of dedicated resources via a common web interface

D.  

Cloud customers share resources without any segregation or isolation

Discussion 0
Questions 69

Which type of AI workload typically requires large data sets and substantial computing resources?

Options:

A.  

Evaluation

B.  

Data Preparation

C.  

Training

D.  

Inference

Discussion 0
Questions 70

What is true of a workload?

Options:

A.  

It is a unit of processing that consumes memory

B.  

It does not require a hardware stack

C.  

It is always a virtual machine

D.  

It is configured for specific, established tasks

E.  

It must be containerized

Discussion 0
Questions 71

CCM: A hypothetical company called: “Health4Sure” is located in the United States and provides cloud based services for tracking patient health. The company is compliant with HIPAA/HITECH Act among other industry standards. Health4Sure decides to assess the overall security of their cloud service against the CCM toolkit so that they will be able to present this document to potential clients.

Which of the following approach would be most suitable to assess the overall security posture of Health4Sure’s cloud service?

Options:

A.  

The CCM columns are mapped to HIPAA/HITECH Act and therefore Health4Sure could verify the CCM controls already covered ad a result of their compliance with HIPPA/HITECH Act. They could then assess the remaining controls. This approach will save time.

B.  

The CCM domain controls are mapped to HIPAA/HITECH Act and therefore Health4Sure could verify the CCM controls already covered as a result of their compliance with HIPPA/HITECH Act. They could then assess the remaining controls thoroughly. This approach saves time while being able to assess the company’s overall security posture in an efficient manner.

C.  

The CCM domains are not mapped to HIPAA/HITECH Act. Therefore Health4Sure should assess the security posture of their cloud service against each and every control in the CCM. This approach will allow a thorough assessment of the security posture.

Discussion 0
Questions 72

What does Zero Trust Network Access (ZTNA) primarily use to control access to applications?

Options:

A.  

Geolocation data exclusively

B.  

Username and password

C.  

IP address and port number

D.  

Identity, device, and contextual factors

Discussion 0
Questions 73

Which of the following statements best reflects the responsibility of organizations regarding cloud security and data ownership?

Options:

A.  

Cloud providers are responsible for everything under the 'limited O responsibilities clauses.' The customer and the provider have joint accountability.

B.  

Cloud providers assume full responsibility for the security obligations, and cloud customers are accountable for overall compliance.

C.  

Data ownership rights are solely determined by the cloud provider, leaving organizations with no control or accountability over their data.

D.  

Organizations are accountable for the security and compliance of their data and systems, even though they may lack full visibility into their cloud provider's infrastructure.

Discussion 0
Questions 74

Which areas should be initially prioritized for hybrid cloud security?

Options:

A.  

Cloud storage management and governance

B.  

Data center infrastructure and architecture

C.  

IAM and networking

D.  

Application development and deployment

Discussion 0
Questions 75

What is the primary advantage of implementing Continuous Integration and Continuous Delivery/Deployment (CI/CD) pipelines in the context of cybersecurity?

Options:

A.  

Replacing the need for security teams.

B.  

Slowing down the development process for testing.

C.  

Automating security checks and deployments.

D.  

Enhancing code quality.

Discussion 0
Questions 76

APIs and web services require extensive hardening and must assume attacks from authenticated and unauthenticated adversaries.

Options:

A.  

False

B.  

True

Discussion 0
Questions 77

Cloud applications can use virtual networks and other structures, for hyper-segregated environments.

Options:

A.  

False

B.  

True

Discussion 0
Questions 78

Which type of security tool is essential for enforcing controls in a cloud environment to protect endpoints?

Options:

A.  

Unified Threat Management (UTM).

B.  

Web Application Firewall (WAF).

C.  

Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR).

D.  

Intrusion Detection System (IDS).

Discussion 0
Questions 79

Network logs from cloud providers are typically flow records, not full packet captures.

Options:

A.  

False

B.  

True

Discussion 0
Questions 80

Which of the following cloud essential characteristics refers to the capability of the service to scale resources up or down quickly and efficiently based on demand?

Options:

A.  

On-Demand Self-Service

B.  

Broad Network Access

C.  

Resource Pooling

D.  

Rapid Elasticity

Discussion 0
Questions 81

In cloud environments, why are Management Plane Logs indispensable for security monitoring?

Options:

A.  

They provide real-time threat detection and response

B.  

They detail the network traffic between cloud services

C.  

They track cloud administrative activities

D.  

They report on user activities within applications

Discussion 0
Questions 82

Which best practice is recommended when securing object repositories in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.  

Using access controls as the sole security measure

B.  

Encrypting all objects in the repository

C.  

Encrypting the access paths only

D.  

Encrypting only sensitive objects

Discussion 0
Questions 83

Which cloud-based service model enables companies to provide client-based access for partners to databases or applications?

Options:

A.  

Platform-as-a-service (PaaS)

B.  

Desktop-as-a-service (DaaS)

C.  

Infrastructure-as-a-service (IaaS)

D.  

Identity-as-a-service (IDaaS)

E.  

Software-as-a-service (SaaS)

Discussion 0
Questions 84

When configured properly, logs can track every code, infrastructure, and configuration change and connect it back to the submitter and approver, including the test results.

Options:

A.  

False

B.  

True

Discussion 0
Questions 85

Which governance domain deals with evaluating how cloud computing affects compliance with internal

security policies and various legal requirements, such as regulatory and legislative?

Options:

A.  

Legal Issues: Contracts and Electronic Discovery

B.  

Infrastructure Security

C.  

Compliance and Audit Management

D.  

Information Governance

E.  

Governance and Enterprise Risk Management

Discussion 0
Questions 86

Which cloud storage technology is basically a virtual hard drive for instanced or VMs?

Options:

A.  

Volume storage

B.  

Platform

C.  

Database

D.  

Application

E.  

Object storage

Discussion 0
Questions 87

REST APIs are the standard for web-based services because they run over HTTPS and work well across diverse environments.

Options:

A.  

False

B.  

True

Discussion 0
Questions 88

What method can be utilized along with data fragmentation to enhance security?

Options:

A.  

Encryption

B.  

Organization

C.  

Knowledge management

D.  

IDS

E.  

Insulation

Discussion 0
Questions 89

Which of the following cloud computing models primarily provides storage and computing resources to the users?

Options:

A.  

Function as a Service (FaaS)

B.  

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

C.  

Software as a Service (SaaS)

D.  

Infrastructure as a Service (laa

Discussion 0
Questions 90

Which of the following best describes the role of program frameworks in defining security components and technical controls?

Options:

A.  

Program frameworks evaluate the performance of individual security tools

B.  

Program frameworks focus on implementing specific security technologies

C.  

Program frameworks help organize overarching security policies and objectives

D.  

Program frameworks primarily define compliance requirements for regulations

Discussion 0
Questions 91

An important consideration when performing a remote vulnerability test of a cloud-based application is to

Options:

A.  

Obtain provider permission for test

B.  

Use techniques to evade cloud provider’s detection systems

C.  

Use application layer testing tools exclusively

D.  

Use network layer testing tools exclusively

E.  

Schedule vulnerability test at night

Discussion 0