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Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Question and Answers

Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM)

Last Update Nov 30, 2025
Total Questions : 1305

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Questions 1

In which of the Risk Management processes is the project charter used as an input?

Options:

A.  

Plan Risk Responses

B.  

Implement Risk Responses

C.  

Plan Risk Management

D.  

Perform Quantitative Risk Responses

Discussion 0
Questions 2

Which process is usually a rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for Plan Risk Responses?

Options:

A.  

Identify Risks

B.  

Plan Risk Management

C.  

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D.  

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Discussion 0
Questions 3

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The total float for the project is how many days?

Options:

A.  

3

B.  

5

C.  

7

D.  

9

Discussion 0
Questions 4

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The free float for Activity H is how many days?

Options:

A.  

4

B.  

5

C.  

10

D.  

11

Discussion 0
Questions 5

A disadvantage associated with virtual teams is that they:

Options:

A.  

Require communication technology that is not readily available.

B.  

Create difficulties when including people with disabilities.

C.  

Often cannot accommodate teams that work different hours or shifts.

D.  

Create the possibility for misunderstandings to arise.

Discussion 0
Questions 6

Power, urgency, and legitimacy are attributes of which stakeholder classification model?

Options:

A.  

Salience

B.  

Influence/impact

C.  

Power/interest

D.  

Power/influence

Discussion 0
Questions 7

Completion of the product scope is measured against the product:

Options:

A.  

prototypes

B.  

requirements

C.  

analyses

D.  

benchmarks

Discussion 0
Questions 8

In an adaptive or agile life cycle, how are the customer and sponsor involved in the project scope management activities?

Options:

A.  

Involvement is needed only during project initiation.

B.  

Minimal involvement of stakeholders is sufficient.

C.  

They should be continuously engaged.

D.  

They should be involved only during phase or deliverable reviews.

Discussion 0
Questions 9

The risk response strategy in which the project team acts to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a risk is known as:

Options:

A.  

exploit

B.  

avoid

C.  

mitigate

D.  

share

Discussion 0
Questions 10

Which components of the project management plan are inputs used when creating the stakeholder engagement plan?

Options:

A.  

Risk, resource, and communications management plans

B.  

Scope, quality, and resource management plans

C.  

Procurement, integration, and risk management plans

D.  

Communications, schedule, and cost management plans

Discussion 0
Questions 11

What communication methods would a project manager use for overall effective project communication?

Options:

A.  

Interactive communication, push communication, interpersonal communication

B.  

Interactive communication, push communication, pull communication

C.  

Push communication, pull communication, interpersonal communication

D.  

Pull communication, interactive communication, interpersonal communication

Discussion 0
Questions 12

What is the difference between quality metrics and quality measurements?

Options:

A.  

Quality metrics are product attributes and the measurement is the result of the Monitor and Control Project process

B.  

Quality metrics are the result of the Monitor and Control Project process and the measurements are product attributes

C.  

Quality metrics and measurements are the same concept

D.  

Quality metrics is the general objective and the measurements are the specific objectives

Discussion 0
Questions 13

Which stakeholder approves a project's result?

Options:

A.  

Customer

B.  

Sponsor

C.  

Seller

D.  

Functional manager

Discussion 0
Questions 14

Using parametric estimating, if an assigned resource is capable of producing 120 units per hour, how many hours are required to produce 12,000 units?

Options:

A.  

100

B.  

120

C.  

1,000

D.  

1,200

Discussion 0
Questions 15

Which set of competencies should a project manager have?

Options:

A.  

Leadership, strategic and business management, and technical project management

B.  

Expertise in the Industry, leadership and business management, and bilingual skills

C.  

Technical project management, expertise in every role, and PMP certification

D.  

Expertise in every detail on project activities. PMP certification, and leadership

Discussion 0
Questions 16

Skills necessary for project management such as motivating to provide encouragement; listening actively; persuading a team to perform an action; and summarizing, recapping, and identifying next steps are known as:

Options:

A.  

organizational skills

B.  

technical skills

C.  

communication skills

D.  

hard skills

Discussion 0
Questions 17

What scenario describes when a project must be created due to market demand?

Options:

A.  

A public company authorizes a project to create a new service for electric car sharing to reduce pollution.

B.  

A car company authorizes a project to build more fuel-efficient cars in response to gasoline shortages.

C.  

Researchers develop an autonomous car. with several new features to be commercialized in the future.

D.  

Stakeholders request that raw matenais be changed due to locally high costs.

Discussion 0
Questions 18

Which is the Define Scope technique used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project?

Options:

A.  

Build vs. buy

B.  

Expert judgment

C.  

Alternatives identification

D.  

Product analysis

Discussion 0
Questions 19

What conflict resolution technique involves delaying the issue or letting others resolve it?

Options:

A.  

Smooth/accommodate

B.  

Collaborate/problem solve

C.  

Withdraw/avoid

D.  

Force/direct

Discussion 0
Questions 20

What is one of the objectives of Project Risk Management?

Options:

A.  

Decrease the probability and impact of an event on project objectives.

B.  

Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a risk mitigation plan can be put in place.

C.  

Increase the probability and impact of positive events.

D.  

Removal of project risk.

Discussion 0
Questions 21

Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?

Options:

A.  

Requested changes

B.  

Approved change requests

C.  

Work performance information

D.  

Implemented defect repair

Discussion 0
Questions 22

When developing the project schedule, a project manager uses decomposition and rolling wave planning techniques in this process.

Options:

A.  

Develop Schedule

B.  

Define Activities

C.  

Define Scope

D.  

Collect Requirements

Discussion 0
Questions 23

Which of the seven basic quality tools is especially useful for gathering attributes data while performing inspections to identify defects?

Options:

A.  

Histograms

B.  

Scatter diagrams

C.  

Flowcharts

D.  

Checksheets

Discussion 0
Questions 24

The CPI is .92, and the EV is US$172,500.What is the actual cost of the project?

Options:

A.  

US$158,700

B.  

US$172,500

C.  

US$187,500

D.  

US$245,600

Discussion 0
Questions 25

Outputs of the Control Communications process include:

Options:

A.  

expert judgment and change requests

B.  

work performance information and change requests

C.  

project management plan updates and work performance information

D.  

issue logs and organizational process assets updates

Discussion 0
Questions 26

When does Monitor and Control Risks occur?

Options:

A.  

At project initiation

B.  

During work performance analysis

C.  

Throughout the life of the project

D.  

At project milestones

Discussion 0
Questions 27

Which document includes the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints?

Options:

A.  

Project charter

B.  

Project scope statement

C.  

Scope management plan

D.  

Project document updates

Discussion 0
Questions 28

An input of the Control Schedule process is the:

Options:

A.  

resource calendar.

B.  

activity list.

C.  

risk management plan.

D.  

organizational process assets.

Discussion 0
Questions 29

Which group creativity technique asks a selected group of experts to answer questionnaires and provide feedback regarding the responses from each round of requirements gathering?

Options:

A.  

The Delphi technique

B.  

Nominal group technique

C.  

Affinity diagram

D.  

Brainstorming

Discussion 0
Questions 30

Which type of analysis systemically gathers and analyzes qualitative and quantitative information to determine which interests should be taken into account throughout the project?

Options:

A.  

Product

B.  

Cost-benefit

C.  

Stakeholder

D.  

Research

Discussion 0
Questions 31

Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages?

Options:

A.  

Estimate Costs

B.  

Estimate Activity Resources

C.  

Control Costs

D.  

Determine Budget

Discussion 0
Questions 32

Which estimating technique uses the actual costs of previous similar projects as a basis for estimating the costs of the current project?

Options:

A.  

Analogous

B.  

Parametric

C.  

Bottom-up

D.  

Top-down

Discussion 0
Questions 33

Which defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?

Options:

A.  

Procurement management plan

B.  

Evaluation criteria

C.  

Work breakdown structure

D.  

Procurement statement of work

Discussion 0
Questions 34

Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities process?

Options:

A.  

Activity list

B.  

Project plan

C.  

Activity duration estimates

D.  

Project schedule

Discussion 0
Questions 35

Which organizational process assets update is performed during the Close Procurements process?

Options:

A.  

Procurement audit

B.  

Lessons learned

C.  

Performance reporting

D.  

Payment requests

Discussion 0
Questions 36

Taking out insurance in relation to risk management is called what?

Options:

A.  

Transference

B.  

Avoidance

C.  

Exploring

D.  

Mitigation

Discussion 0
Questions 37

Once the make-or-buy analysis is completed, which document defines the project delivery method?

Options:

A.  

Procurement statement of work (SOW)

B.  

Procurement strategy

C.  

Terms of reference

D.  

Change request

Discussion 0
Questions 38

Which of these is true of project integration management?

Options:

A.  

Project Integration Management is mandatory and more effective in larger projects.

B.  

Project Integration Management and expert judgment are mutually exclusive.

C.  

Project Integration Management is the responsibility of the project manager

D.  

Project Integration Management excludes the triple constraints if cost performance index (CPI) equals zero.

Discussion 0
Questions 39

In a project using agile methodology, who may perform the quality control activities?

Options:

A.  

A group of quality experts at specific times during the project

B.  

The project manager only

C.  

All team members throughout the project life cycle

D.  

Selected stakeholders at specific times during the project

Discussion 0
Questions 40

Which tool should a project manager consider to deal with multiple sources of risk?

Options:

A.  

An updated risk register

B.  

Risk breakdown structure

C.  

Issue log

D.  

Stakeholder register

Discussion 0
Questions 41

Make-or-buy analysis is a tool and technique of which process?

Options:

A.  

Conduct Procurements

B.  

Plan Procurement Management

C.  

Analyze Procurements

D.  

Control Procurements

Discussion 0
Questions 42

A project manager is assigned to a strategic project Senior management asks the project manager to give a presentation in order to request support that will ensure the success of the project.

Which entities will the project manager attempt to influence?

Options:

A.  

The project and the organization

B.  

The organization and the industry

C.  

The subject matter experts and the project

D.  

The change control board and the organization

Discussion 0
Questions 43

Sharing good practices introduced or implemented in similar projects in the organization and/or industry is an example of:

Options:

A.  

quality audits

B.  

process analysis

C.  

statistical sampling

D.  

benchmarking

Discussion 0
Questions 44

Which are examples of processes that may be used once or at predefined points in the project life cycle?

Options:

A.  

Develop Project Charter and Close Project or Phase

B.  

Define Activities and Acquire Resources

C.  

Control Schedule and Conduct Procurements

D.  

Monitor Communications and Control Costs

Discussion 0
Questions 45

Portfolio Management is management of:

Options:

A.  

a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub-projects.

B.  

a project by utilizing a portfolio of general management skills such as planning, organizing, staffing, executing, and controlling.

C.  

all projects undertaken by a company.

D.  

a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective management and meet strategic business objectives.

Discussion 0
Questions 46

A measure of cost performance that is required to be achieved with the remaining resources in order to meet a specified management goal and is expressed as the ratio of the cost needed for finishing the outstanding work to the remaining budget is known as the:

Options:

A.  

budget at completion (BAC)

B.  

earned value management (EVM)

C.  

to-complete performance index

D.  

cost performance index

Discussion 0
Questions 47

Which process is included in the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.  

Manage Project Team

B.  

Collect Requirements

C.  

Sequence Activities

D.  

Direct and Manage Project Work

Discussion 0
Questions 48

Which is an example of Administer Procurements?

Options:

A.  

Negotiating the contract

B.  

Authorizing contractor work

C.  

Developing the statement of work

D.  

Establishing evaluation criteria

Discussion 0
Questions 49

What are the key tools for managing project knowledge?

Options:

A.  

Expert judgment and data gathering

B.  

Networking and storytelling

C.  

Data analysis and decision making

D.  

Prototypes and product analysis

Discussion 0
Questions 50

Which conflict resolution technique produces the most lasting results?

Options:

A.  

Withdraw/avoid

B.  

Smooth/accommodate

C.  

Compromise/reconcile

D.  

Collaborate/problem solve

Discussion 0
Questions 51

Information collected on the status of project activities being performed to accomplish the project work is known as what?

Options:

A.  

Project management information system

B.  

Work performance information

C.  

Work breakdown structure

D.  

Variance analysis

Discussion 0
Questions 52

Which are inputs for the Plan Quality Management process?

Options:

A.  

Quality metrics, project documents, and financial performance

B.  

Quality management plan, project documents, and quality metrics

C.  

Project management plan, project documents, and organizational process assets

D.  

Project management plan, quality metrics. and project documents

Discussion 0
Questions 53

Definitions of probability and impact, revised stakeholder tolerances, and tracking are components of which subsidiary plan?

Options:

A.  

Cost management plan

B.  

Quality management plan

C.  

Communications management plan

D.  

Risk management plan

Discussion 0
Questions 54

A firm contracted an event management company to conduct the annual sales day event. The agreement states that the event management company will charge the firm for the actuals and receive 8% of the total cost. What type of contract Is this?

Options:

A.  

Time and material (T8M)

B.  

Fixed price incentive fee (FPIF)

C.  

Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)

D.  

Cost plus award fee (CPAF)

Discussion 0
Questions 55

A work package has been scheduled to cost $1,000 to complete and was to be finished today. As of today, the actual expenditure is $1,200 and approximately half of the work has been completed. What is the cost variance?

Options:

A.  

-700

B.  

-200

C.  

200

D.  

500

Discussion 0
Questions 56

Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner?

Options:

A.  

Plan Communications

B.  

Performance reporting

C.  

Project status reports

D.  

Distribute Information

Discussion 0
Questions 57

Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during Estimate Costs?

Options:

A.  

Market conditions and published commercial information

B.  

Company structure and market conditions

C.  

Commercial information and company structure

D.  

Existing human resources and market conditions

Discussion 0
Questions 58

Projects can be divided into phases to provide better management control. Collectively, what are these phases known as?

Options:

A.  

Complete project phase

B.  

Project life

C.  

The project life cycle

D.  

Project cycle

Discussion 0
Questions 59

Which type of contract is most commonly used by buying organizations because the price for goods is set at the outset and is not subject to change unless the scope of work changes?

Options:

A.  

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments Contract (FP-EPA)

B.  

Cost-Reimbursable Contract (CR)

C.  

Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)

D.  

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee Contract (FPIF)

Discussion 0
Questions 60

In which organizational structure would the project manager have most authority?

Options:

A.  

Matrix-weak

B.  

Matrix-balanced

C.  

Matrix-strong

D.  

Organic or simple

Discussion 0
Questions 61

A project is just beginning, and management creates a long list of potential stakeholders. Which statement about identifying and engaging stakeholders is correct?

Options:

A.  

The project manager should identify and deal with stakeholders only during the execution phase.

B.  

Stakeholder satisfaction should be identified immediately and managed as a project objective.

C.  

The project manager should focus on project objectives and deal with stakeholders as a secondary priority.

D.  

Stakeholder satisfaction is the most important goal, and project objectives should be considered a secondary priority.

Discussion 0
Questions 62

A project reports an earned value (EV) of USS45 for work completed with an actual cost (AC) of US$40. What is the cost performance index (CPI)?

Options:

A.  

0.88

B.  

1.12

C.  

0.58

D.  

1.58

Discussion 0
Questions 63

The project leam is brainstorming on approaches to deliver the upcoming product launch for which the project has been chartered. The project manager is laying out hybrid, adaptive, iterative methods. What is the team trying to address?

Options:

A.  

Co-location

B.  

Lite-cycle

C.  

Diversity

D.  

Management

Discussion 0
Questions 64

In an organization with a projectized organizational structure, who controls the project budget?

Options:

A.  

Functional manager

B.  

Project manager

C.  

Program manager

D.  

Project management office

Discussion 0
Questions 65

Which type of analysis would be used for the Plan Quality process?

Options:

A.  

Schedule

B.  

Checklist

C.  

Assumption

D.  

Cost-Benefit

Discussion 0
Questions 66

Recognition and rewards are tools and techniques of which process?

Options:

A.  

Develop Team

B.  

Manage Team

C.  

Control Resources

D.  

Plan Resource Management

Discussion 0
Questions 67

A project manager needs to demonstrate that the project meets quality standards and success criteria. For that reason, the project manager is defining the quality objectives of the project, the quality tools that will be used, and quality metrics for the project deliverables.

Which process is the project manager executing?

Options:

A.  

Manage Quality

B.  

Plan Quality Management

C.  

Control Quality

D.  

Plan Scope Management

Discussion 0
Questions 68

Which Process Group typically consumes the bulk of a project's budget?

Options:

A.  

Monitoring and Controlling

B.  

Executing

C.  

Planning

D.  

Initiating

Discussion 0
Questions 69

Due to today's competitive global market, organizations require more than technical project management skills. Which of the following skills can support long-range strategic objectives that contribute to the bottom line?

Options:

A.  

Planning and risk management skills

B.  

Communication and time management skills

C.  

Business intelligence and leadership skills

D.  

Strategic and business management skills

Discussion 0
Questions 70

Which of the following describes the similarities of the process groups and project life cycle?

Options:

A.  

The life cycle involves three project management process groups.

B.  

Both provide a basic framework to manage the project.

C.  

Each project must have a life cycle and all processes in the five process groups.

D.  

The project life cycle is managed by executing the processes within the five process groups.

Discussion 0
Questions 71

Which tool is used to develop technical details within the project management plan?

Options:

A.  

Expert judgment

B.  

Project management methodology

C.  

Project management information system (PMIS)

D.  

Project selection methods

Discussion 0
Questions 72

What is the difference between the critical path and the critical chain?

Options:

A.  

Scope changes

B.  

Resource limitations

C.  

Risk analysis

D.  

Quality audits

Discussion 0
Questions 73

What charts and (igures should project managers use during the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?

Options:

A.  

Tornado diagrams and influence diagrams

B.  

Detectability bubble charts and probability and impact matrix

C.  

Hierarchical charts and burndown charts

D.  

Flow charts and responsible, accountable, consult, and inform (RACI) charts

Discussion 0
Questions 74

A project manager is monitoring and recording results of executing the quality management activities to assess performance and ensure the project outputs are complete, correct, and meet customer expectations. Which output is the project manager using?

Options:

A.  

Approved change requests

B.  

Verified deliverables

C.  

Lessons learned

D.  

Work performance data

Discussion 0
Questions 75

At which point of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest?

Options:

A.  

Final phase of the project

B.  

Start of the project

C.  

End of the project

D.  

Midpoint of the project

Discussion 0
Questions 76

Match the project manager's sphere of influence with the associated primary role.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 77

An output of the Create WBS process is:

Options:

A.  

Scope baseline.

B.  

Project scope statement.

C.  

Organizational process assets.

D.  

Requirements traceability matrix.

Discussion 0
Questions 78

Tailoring considerations for project scope management may include:

Options:

A.  

requirements management, stability of requirements, development approach, and validation and control.

B.  

WBS guidelines, requirements templates, deliverable acceptance forms, and verified deliverables.

C.  

business needs, product descriptions, project restrictions, and project management plan.

D.  

issues defining and controlling what is included in the project, vended deliverables, and quality reports.

Discussion 0
Questions 79

Which is the order of steps in the Procurement Management process?

Options:

A.  

Identifying and planning procurement requirements, obtaining quotes or proposals, negotiating with vendors, contracting with selected vendors, and controlling procurements

B.  

Identifying and planning procurement requirements, negotiating with vendors, contracting with selected vendors, obtaining quotes or proposals, and controlling procurements

C.  

Controlling procurements, identifying and planning procurement requirements, obtaining quotes or proposals, negotiating with vendors, and contracting with selected vendors

D.  

Obtaining quotes or proposals, identifying and planning procurement requirements, negotiating with vendors, contracting with selected vendors, and controlling procurements

Discussion 0
Questions 80

What is a tailoring consideration for the application of Project Risk Management processes?

Options:

A.  

Project complexity

B.  

Procurement criteria

C.  

Communication technology

D.  

Knowledge management

Discussion 0
Questions 81

A change log for communications can be used to communicate to the appropriate stakeholders that there are changes:

Options:

A.  

To the project management plan.

B.  

To the risk register.

C.  

In the scope verification processes.

D.  

And their impact to the project in terms of time, cost, and risk.

Discussion 0
Questions 82

Which tool or technique of Plan Quality involves comparing actual or planned practices to those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis by which to measure performance?

Options:

A.  

Histogram

B.  

Quality audits

C.  

Benchmarking

D.  

Performance measurement analysis

Discussion 0
Questions 83

What tool or technique can improve a products final characteristics?

Options:

A.  

Design for X (DfX)

B.  

Problem solving

C.  

Process analysis

D.  

Risk report

Discussion 0
Questions 84

Which of the following is a category of organizational process assets?

Options:

A.  

Government standards

B.  

Organizational culture

C.  

Employee capabilities

D.  

Organizational knowledge bases

Discussion 0
Questions 85

A project manager is analyzing a few network diagrams in order to determine the minimum duration of a project. Which diagram should the project manager reference?

Options:

A.  

A diagram in which resource optimization has been applied.

B.  

A diagram in which the critical path method has been applied.

C.  

A diagram in which a predefined series of activities has been organized.

D.  

A diagram which shows a combination of resource and time optimization.

Discussion 0
Questions 86

Which statement about identification and engagement of stakeholders during a project is correct?

Options:

A.  

Project stakeholders should be Identified and engaged in every phase of the project to influence the success of the project directly.

B.  

Project stakeholders should be identified and engaged once the prototype is completed to provide their feedback but refrain from making inputs during the project.

C.  

Project stakeholders should be identified when the project chatter is being completed and engaged during requirements gathering.

D.  

Project stakeholders should be identified and engaged during requirements elicitation but not during the Define Scope process.

Discussion 0
Questions 87

Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associatedWBSand WBS dictionary?

Options:

A.  

Scope plan

B.  

Product scope

C.  

Scope management plan

D.  

Scope baseline

Discussion 0
Questions 88

Which of these is a hybrid contract?

Options:

A.  

Cost plus award fee (CPAF)

B.  

Firm fixed price (FFP)

C.  

Fixed price incentive fee (FPIF)

D.  

Time and material (T&M)

Discussion 0
Questions 89

What is the name of the statistical method that helps identify which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process under development or in production?

Options:

A.  

Failure modes and effects analysis

B.  

Design of experiments

C.  

Quality checklist

D.  

Risk analysis

Discussion 0
Questions 90

Following a project planning meeting with the team, a few team members approach the project manager to follow up on actions required. How can the project manager assess the effectiveness of the meeting?

Options:

A.  

Send the meeting minutes to all team members to verify that the required information is readily available.

B.  

Ask the team members to provide feedback for meetings in the phase retrospective.

C.  

Review the actions from the meeting with each of the project team members to ensure their understanding.

D.  

Consult the communications management plan to determine the success criteria for meetings.

Discussion 0
Questions 91

Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?

Options:

A.  

Control Costs

B.  

Determine Budget

C.  

Estimate Costs

D.  

Estimate Activity Resources

Discussion 0
Questions 92

A projects purpose or justification, measurable project objectives and related success criteria, a summary milestone schedule, and a summary budget are all components of which document?

Options:

A.  

Work breakdown structure

B.  

Requirements document

C.  

Project charter

D.  

Project management plan

Discussion 0
Questions 93

Which type of probability distribution is used to represent uncertain events such as the outcome of a test or a possible scenario in a decision tree?

Options:

A.  

Uniform

B.  

Continuous

C.  

Discrete

D.  

Linear

Discussion 0
Questions 94

Which quality tool incorporates the upper and lower specification limits allowed within an agreement?

Options:

A.  

Control chart

B.  

Flowchart

C.  

Checksheet

D.  

Pareto diagram

Discussion 0
Questions 95

Which tools or techniques are used during the Close Project or Phase process?

Options:

A.  

Reserve analysis and expert judgment

B.  

Facilitation techniques and meetings

C.  

Expert judgment and analytical techniques

D.  

Performance reviews and meetings

Discussion 0
Questions 96

What is the term assigned to products or services having the same functional use but different technical characteristics?

Options:

A.  

Scope

B.  

Quality

C.  

Specification

D.  

Grade

Discussion 0
Questions 97

Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks?

Options:

A.  

Identify Risks

B.  

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

C.  

Plan Risk Management

D.  

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Discussion 0
Questions 98

An output of the Develop Project Team process is:

Options:

A.  

change requests

B.  

team performance assessments

C.  

project staff assignments

D.  

project documents updates

Discussion 0
Questions 99

Which type of manager is assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives?

Options:

A.  

Program

B.  

Functional

C.  

Project

D.  

Portfolio

Discussion 0
Questions 100

Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes as project time advances?

Options:

A.  

The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases.

B.  

The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases.

C.  

The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes decreases.

D.  

The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes decreases.

Discussion 0
Questions 101

Which process documents the business needs of a project and the new product, service, or other result that is intended to satisfy those requirements?

Options:

A.  

Develop Project Management Plan

B.  

Develop Project Charter

C.  

Direct and Manage Project Execution

D.  

Collect Requirements

Discussion 0
Questions 102

What cost control technique is used to compare actual project performance to planned or expected performance?

Options:

A.  

Cost aggregation

B.  

Trend analysis

C.  

Forecasting

D.  

Variance analysis

Discussion 0
Questions 103

The creation of an internet site to engage stakeholders on a project is an example of which type of communication?

Options:

A.  

Push

B.  

Pull

C.  

Interactive

D.  

Iterative

Discussion 0
Questions 104

Organizations perceive risks as:

Options:

A.  

events that will inevitably impact project and organizational objectives.

B.  

the effect of uncertainty on their project and organizational objectives.

C.  

events which could have a negative impact on project and organizational objectives.

D.  

the negative impact of undesired events on their project and organizational objectives.

Discussion 0
Questions 105

The integrative nature of project management requires which Process Group to interact with the other Process Groups?

Options:

A.  

Planning

B.  

Executing

C.  

Monitoring and Controlling

D.  

Project Management

Discussion 0
Questions 106

The stakeholder register is an output of:

Options:

A.  

Identify Stakeholders.

B.  

Plan Stakeholder Management.

C.  

Control Stakeholder Engagement.

D.  

Manage Stakeholder Engagement.

Discussion 0
Questions 107

Which is one of the major outputs of Sequence Activities?

Options:

A.  

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

B.  

Work breakdown structure (WBS) update

C.  

Project schedule network diagram

D.  

Mandatory dependencies list

Discussion 0
Questions 108

Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and identifying tangible components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following?

Options:

A.  

Work breakdown structure

B.  

Organizational breakdown structure

C.  

Resource breakdown structure

D.  

Bill of materials

Discussion 0
Questions 109

A procurement management plan is a subsidiary of which other type of plan?

Options:

A.  

Resource plan

B.  

Project management plan

C.  

Cost control plan

D.  

Expected monetary value plan

Discussion 0
Questions 110

Which of the following is example of communication tools and techniques?

Options:

A.  

Conflict management

B.  

Stakeholder mapping

C.  

Advertising plan

D.  

Developing team

Discussion 0
Questions 111

Which process includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?

Options:

A.  

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.  

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

C.  

Plan Risk Management

D.  

Plan Risk Responses

Discussion 0
Questions 112

What should a project manager do to prepare a risk management plan with a lot of technical uncertainty?

Options:

A.  

Get expert judgment.

B.  

Count on personal experience.

C.  

Ask project sponsors.

D.  

Delay the project until technical uncertainty is clarified

Discussion 0
Questions 113

A project manager is managing a small project that has a time constraint. What should the project manager do to ensure the delivery is on time?

Options:

A.  

Expand the scope of the project.

B.  

Schedule the tasks in sequence.

C.  

Increase quality review cycles.

D.  

Schedule the tasks in parallel.

Discussion 0
Questions 114

What tern describes an intentional activity to modify a nonconforming product or product component?

Options:

A.  

Preventive action

B.  

Corrective action

C.  

Defect repair

D.  

Updates

Discussion 0
Questions 115

A product owner reviews the list of stakeholders to confirm their continued involvement with the product team. A new stakeholder is identified as actively involved in the next product release.

What should the project manager do next to engage the new stakeholder?

Options:

A.  

Add the stakeholder to the communications management plan.

B.  

Conduct a one-on-one interview with the stakeholder.

C.  

Invite the stakeholder to the sprint-planning meeting.

D.  

Send the stakeholder a questionnaire.

Discussion 0
Questions 116

The project manager needs to manage a critical issue immediately, and this requires action from the upper management of a specific stakeholder group. Which plan should plan the project manager consult?

Options:

A.  

Risk management plan

B.  

Communications management plan

C.  

Change management plan

D.  

Stakeholder engagement plan

Discussion 0
Questions 117

A new project manager is assigned to a high-visibility project. The project manager starts with the requirements analysis process. Who should the project manager onboard to assist with the requirements traceability matrix or analysis?

Options:

A.  

Systems analyst

B.  

Business analyst

C.  

Project sponsor

D.  

Technical consultant

Discussion 0
Questions 118

Which of these is true project integration management?

Options:

A.  

Project Integration Management is mandatory and more effective in larger projects

B.  

Project Integration Management and Expert Judgement are mutually exclusive

C.  

Project Integration Management is the responsibility of the project manager

D.  

Project Integration Management excludes the triple constraints if cost performance index (CPI) equals zero

Discussion 0
Questions 119

A project manager is working with the project sponsor to identify the resources required for the project. They use a RACI chart to ensure that the team members knows their roles and responsibilities.

What are the four elements of a RACI chart?

Options:

A.  

Recommend, approve, coordinate, and inform

B.  

Responsible, accountable, consult, and inform

C.  

Recommend, accountable, consult, and inform

D.  

Responsible, accountable, coordinate, and inform

Discussion 0
Questions 120

A project manager is preparing a monthly status report for the project, which includes project performance compared to the baseline schedule. How can the project manager calculate the schedule variance (SV) for tasks on the critical path?

Options:

A.  

Earned Schedule + Actual Time

B.  

Actual Time - Earned Schedule

C.  

Planned Value - Earned Value

D.  

Earned Value - Planned Value

Discussion 0
Questions 121

Which subsidiary management plan.... during the project ilfe cycle?

Which Subsidiary management plan would a project manager create to manage Information dissemination during the project life cycle?

Options:

A.  

Stakeholder Engagement Plan

B.  

Quality Management Plan

C.  

Communications Management Plan

D.  

Scope Management Plan

Discussion 0
Questions 122

An adaptive team is in the process of merging a legacy system from an acquired company. In order to check the project status and manage the flow of work, they are using a scrum board for this project. What data should be included in this information radiator?

Options:

A.  

Product and sprint backlog

B.  

Key performance indicators (KPIs) and baseline

C.  

Increments and bottlenecks

D.  

Burndown and burnup charts

Discussion 0
Questions 123

Administer Procurements is part of which Process Group?

Options:

A.  

Planning

B.  

Executing

C.  

Monitoring and Controlling

D.  

Closing

Discussion 0
Questions 124

The primary purpose of the stakeholder register is to:

Options:

A.  

Record stakeholder issues on the project

B.  

Maintain lessons learned earlier in the project

C.  

Maintain a list of all project stakeholders

D.  

Document change requests and their status

Discussion 0
Questions 125

A project is in progress and about to move to a different phase, according to the plan. This will be a good opportunity for the project manager to:

Options:

A.  

create the project management plan.

B.  

identify the project objectives.

C.  

review and update stakeholder engagement.

D.  

create the schedule baseline.

Discussion 0
Questions 126

A project manager is responsible for delivering new software for their company. Based on previous experiences, the project manager decides to use the dynamic systems development method (DSDM). The project manager will use this method to prioritize the scope to meet project constraints.

Which elements are included in the DSDM framework?

Options:

A.  

Time, integration, cost, and deliverables

B.  

Schedule, risk, integration, and features

C.  

Cost, time, quality, and functionality

D.  

Cost, requirements, schedule, and outputs

Discussion 0
Questions 127

Which statement describes the various purposes of project scheduling?

Options:

A.  

Define the policies, rules, and techniques to run a schedule; serve as a tool to manage stakeholder expectations; and serve as a base for backlog management

B.  

Define how and when deliverables will be completed, serve as communication tool, and serve as a base for performance reporting

C.  

Define the life cycle, traditional or agile approach, and tools to control schedule; serve as a reference for scope management; and serve as a base for risk management

D.  

Define activities, sequences, duration, and dependencies, serve as a reference for resource allocation, serve as a base for earned value analysis.

Discussion 0
Questions 128

Which of the following can a project manager use to represent dellned team member roles in a group of tasks?

Options:

A.  

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.  

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

C.  

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

D.  

Resource breakdown structure (RBS)

Discussion 0
Questions 129

Which of the following factors within a company cloud trigger the creation of a project?

Options:

A.  

Need to lower production costs to remain competitive

B.  

Need to submit a warranty claim for a faulty product

C.  

Need to submit the monthly production report

D.  

Need to define next month's production goals

Discussion 0
Questions 130

A project manager is working on the communications management plan. Which of these documents are inputs to consider?

Options:

A.  

Stakeholder engagement plan and organizational process assets

B.  

Project schedule and stakeholder register

C.  

Quality management plan and risk register

D.  

Basis of estimates and scope baseline

Discussion 0
Questions 131

The project manager is creating the communications management plan Which group of inputs Is required to begin?

Options:

A.  

Work performance reports, change requests, and risk register

B.  

Work performance data, project documents, and stakeholder engagement plan

C.  

Project charter, project management plan, and project documents

D.  

Work performance data, stakeholder register, and team management plan

Discussion 0
Questions 132

A project manager is working with the project sponsor to identify the resources required for the project. They use a RACI chart to ensure that the team members know their roles and responsibilities. What are the four elements of a RACI chart?

Options:

A.  

Recommend, accountable, consult, and inform

B.  

Responsible, accountable, consult, and inform

C.  

Recommend, approve, coordinate, and inform

D.  

Responsible, accountable, coordinate, and inform

Discussion 0
Questions 133

Howls program success measured?

Options:

A.  

By delivering the benefit of managing the program's projects in a coordinated manner

B.  

By the quality, timeliness, cost-etfectiveness. and customer saDstaction of the product or service

C.  

By completing the right projects to achieve objectives rather than completing projects the right way

D.  

By aggregating the successes of the individual projects in the program

Discussion 0
Questions 134

An organization's project management office (PMO) has issued guidelines that require a specific template to be used for onboarding resources for a project. Where can the project manager find this template?

Options:

A.  

Organizational systems access

B.  

Organizational process assets

C.  

Resources management plan

D.  

Procurement management plan

Discussion 0
Questions 135

During the planning phase, a project manager must create a work breakdown structure (WBS) to improve management of the project's components. What should be included in the WBS?

Options:

A.  

Activity dependencies

B.  

Work package risks

C.  

Description of work

D.  

Resource estimates

Discussion 0
Questions 136

What type of stakeholder is part of a project manager 's sphere of influence on a project?

Options:

A.  

Customers

B.  

Sponsors

C.  

Directors

D.  

Resource managers

Discussion 0
Questions 137

A community project with a large number of stakeholders is scheduled for delivery in six months. The project manager asked the business analyst to ensure effective requirements elicitation. What should the business analyst do?

Options:

A.  

Ask the project coordinator to facilitate some of the workshops.

B.  

Invite both internal and external stakeholders to the workshops.

C.  

Engage a consultant that is familiar with the community needs.

D.  

Organize a workshop with the sponsor and major stakeholders.

Discussion 0
Questions 138

A stakeholder is reading project documents given by the project manager. The stakeholder is

curious about the difference between a verified deliverable and an accepted deliverable.

Which of the following definitions can the project manager use to explain the difference?

Options:

A.  

An accepted deliverable is approved by the project team; a verified deliverable is approved and formally signed off by the customer or sponsor.

B.  

An accepted deliverable has been checked and confirmed for accuracy through the Control Quality process; a verified deliverable meets acceptance criteria that is formally signed off and approved by the customer or sponsor.

C.  

An accepted deliverable meets acceptance criteria and is formally signed off and approved by the customer or sponsor, a verified deliverable is a completed project deliverable that has been checked and confirmed for accuracy through the Control Quality process

D.  

An accepted deliverable meets acceptance criteria and is signed off by the project manager; a verified deliverable meets acceptance criteria and is signed off by the customer or sponsor.

Discussion 0
Questions 139

A project manager oversees a project in an adaptive environment. After each iteration, which type of meeting should the project manager conduct?

Options:

A.  

Iteration planning

B.  

Retrospective

C.  

Backlog refinement review

D.  

Daily standup

Discussion 0
Questions 140

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis focuses on:

Options:

A.  

compiling a list of known risks and preparing responses to them.

B.  

assessing the probability of occurrence and Impact for every risk in the risk register.

C.  

evaluating the contingency and management reserves required for the project.

D.  

analyzing numerically the impact of individual risks on the overall project's time and cost objectives.

Discussion 0
Questions 141

A business analyst needs to ensure the project team understands the most critical roles and responsibilities within the requirements change process. Which responsibility is the most important?

Options:

A.  

Analyzing the change

B.  

Approving the change

C.  

Reviewing the change

D.  

Discussing the change

Discussion 0
Questions 142

Which behavior is a management trait?

Options:

A.  

Asking what and why

B.  

Challenging the status quo

C.  

Innovating

D.  

Relying on control

Discussion 0
Questions 143

What is the discipline that focuses on the interdependences between projects to determine the optimal approach for managing them?

Options:

A.  

Project Management

B.  

Program Management

C.  

Portfolio Management

D.  

Operations Management

Discussion 0
Questions 144

A project manager has reached an agreement on the requirements and now needs to define the workflow for the end user. A critical step must be completed and validated by the end user before proceeding.

Which modeling tool best describes this process?

Options:

A.  

Traceability

B.  

User interface design

C.  

Use case

D.  

Wireframe

Discussion 0
Questions 145

At the beginning of an iteration, the team will work to determine how many of the highest-priority items on the backlog list can be delivered within the next iteration. Which of the following activities is done first?

Options:

A.  

Create Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

B.  

Create Scope Baseline

C.  

Collect Requirements

D.  

Define Scope

Discussion 0
Questions 146

Which statement describes the relationship between Manage Quality process and Control process?

Options:

A.  

Manage Quality is all about following planned processes and provedures for quality, while Control Quality is about making sure that the product which is produced conforms to customer specifications.

B.  

Control Quality is all about following planned process and procedures for quality, while Manage Quality is about making sure that the product which is produced conforms to customer specifications.

C.  

Manage Quality and Control Quality are the same

D.  

Manage Quality is part of Quality Management and Control is a subset of the Stakeholder Management Process group

Discussion 0
Questions 147

The project manager is dividing the project scope into smaller pieces, and repeating this process until no more subdivisions are required. At this point the project manager is able to estimate costs and activities for each element.

What are these elements called?

Options:

A.  

Project activities

B.  

Work packages

C.  

Planning packages

D.  

Project deliverables

Discussion 0
Questions 148

What purpose does the hierarchical locus of stakeholder communications serve?

Options:

A.  

Maintains the focus on project and organizational stakeholders

B.  

Preserves the tocus on external stakeholders—such as customers and vendors—as well as on other projects

C.  

Sustains the focus on general communication activities using email, social media, and websites

D.  

Keeps the focus on the position of the stakeholder or group with respect to the project team

Discussion 0
Questions 149

A project has an estimated duration of 10 months with a total budget of US$220,000. At the end of the fifth month, it is estimated that at completion, the project will incur US$250,000. If the actual cost (AC) calculated is US$150,000, what is the earned value (EV) of the project?

Options:

A.  

USS-30,000

B.  

US$120,000

C.  

US$370,000

D.  

US$400,000

Discussion 0
Questions 150

Why is tailoring required in a project?

Options:

A.  

Because a one-size-fits-all approach avoids complications and saves time.

B.  

Because every project is unique and not every tool, technique, input, or output identified in the PMBOK Guide is required.

C.  

Because tailoring allows us to identify the techniques, procedures, and system practices used by those in the project.

D.  

Project managers should apply every process in the PMBOK Guide to the project, so tailoring is not required.

Discussion 0
Questions 151

Which is an example of analogous estimating?

Options:

A.  

Estimates are created by individuals or groups with specialized knowledge.

B.  

Estimates are created by using information about resources of previous similar projects.

C.  

Estimates are created by analyzing data.

D.  

Estimates are created at the task level and aggregated upwards.

Discussion 0
Questions 152

Which tasks should a project manager accomplish in order to manage project scope correctly?

Options:

A.  

Define. Validate, and Control Scope. Control Schedule; Control Costs and Manage Stakeholder Engagement

B.  

Collect Requirements. Define Scope. Create WBS. Develop Schedule, and Manage Stakeholder Engagement

C.  

Plan Scope Management; Collect Requirements; Define. Validate, and Control Scope; and Create WBS

D.  

Define. Validate, and Control Scope. Control Costs. Manage Stakeholder Engagement, and keep budget under control

Discussion 0
Questions 153

What is a tool or technique used in the Control Quality process?

Options:

A.  

Attribute sampling

B.  

Parametric estimating

C.  

Statistical sampling

D.  

Expert judgment

Discussion 0
Questions 154

A project team submits a weekly progress report to the project manager. The project manager consolidates the same report and sends a complete progress report to the stakeholders. What is this an example of?

Options:

A.  

Informal communication

B.  

Internal communication

C.  

Formal communication

D.  

Horizontal communication

Discussion 0
Questions 155

Progressively elaborating high-level information into detailed plans is performed by the:

Options:

A.  

project management office

B.  

portfolio manager

C.  

program manager

D.  

project manager

Discussion 0
Questions 156

Project Stakeholder Management focuses on:

Options:

A.  

project staff assignments

B.  

project tea m acquisition

C.  

managing conflicting interests

D.  

communication methods

Discussion 0
Questions 157

The following is a network diagram for a project.

How many possible paths are identified for this project?

Options:

A.  

3

B.  

4

C.  

6

D.  

7

Discussion 0
Questions 158

Which type of dependency used in the Sequence Activities process is sometimes referred to as preferred logic, preferential logic, or soft logic?

Options:

A.  

Internal

B.  

External

C.  

Discretionary

D.  

Mandatory

Discussion 0
Questions 159

Specification of both the deliverables and the processes is the focus of:

Options:

A.  

Change control

B.  

Configuration control

C.  

Project monitoring and control

D.  

Issue control

Discussion 0
Questions 160

The cost baseline and project funding requirements are outputs of which process in Project Cost Management?

Options:

A.  

Estimate Costs

B.  

Control Costs

C.  

Plan Cost Management

D.  

Determine Budget

Discussion 0
Questions 161

Which term describes an assessment of correctness?

Options:

A.  

Accuracy

B.  

Precision

C.  

Grade

D.  

Quality

Discussion 0
Questions 162

The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract is called:

Options:

A.  

Close Procurements.

B.  

Control Procurements.

C.  

Plan Procurements.

D.  

Conduct Procurements.

Discussion 0
Questions 163

Activity cost estimates and the project schedule are inputs to which Project Cost Management process?

Options:

A.  

Estimate Costs

B.  

Control Costs

C.  

Plan Cost Management

D.  

Determine Budget

Discussion 0
Questions 164

In the Define Activities process, the schedule management plan is used to:

Options:

A.  

Capture the lessons learned from other projects for comparison.

B.  

Contain the standard activity list.

C.  

Document and support the project change requests.

D.  

Prescribe the level of detail needed to manage the work.

Discussion 0
Questions 165

The Project Human Resource Management process that involves confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is:

Options:

A.  

Acquire Project Team.

B.  

Plan Human Resource Management.

C.  

Manage Project Team.

D.  

Develop Project Team.

Discussion 0
Questions 166

A project manager should communicate to stakeholders about resolved project issues by updating the:

Options:

A.  

project records

B.  

project reports

C.  

stakeholder notifications

D.  

stakeholder register

Discussion 0
Questions 167

Which action is included in the Control Costs process?

Options:

A.  

Identify how the project costs will be planned, structured, and controlled

B.  

Determine policies, objectives, and responsibilities to satisfy stakeholder needs

C.  

Develop an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities

D.  

Monitor cost performance to isolate and understand variances from the approved cost baseline

Discussion 0
Questions 168

Which Control Stakeholder Engagement tool or technique allows the project manager to consolidate and facilitate distribution of reports?

Options:

A.  

Information management systems

B.  

Work performance reports

C.  

Stakeholder analysis

D.  

Data gathering and representation

Discussion 0
Questions 169

The zero duration of milestones in project planning occurs because milestones:

Options:

A.  

Are unpredictable and challenge the Plan Schedule Management process.

B.  

Occur at random times in the project plans.

C.  

Represent a moment in time such as a significant project point or event.

D.  

Represent both significant and insignificant points in the project and are difficult to anticipate.

Discussion 0
Questions 170

A project manager requesting industry groups and consultants to recommend project intervention is relying on:

Options:

A.  

Communication models.

B.  

Stakeholder participation.

C.  

Expert judgment

D.  

Enterprise environmental factors.

Discussion 0
Questions 171

A special type of bar chart used in sensitivity analysis for comparing the relative importance of the variables is called a:

Options:

A.  

triangular distribution

B.  

tornado diagram

C.  

beta distribution

D.  

fishbone diagram

Discussion 0
Questions 172

The most appropriate project life cycle model for an environment with a high level of change and extensive stakeholder involvement in projects is:

Options:

A.  

adaptive

B.  

reflexive

C.  

predictive

D.  

iterative

Discussion 0
Questions 173

When closing a project or phase, part of the process may require the use of which type of analysis?

Options:

A.  

Reserve analysis

B.  

Regression analysis

C.  

Document analysis

D.  

Product analysis

Discussion 0
Questions 174

The following is a network diagram for a project.

What is the critical path for the project?

Options:

A.  

A-B-D-G

B.  

A-B-E-G

C.  

A-C-F-G

D.  

A-C-E-G

Discussion 0
Questions 175

Technical capability, past performance, and intellectual property rights are examples of:

Options:

A.  

performance measurement criteria

B.  

source selection criteria

C.  

product acceptance criteria

D.  

phase exit criteria

Discussion 0
Questions 176

Which is an enterprise environmental factor?

Options:

A.  

Marketplace conditions

B.  

Policies and procedures

C.  

Project files from previous projects

D.  

Lessons learned from previous projects

Discussion 0
Questions 177

Which element does a project charter contain?

Options:

A.  

Management reserves

B.  

Work breakdown structure

C.  

Stakeholder list

D.  

Stakeholder register

Discussion 0
Questions 178

Stakeholder communication requirements should be included as a component of:

Options:

A.  

enterprise environmental factors

B.  

organizational process assets

C.  

the project management plan

D.  

the stakeholder register

Discussion 0
Questions 179

A risk that arises as a direct result of implementing a risk response is called a:

Options:

A.  

contingent risk

B.  

residual risk

C.  

potential risk

D.  

secondary risk

Discussion 0
Questions 180

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

Based on the chart, what is the schedulevariance (SV) for Task 8?

Options:

A.  

-2,000

B.  

-1,000

C.  

1,000

D.  

2,000

Discussion 0
Questions 181

The chart below is an example of a:

Options:

A.  

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

B.  

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C.  

RACI chart

D.  

Requirements traceability matrix

Discussion 0
Questions 182

In which phase of team building activities do team members begin to work together and adjust their work habits and behavior to support the team?

Options:

A.  

Performing

B.  

Storming

C.  

Norming

D.  

Forming

Discussion 0
Questions 183

Grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority and their level of concern regarding project outcomes describes which classification model for stakeholder analysis?

Options:

A.  

Influence/impact grid

B.  

Power/influence grid

C.  

Power/interest grid

D.  

Salience model

Discussion 0
Questions 184

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The total float for the project is how many days?

Options:

A.  

5

B.  

9

C.  

12

D.  

14

Discussion 0
Questions 185

Whose approval may be required for change requests after change control board (CCB) approval?

Options:

A.  

Functional managers

B.  

Business partners

C.  

Customers or sponsors

D.  

Subject matter experts

Discussion 0
Questions 186

A project team member agrees to change a project deliverable after a conversation with an external stakeholder. It is later discovered that the change has had an adverse effect on another deliverable. This could have been avoided if the project team had implemented:

Options:

A.  

Quality assurance.

B.  

A stakeholder management plan.

C.  

Project team building.

D.  

Integrated change control.

Discussion 0
Questions 187

Which change request is an intentional activity that realigns the performance of the project work with the project management plan?

Options:

A.  

Update

B.  

Preventive action

C.  

Defect repair

D.  

Corrective action

Discussion 0
Questions 188

The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is known as its risk:

Options:

A.  

Analysis

B.  

Appetite

C.  

Tolerance

D.  

Response

Discussion 0
Questions 189

Which basic quality tool explains a change in the dependent variable in relationship to a change observed in the corresponding independent variable?

Options:

A.  

Cause-and-effect diagram

B.  

Histogram

C.  

Control chart

D.  

Scatter diagram

Discussion 0
Questions 190

During which process does the project team receive bids and proposals?

Options:

A.  

Conduct Procurements

B.  

Plan Procurements

C.  

Estimate Costs

D.  

Control Budget

Discussion 0
Questions 191

Through whom do project managers accomplish work?

Options:

A.  

Consultants and stakeholders

B.  

Stakeholders and functional managers

C.  

Project team members and consultants

D.  

Project team members and stakeholders

Discussion 0
Questions 192

A project requires a component with well-understood specifications. Performance targets are established at the outset, and the final contract price is determined after completion of all work based on the seller's performance. The most appropriate agreement with the supplier is:

Options:

A.  

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF).

B.  

Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF).

C.  

Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF).

D.  

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment (FP-EPA).

Discussion 0
Questions 193

Which project document is updated in the Control Stakeholder Engagement process?

Options:

A.  

Project reports

B.  

Issue log

C.  

Lessons learned documentation

D.  

Work performance information

Discussion 0
Questions 194

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The critical path for the project is how many days in duration?

Options:

A.  

10

B.  

12

C.  

14

D.  

17

Discussion 0
Questions 195

The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward is known as its risk:

Options:

A.  

management

B.  

response

C.  

tolerance

D.  

appetite

Discussion 0
Questions 196

Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?

Options:

A.  

Recognized by every project manager

B.  

Constantly evolving

C.  

The sum of all knowledge related to project management

D.  

A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project

Discussion 0
Questions 197

The project has a current cost performance index of 0.80. Assuming this performance wi continue, the new estimate at completion is $1000. What was the original budget at completion for the project?

Options:

A.  

$800

B.  

$1000

C.  

$1250

D.  

$1800

Discussion 0
Questions 198

What is project management?

Options:

A.  

A logical grouping of project management inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques

B.  

Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements

C.  

Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project

D.  

A formal, approved document that defines how the project is executed, monitored, and controlled

Discussion 0
Questions 199

Which of the following is a group decision-making technique?

Options:

A.  

Brainstorming

B.  

Focus groups

C.  

Affinity diagram

D.  

Plurality

Discussion 0
Questions 200

Which behavior relates to team leadership'?

Options:

A.  

Centering on systems and structure

B.  

Providing guidance using the power of relationships

C.  

Accepting the status quo

D.  

Focusing on operational issues and problem solving

Discussion 0
Questions 201

In which of the risk management processes is the processes is the project charter used as an input?

Options:

A.  

Palm Risk Responses

B.  

Implement Risk Responses

C.  

Plan Risk Management

D.  

Perform Quantitative Risk Responses

Discussion 0
Questions 202

Which of the following is an input to the Develop Project Charter process?

Options:

A.  

Work performance information

B.  

Project management plan

C.  

Business case

D.  

Change requests

Discussion 0
Questions 203

A project team is reviewing project performance. During the execution phase, the project team discovers that there is an off-the-shelf (OTS) product, which could reduce the timeline for development.

What should the project manager do next?

Options:

A.  

Update the project management plan.

B.  

Add the discovery to the assumptions.

C.  

Evaluate the risk with the project team.

D.  

Conduct an opportunity analysis with the team.

Discussion 0
Questions 204

Who identifies project requirements in the early phase of the project?

Options:

A.  

Business analyst, product team, and key stakeholders

B.  

Project manager, business analyst, and key stakeholders

C.  

Project manager, business analyst, and project sponsor

D.  

Project sponsor, business analyst, and key stakeholders

Discussion 0
Questions 205

The contract in which the seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the contract work and then receives a fee based upon achieving certain performance objectives is called a:

Options:

A.  

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF).

B.  

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF).

C.  

Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contract (FPIF).

D.  

Time and Material Contract (T&M).

Discussion 0
Questions 206

What is the purpose of the Manage Quality process?

Options:

A.  

To translate the quality management plan into executable quality activities

B.  

To monitor and record the results of executed quality management activities

C.  

To determine if project activities comply with organizational and project policies.

D.  

To identify project deliverables and quality requirements and/or standards

Discussion 0
Questions 207

The group technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for prioritization is called the:

Options:

A.  

majority rule technique.

B.  

nominal group technique.

C.  

Delphi technique,

D.  

idea/mind mapping technique.

Discussion 0
Questions 208

Two resources are performing a peer review of an artifact. What should be the outcome of the peer review?

Options:

A.  

All business rules and data requirements for each process are documented.

B.  

All relevant business rules for each process are documented.

C.  

The resulting documentation adheres to established organizational standards.

D.  

The data requirements for each process are documented.

Discussion 0
Questions 209

In Plan Risk Management, which of the management plans determines who will be available to share information on various risks and responses at different times and locations?

Options:

A.  

Schedule

B.  

Quality

C.  

Communications

D.  

Cost

Discussion 0
Questions 210

Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking?

Options:

A.  

The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased.

B.  

The critical path will have positive total float.

C.  

Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager.

D.  

Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations.

Discussion 0
Questions 211

Which of the following response strategies are appropriate for negative risks or threats?

Options:

A.  

Share, Accept, Transfer, or Mitigate

B.  

Exploit, Enhance, Share, or Accept

C.  

Mitigate, Share, Avoid, or Accept

D.  

Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer, or Accept

Discussion 0
Questions 212

What behavior refers to leadership style?

Options:

A.  

Do things right.

B.  

Do the right things

C.  

Ask how and when.

D.  

Rely on control

Discussion 0
Questions 213

Resource calendars are included in the:

Options:

A.  

staffing management plan.

B.  

work breakdown structure (WBS).

C.  

project communications plan.

D.  

project charter.

Discussion 0
Questions 214

Who determines which dependencies are mandatory during the Sequence Activities process?

Options:

A.  

Project manager

B.  

External stakeholders

C.  

Internal stakeholders

D.  

Project team

Discussion 0
Questions 215

Which of the following set of items belongs to the communications management plan?

Options:

A.  

Escalation processes and meeting management

B.  

Project schedule and glossary of common terminology

C.  

Escalation processes and stakeholder communication requirements

D.  

Interactive communication model and information to be communicated

Discussion 0
Questions 216

Which of the following is a project constraint?

Options:

A.  

Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected.

B.  

The technology to be used is cutting-edge.

C.  

Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment.

D.  

The product is needed in 250 days.

Discussion 0
Questions 217

Which of the following is least influenced by a project manager, according to the project manager's sphere of influence?

Options:

A.  

Sponsors

B.  

Project team

C.  

Steering committees

D.  

Stakeholders

Discussion 0
Questions 218

Identify Stakeholders is the process of identifying all of the people or organizations impacted by the project and documenting relevant information regarding their interests in, involvement in, and impact on the project:

Options:

A.  

manager.

B.  

success.

C.  

deadline.

D.  

scope.

Discussion 0
Questions 219

Which type of dependency is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work?

Options:

A.  

External

B.  

Lead

C.  

Discretionary

D.  

Mandatory

Discussion 0
Questions 220

The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:

Options:

A.  

assumption log.

B.  

quality checklist.

C.  

risk register.

D.  

contract type.

Discussion 0
Questions 221

A project team is working on a new driverless vehicle and is organizing a workshop with experts to analyze the data received from the prototype. Who should the project manager invite to provide expert advice?

Options:

A.  

The subject matter experts (SMEs) identified in the stakeholder register

B.  

The senior experts with high status in the academic community

C.  

The major stakeholders nominated by the project sponsor

D.  

The usual review participants holding recognized certifications

Discussion 0
Questions 222

In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance?

Options:

A.  

Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)

B.  

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP-EPA)

C.  

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)

D.  

Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)

Discussion 0
Questions 223

An adaptive project team is meeting for the first time and deciding on the project management approach. After defining the project artifacts, one team member argues that the events are missing. The scrum master coaches the team to complete the planning.

Which two of the following elements should be included? (Choose two)

Options:

A.  

Daily scrum

B.  

Increments

C.  

Sprint retrospective

D.  

Sprint backlog

E.  

Product backlog

Discussion 0
Questions 224

Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 principle?

Options:

A.  

Ishikawa diagram

B.  

Control chart

C.  

Run chart

D.  

Pareto chart

Discussion 0
Questions 225

Using the three-point estimating technique, if the most likely duration is four months, the optimistic duration is two months, and the pessimistic duration is one year, how many months is the expected activity duration?

Options:

A.  

Two

B.  

Four

C.  

Five

D.  

Twelve

Discussion 0
Questions 226

Activity cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to:

Options:

A.  

Create WBS.

B.  

complete project work.

C.  

calculate costs.

D.  

Develop Project Management Plan.

Discussion 0
Questions 227

During project selection, which factor is most important?

Options:

A.  

Types of constraints

B.  

Internal business needs

C.  

Budget

D.  

Schedule

Discussion 0
Questions 228

Which organizational process asset can make an impact on the outcome of a project?

Options:

A.  

Political climate

B.  

Leadership style

C.  

Financial data repository

D.  

Organizational structure types

Discussion 0
Questions 229

The project team is inspecting the completed project scope to determine if the requirements have been satisfied. What is the result of this inspection?

Options:

A.  

Accepted deliverables

B.  

planning packages

C.  

Verified deliverables

D.  

Work packages

Discussion 0
Questions 230

An input to the Collect Requirements process is the:

Options:

A.  

stakeholder register.

B.  

project management plan.

C.  

project scope statement.

D.  

requirements management plan.

Discussion 0
Questions 231

Exhibit A is an example of which of the following types of Sequence Activities?

Options:

A.  

Activity-on-arrow diagramming

B.  

Precedence diagramming

C.  

Project schedule network diagramming

D.  

Mathematical analysis diagramming

Discussion 0
Questions 232

The three processes of Project Cost Management are:

Options:

A.  

Estimate Costs, Control Schedule, and Control Costs.

B.  

Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Estimate Activity Resources.

C.  

Determine Budget, Control Schedule, and Estimate Activity Resources.

D.  

Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Control Costs.

Discussion 0
Questions 233

Which is a major component of an agreement?

Options:

A.  

Change request handling

B.  

Risk register templates

C.  

Lessons learned register

D.  

Procurement management plan

Discussion 0
Questions 234

Which risk response strategy is common for both positive and negative risks?

Options:

A.  

Share

B.  

Accept

C.  

Mitigate

D.  

Transfer

Discussion 0
Questions 235

Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements process?

Options:

A.  

Project statement of work

B.  

Selected sellers

C.  

Risk register updates

D.  

Teaming agreements

Discussion 0
Questions 236

When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?

Options:

A.  

Interactive communication

B.  

Claims administration

C.  

Conflict management

D.  

Performance reporting

Discussion 0
Questions 237

Which process is engaged when a project team member makes a change to project budget with project manager's approval

Options:

A.  

Manage Cost Plan

B.  

Estimate Costs

C.  

Determine Budget

D.  

Control Costs

Discussion 0
Questions 238

The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements describes management of which of the following?

Options:

A.  

Project

B.  

Scope

C.  

Contract

D.  

Program

Discussion 0
Questions 239

Which quality management and control tool is useful in visualizing parent-to-child relationships in any decomposition hierarchy that uses a systematic set of rules that define a nesting relationship?

Options:

A.  

Interrelationship digraphs

B.  

Tree diagram

C.  

Affinity diagram

D.  

Network diagram

Discussion 0
Questions 240

Which type of project management office (PMO) supplies templates, best practices, and training to project teams?

Options:

A.  

Supportive

B.  

Directive

C.  

Controlling

D.  

Instructive

Discussion 0
Questions 241

Which characteristic defines the Delphi technique of group decision-making?

Options:

A.  

The participants must use their expertise to determine the best option.

B.  

The decision is based on eliminating the options that are too expensive.

C.  

The decision is based on a predefined algorithm and the highest score.

D.  

The participants must create a list of options, rank them, and then vote.

Discussion 0
Questions 242

What CPI > 1 and SPI < 1 mean?

Options:

A.  

Under budget ahead of schedule

B.  

Over budget, behind schedule

C.  

Under budget, behind schedule

D.  

Over budget, ahead of schedule

Discussion 0
Questions 243

In one of the project meetings during project execution, a new stakeholder attends and highlights a new risk. What should the project manager do next?

Options:

A.  

Ignore the risk from this stakeholder as this stakeholder never showed up at the start of the project.

B.  

Make sure proper testing gets completed to minimize the risk highlighted.

C.  

Add this risk to the lessons learned register on project completion.

D.  

Add the stakeholder to the stakeholder register and add the risk to the risk register.

Discussion 0
Questions 244

Which earned value management (EVM) metric is a measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources expressed as a ratio of earned value (EV) to actual cost (AC) and is considered a critical EVM metric?

Options:

A.  

Cost variance (CV)

B.  

Cost performance index (CPI)

C.  

Budget at completion (BAC)

D.  

Variance at completion (VAC)

Discussion 0
Questions 245

Which Process Group and Knowledge Area include the Sequence Activities process?

Options:

A.  

Executing Process Group and Project Time Management

B.  

Executing Process Group and Project Cost Management

C.  

Planning Process Group and Project Time Management

D.  

Planning Process Group and Project Cost Management

Discussion 0
Questions 246

An input to Develop Project Charter is a/an:

Options:

A.  

Business case.

B.  

Activity list.

C.  

Project management plan.

D.  

Cost forecast.

Discussion 0
Questions 247

How can you describe the role of the project.... of influence concept?

Options:

A.  

The proiect manager proactivnly interacfS with other project managers creating a positive influence Km fulfilling project needs, working with other managers and sponsor to address internal political and strategic issues and ensunng that the project managemenl plan aligns with the portfolio or program plan

B.  

The project manager leads the team, performs communication roles between stakeholders, and uses interpersonal sills to balance conflicting goals

C.  

The proiect manager stays informed about current technology developments lakes into account new quality management standards, and uses relevant technical support tools

D.  

The proiect manager participates in project management trainings, contributes to the organization professional community sharing knowledge, and maintains subied matter expertise

Discussion 0
Questions 248

Which actions should a project manager follow to manage stakeholders?

Options:

A.  

Identify the key stakeholders and keep them informed at all times.

B.  

Identify the stakeholders, planning, managing and monitoring their engagement

C.  

Meet and keep informed any person related to the project, at all times

D.  

Identify the stakeholders and monitor their level of satisfaction

Discussion 0
Questions 249

Updates to organizational process assets such as procurement files, deliverable acceptances, and lessons learned documentation are typical outputs of which process?

Options:

A.  

Close Project or Phase

B.  

Conduct Procurements

C.  

Control Procurements

D.  

Close Procurements

Discussion 0
Questions 250

Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?

Options:

A.  

Schedule data

B.  

Activity list

C.  

Risk register

D.  

Scope baseline

Discussion 0
Questions 251

An example of a group decision-ma king technique is:

Options:

A.  

Nominal group technique.

B.  

Majority.

C.  

Affinity diagram.

D.  

Multi-criteria decision analysis.

Discussion 0
Questions 252

Which tool or technique is effective in a project in which the deliverable is not a service or result?

Options:

A.  

Inspection

B.  

Variance analysis

C.  

Decomposition

D.  

Product analysis

Discussion 0
Questions 253

An employee was hired to work on ongoing, repetitive activities in the accounting department. The employee's duties are managing and controlling day-to-day activities. Which type of managing is the employee performing?

Options:

A.  

Strategic

B.  

Finance

C.  

Project

D.  

Operations

Discussion 0
Questions 254

Configuration identification, configuration status accounting, and configuration verification and audit are all activities in which process?

Options:

A.  

Perform Quality Assurance

B.  

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.  

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.  

Perform Integrated Change Control

Discussion 0
Questions 255

During what project management process does the project team begin identifying risks?

Options:

A.  

Initiating

B.  

Planning

C.  

Executing

D.  

Monitoring and Controlling

Discussion 0
Questions 256

The iterative and interactive nature of the Process Groups creates the need for the processes in which Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.  

Project Communications Management

B.  

Project Integration Management

C.  

Project Risk Management

D.  

Project Scope Management

Discussion 0
Questions 257

Which three of the following are key traits of a project leader? (Choose three)

Options:

A.  

Rely on control.

B.  

Focus on near-team goals.

C.  

Convey trust and inspire trust in other team members.

D.  

Challenge the status quo and do things differently.

E.  

Focus on the horizon.

Discussion 0
Questions 258

The project manager is looking at a precedence diagram.... the duration of this task?

The project manager is looking at a precedence diagram and needs to report back about the project status The total duration of the task is ten days, and both Activity A and B need be completed. Activity A has a duration of six days, and activity B has a duration of four days Activity B has a finish-to-start relationship with activity A Under current circumstances, activity A will take about seven days to complete.

What is the outcome of the duration of this task'?

Options:

A.  

The task will be completed on time.

B.  

The task will not be completed on time.

C.  

Activity A is not a critical path task

D.  

The precedence diagram cannot be used to provide answers for duration calculations

Discussion 0
Questions 259

Which additional considerations should the project manager make when managing risks in an agile/adaptive project?

Options:

A.  

Add more risk categories

B.  

Identify, analyze, and manage risk during each iteration of the project

C.  

Add new values to the probability and impact matrix

D.  

Increase the reserves because of the high variability environment

Discussion 0
Questions 260

Which of the following lists represents trends and emerging practices in Project Risk Management?

Options:

A.  

Integrated risk management, non-event risks, and project resilience

B.  

Representation of uncertainty, strategies for opportunities, and strategies for overall project risk

C.  

Dormancy, proximity, and propinquity

D.  

Simulation, sensitivity analysis, and decision tree analysis

Discussion 0
Questions 261

What is the Project Schedule Management practice used to deliver incremental value to the customer'?

Options:

A.  

Resource optimization

B.  

Iterative scheduling with a backlog

C.  

On-demand scheduling

D.  

Critical path method

Discussion 0
Questions 262

What does the creation of a project management plan accomplish?

Options:

A.  

Defines the basis of all project work and how it will be performed

B.  

Acknowledges the existence of a project and defines its high-level information

C.  

Authorizes the project manager to apply organizational resources to project activities

D.  

Provides the project manager with organizational standards, policies, processes, and procedures

Discussion 0
Questions 263

Which basic quality tool is most useful when gathering attributes data in an inspection to identify defects?

Options:

A.  

Control charts

B.  

Pareto diagrams

C.  

Ishikavva diagrams

D.  

Checksheets

Discussion 0
Questions 264

A project manager at a publishing company decides to initiate the editing phase of the project as soon as each chapter is written. Which type of Sequence Activities tool and technique is involved, considering that there was a start-to-start relationship with a 15-day delay?

Options:

A.  

Slack

B.  

Float

C.  

Lag

D.  

Lead

Discussion 0
Questions 265

Processes in the Planning Process Group are typically carried out during which part of the project life cycle?

Options:

A.  

Only once, at the beginning

B.  

At the beginning and the end

C.  

Once during each phase

D.  

Repeatedly

Discussion 0
Questions 266

Which of the following are three inputs to the risk register?

Options:

A.  

Risk register updates, stakeholder register, and quality management plan

B.  

Communication management plan, enterprise environmental factors, and activity duration estimates

C.  

Risk management plan, activity cost estimates, and project documents

D.  

Project scope statement, organizational process assets, and scope baseline

Discussion 0
Questions 267

Which tool or technique can a project manager use to select in advance a team member who will be crucial to the task?

Options:

A.  

Acquisition

B.  

Negotiation

C.  

Virtual team

D.  

Pre-assignment

Discussion 0
Questions 268

Which of the following are an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Identify Risks process?

Options:

A.  

Work performance reports

B.  

Assumptions logs

C.  

Network diagrams

D.  

Academic studies

Discussion 0
Questions 269

The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group includes processes that:

Options:

A.  

Establish the scope, objectives, and course of action of a project,

B.  

Define a new project or a new phase of an existing project.

C.  

Track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of a project.

D.  

Complete the work defined in the project management plan.

Discussion 0
Questions 270

The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as:

Options:

A.  

Plan Schedule Management.

B.  

Develop Project Charter.

C.  

Develop Schedule.

D.  

Plan Scope Management.

Discussion 0
Questions 271

Which tool or technique is used in validating the scope of a project?

Options:

A.  

Facilitated workshops

B.  

Interviews

C.  

Inspection

D.  

Meetings

Discussion 0
Questions 272

Which grid shows which resources are tied to work packages?

Options:

A.  

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.  

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

C.  

Project assignment chart

D.  

Personnel assignment matrix

Discussion 0
Questions 273

An input to the Identify Stakeholders process is:

Options:

A.  

The project management plan.

B.  

The stakeholder register.

C.  

Procurement documents.

D.  

Stakeholder analysis.

Discussion 0
Questions 274

A tool and technique used during the Define Scope process is:

Options:

A.  

facilitated workshops.

B.  

observations.

C.  

questionnaires and surveys.

D.  

group creativity techniques.

Discussion 0
Questions 275

A project manager builds consensus and overcomes obstacles by employing which communication technique?

Options:

A.  

Listening

B.  

Facilitation

C.  

Meeting management

D.  

Presentation

Discussion 0
Questions 276

Which process in Project Time Management includes reserve analysis as a tool or technique?

Options:

A.  

Estimate Activity Resources

B.  

Sequence Activities

C.  

Estimate Activity Durations

D.  

Develop Schedule

Discussion 0
Questions 277

Which tool or technique is used to manage change requests and the resulting decisions?

Options:

A.  

Change control tools

B.  

Expert judgment

C.  

Delphi technique

D.  

Change log

Discussion 0
Questions 278

The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action is known as:

Options:

A.  

Plan Risk Management.

B.  

Plan Risk Responses.

C.  

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.

D.  

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.

Discussion 0
Questions 279

Risk exists the moment that a project is:

Options:

A.  

planned.

B.  

conceived.

C.  

chartered.

D.  

executed.

Discussion 0
Questions 280

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique used in which process?

Options:

A.  

Control Costs

B.  

Determine Budget

C.  

Estimate Costs

D.  

Control Budget

Discussion 0
Questions 281

How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and low interest be grouped in a power/interest grid during stakeholder analysis?

Options:

A.  

Keep satisfied

B.  

Keep informed

C.  

Manage closely

D.  

Monitor

Discussion 0
Questions 282

Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?

Options:

A.  

Strategic plan

B.  

Project charter

C.  

Project management plan

D.  

Service level agreement

Discussion 0
Questions 283

Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of return, discounted cash flow, and net present value are all examples of:

Options:

A.  

Expert judgment.

B.  

Analytical techniques.

C.  

Earned value management.

D.  

Group decision-making techniques.

Discussion 0
Questions 284

Which of the following reduces the probability of potential consequences of project risk events?

Options:

A.  

Preventive action

B.  

Risk management

C.  

Corrective action

D.  

Defect repair

Discussion 0
Questions 285

Which provides the basic framework for managing a project?

Options:

A.  

Project life cycle

B.  

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C.  

Enterprise environmental factors

D.  

Project initiation

Discussion 0
Questions 286

Which stakeholder classification model groups stakeholders based on their level of authority and their active involvement in the project?

Options:

A.  

Power/influence grid

B.  

Power/interest grid

C.  

Influence/impact grid

D.  

Salience model

Discussion 0
Questions 287

One of the objectives of a quality audit is to:

Options:

A.  

highlight the need for root cause analysis.

B.  

share the process documentation among stakeholders.

C.  

offer assistance with non-value-added activities.

D.  

identify all of the gaps or shortcomings.

Discussion 0
Questions 288

Which type of dependency is legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of work and often involves physical limitations?

Options:

A.  

Mandatory

B.  

Discretionary

C.  

Internal

D.  

External

Discussion 0
Questions 289

While preparing the project management plan on a weekly basis, the project manager indicates the intention to provide an issues report to the staff via e-mail. In which part of the plan will this type of information be included?

Options:

A.  

Communications management plan

B.  

Human resource plan

C.  

Quality management plan

D.  

Procurement management plan

Discussion 0
Questions 290

The ways in which the roles and responsibilities, reporting relationships, and staffing management will be addressed and structured within a project is described in the:

Options:

A.  

Human resource management plan.

B.  

Activity resource requirements.

C.  

Personnel assessment tools,

D.  

Multi-criteria decision analysis.

Discussion 0
Questions 291

When does the project team determine which dependencies are discretionary?

Options:

A.  

Before the Define Activities process

B.  

During the Define Activities process

C.  

Before the Sequence Activities process

D.  

During the Sequence Activities process

Discussion 0
Questions 292

The basis of identification for current or potential problems to support later claims or new procurements is provided by:

Options:

A.  

A risk urgency assessment.

B.  

The scope baseline.

C.  

Work performance information.

D.  

Procurement audits.

Discussion 0
Questions 293

Which tool or technique is used in the Develop Project Management Plan process?

Options:

A.  

Pareto diagram

B.  

Performance reporting

C.  

SWOT analysis

D.  

Expert judgment

Discussion 0
Questions 294

Which item is an output of Plan Quality Management and an input to Perform Quality Assurance?

Options:

A.  

Organizational process updates

B.  

Quality metrics

C.  

Change requests

D.  

Quality control measurements

Discussion 0
Questions 295

Which activity may occur at project or phase closure?

Options:

A.  

Acceptance of deliverables

B.  

Change requests

C.  

Project management plan updates

D.  

Benchmarking

Discussion 0
Questions 296

When a backward pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is later than the early finish date that has been calculated during a forward pass calculation, this causes which type of total float?

Options:

A.  

Negative

B.  

Zero

C.  

Positive

D.  

Free

Discussion 0
Questions 297

The Identify Stakeholders process is found in which Process Group?

Options:

A.  

Initiating

B.  

Monitoring and Controlling

C.  

Planning

D.  

Executing

Discussion 0
Questions 298

An input to Close Project or Phase is:

Options:

A.  

Accepted deliverables,

B.  

Final products or services,

C.  

Document updates,

D.  

Work performance information.

Discussion 0
Questions 299

An output of the Direct and Manage Project Work process is:

Options:

A.  

Deliverables.

B.  

Activity lists.

C.  

A work breakdown structure.

D.  

A scope statement.

Discussion 0
Questions 300

Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?

Options:

A.  

Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness

B.  

Preparedness, project management knowledge, and personality characteristics

C.  

General management, preparedness, and project management knowledge

D.  

Assertiveness, collaboration, and performance skills

Discussion 0
Questions 301

Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?

Options:

A.  

Control Scope

B.  

Define Scope

C.  

Plan Scope Management

D.  

Collect Requirements

Discussion 0
Questions 302

Which input will be used when tasked with developing the human resource plan?

Options:

A.  

Project management plan

B.  

Activity resource requirements

C.  

Resource calendar

D.  

Project staff assignments

Discussion 0
Questions 303

Which process requires implementation of approved changes?

Options:

A.  

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.  

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.  

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.  

Close Project or Phase

Discussion 0
Questions 304

Expected monetary value (EMV) is computed by which equation?

Options:

A.  

Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of occurrence

B.  

Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of non-occurrence

C.  

Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of occurrence and adding the products together

D.  

Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of non-occurrence and adding the products together

Discussion 0
Questions 305

A technique used to determine the cause and degree of difference between baseline and actual performance is:

Options:

A.  

Product analysis.

B.  

Variance analysis.

C.  

Document analysis,

D.  

Decomposition.

Discussion 0
Questions 306

The business needs, assumptions, and constraints and the understanding of the customers needs and high-level requirements are documented in the:

Options:

A.  

Project management plan.

B.  

Project charter.

C.  

Work breakdown structure.

D.  

Stakeholder register.

Discussion 0
Questions 307

Which of the following includes how requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported?

Options:

A.  

Configuration management plan

B.  

Scope baseline

C.  

Requirements management plan

D.  

Schedule baseline

Discussion 0
Questions 308

Which Plan Schedule Management tool or technique may involve choosing strategic options to estimate and schedule the project?

Options:

A.  

Facilitation techniques

B.  

Expert judgment

C.  

Analytical techniques

D.  

Variance analysis

Discussion 0
Questions 309

Which statement correctly describes the value of a business case?

Options:

A.  

It provides the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment.

B.  

It provides for alternative dispute resolution procedures in event of contract default.

C.  

It offers one of several alternative scenarios which assist in performing qualitative risk analysis.

D.  

It is used to help a project manager understand the scope of commercial advantages.

Discussion 0
Questions 310

A temporary endeavor that creates a unique product or service is called a:

Options:

A.  

Project

B.  

Plan

C.  

Program

D.  

Portfolio

Discussion 0
Questions 311

What happens to a stakeholder's project influence over time?

Options:

A.  

Increases

B.  

Decreases

C.  

Stays the same

D.  

Has no bearing

Discussion 0
Questions 312

An output of the Validate Scope process is:

Options:

A.  

A requirements traceability matrix.

B.  

The scope management plan.

C.  

Work performance reports.

D.  

Change requests.

Discussion 0
Questions 313

Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project?

Options:

A.  

Procurement documents

B.  

Communications plan

C.  

Project charter

D.  

Stakeholder register

Discussion 0
Questions 314

Which of the following can be used as an input for Define Scope?

Options:

A.  

Product analysis

B.  

Project charter

C.  

Scope baseline

D.  

Project scope statement

Discussion 0
Questions 315

Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process?

Options:

A.  

Benchmarking, expert judgment, and analytical techniques

B.  

Statistical sampling, benchmarking, and meetings

C.  

Negotiations, pre-assignment, and multi-criteria decision analysis

D.  

Expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings

Discussion 0
Questions 316

A reward can only be effective if it is:

Options:

A.  

Given immediately after the project is completed.

B.  

Something that is tangible.

C.  

Formally given during project performance appraisals.

D.  

Satisfying a need valued by the individual.

Discussion 0
Questions 317

The process to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used is:

Options:

A.  

Plan Quality.

B.  

Perform Quality Assurance.

C.  

Perform Quality Control.

D.  

Total Quality Management.

Discussion 0
Questions 318

Which group is formally chartered and responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or rejecting changes to the project and for recording and communicating decisions?

Options:

A.  

Project team

B.  

Focus group

C.  

Change control board

D.  

Project stakeholders

Discussion 0
Questions 319

A large portion of a projects budget is typically expended on the processes in which Process Group?

Options:

A.  

Executing

B.  

Planning

C.  

Monitoring and Controlling

D.  

Closing

Discussion 0
Questions 320

Sensitivity analysis is typically displayed as a/an:

Options:

A.  

Decision tree diagram.

B.  

Tornado diagram.

C.  

Pareto diagram.

D.  

Ishikawa diagram.

Discussion 0
Questions 321

The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting relationships and creating a staffing management plan is known as:

Options:

A.  

Develop Project Team.

B.  

Manage Project Team.

C.  

Acquire Project Team.

D.  

Plan Human Resource Management.

Discussion 0
Questions 322

Which is one of the determining factors used to calculate CPI?

Options:

A.  

EV

B.  

SPI

C.  

PV

D.  

ETC

Discussion 0
Questions 323

Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives?

Options:

A.  

Identify Risks

B.  

Control Risks

C.  

Plan Risk Management

D.  

Plan Risk Responses

Discussion 0
Questions 324

The total of the planned value (PV) is also known as:

Options:

A.  

work breakdown structure (WBS).

B.  

schedule target.

C.  

performance measurement baseline (PMB).

D.  

earned value baseline.

Discussion 0
Questions 325

An output of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is:

Options:

A.  

change requests

B.  

enterprise environmental factors

C.  

the stakeholder management plan

D.  

the change log

Discussion 0
Questions 326

The technique of subdividing project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components until the work and deliverables are defined to the work package level is called:

Options:

A.  

a control chart.

B.  

baseline.

C.  

Create WBS.

D.  

decomposition.

Discussion 0
Questions 327

A tool and technique used during the Collect Requirements process is:

Options:

A.  

prototypes.

B.  

expert judgment.

C.  

alternatives identification.

D.  

product analysis.

Discussion 0
Questions 328

What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?

Options:

A.  

0.50

B.  

0.67

C.  

1.50

D.  

2.00

Discussion 0
Questions 329

Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?

Options:

A.  

Mitigate

B.  

Transfer

C.  

Exploit

D.  

Avoid

Discussion 0
Questions 330

Which conflict resolution technique searches for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily or partially resolve the conflict?

Options:

A.  

Force/direct

B.  

Withdraw/avoid

C.  

Compromise/reconcile

D.  

Collaborate/problem solve

Discussion 0
Questions 331

Using values such as scope, cost, budget, and duration or measures of scale such as size, weight, and complexity from a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measurement for a current project describes which type of estimating?

Options:

A.  

Bottom-up

B.  

Parametric

C.  

Analogous

D.  

Three-point

Discussion 0
Questions 332

Typical outcomes of a project include:

Options:

A.  

Products, services, and improvements.

B.  

Products, programs, and services.

C.  

Improvements, portfolios, and services.

D.  

Improvements, processes, and products.

Discussion 0
Questions 333

Scope, schedule, and cost parameters are integrated in the:

Options:

A.  

Performance measurement baseline.

B.  

Analysis of project forecasts,

C.  

Summary of changes approved in a period,

D.  

Analysis of past performance.

Discussion 0
Questions 334

Which key interpersonal skill of a project manager is defined as the strategy of sharing power and relying on interpersonal skills to convince others to cooperate toward common goals?

Options:

A.  

Collaboration

B.  

Negotiation

C.  

Decision making

D.  

Influencing

Discussion 0
Questions 335

In the basic communication model, which term refers to the method that is used to convey the message?

Options:

A.  

Decode

B.  

Encode

C.  

Medium

D.  

Noise

Discussion 0
Questions 336

The item that provides more detailed descriptions of the components in the work breakdown structure (WB5) is called a WBS:

Options:

A.  

dictionary.

B.  

chart.

C.  

report.

D.  

register.

Discussion 0
Questions 337

The process for performing variance analysis may vary, depending on:

Options:

A.  

scenario building, technology forecasting, and forecast by analogy.

B.  

working relationships among various stakeholders and team members.

C.  

application area, the standard used, and the industry,

D.  

work to be completed next.

Discussion 0
Questions 338

Which of the following types of a dependency determination is used to define the sequence of activities?

Options:

A.  

Legal

B.  

Discretionary

C.  

Internal

D.  

Resource

Discussion 0
Questions 339

Which of the following is an input to the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process?

Options:

A.  

Risk register

B.  

Risk data quality assessment

C.  

Risk categorization

D.  

Risk urgency

Discussion 0
Questions 340

Which is an input to the Verify Scope process?

Options:

A.  

Performance report

B.  

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C.  

Requested changes

D.  

Project management plan

Discussion 0
Questions 341

A purchase order for a specified item to be delivered by a specified date for a specified price is the simplest form of what type of contract?

Options:

A.  

Cost-reimbursable

B.  

Time and material

C.  

Fixed price or lump-sum

D.  

Cost-plus-fixed-fee

Discussion 0
Questions 342

The milestone list is an input to which process from the Planning Process Group?

Options:

A.  

Define Activities

B.  

Estimate Activity Durations

C.  

Estimate Activity Resources

D.  

Sequence Activities

Discussion 0
Questions 343

In a functional organization, the director of an important stakeholder business group expressed concern to a line manager about the progress of the project. What should the line manager do next?

Options:

A.  

Hold a face-to-face meeting with the project manager and warn them.

B.  

Point the director to a link where they can take a look at the reports.

C.  

Invite stakeholders to attend monthly progress review meetings.

D.  

Ask the project manager to update the monthly status report distribution list.

Discussion 0
Questions 344

The Project Management Process Group in which performance is observed and measured regularly from project initiation through completion is:

Options:

A.  

Executing.

B.  

Initiating,

C.  

Monitoring and Controlling.

D.  

Planning.

Discussion 0
Questions 345

Which tool and technique is used in Conduct Procurements?

Options:

A.  

Teaming agreements

B.  

Expert judgment

C.  

Bidder conferences

D.  

Contract types

Discussion 0
Questions 346

Which of the following is developed from the project scope baseline and defines only that portion of the project scope that is to be included within a related contract?

Options:

A.  

Product scope description

B.  

Procurement statement of work

C.  

Project schedule

D.  

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Discussion 0
Questions 347

Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Verify Scope process?

Options:

A.  

Inspection

B.  

Variance analysis

C.  

Expert judgment

D.  

Decomposition

Discussion 0
Questions 348

Change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, and organizational process assets updates are all outputs of which project management process?

Options:

A.  

Plan Risk Responses

B.  

Manage Stakeholder Expectations

C.  

Define Scope

D.  

Report Performance

Discussion 0
Questions 349

Which written document helps monitor who is responsible for resolving specific problems and concerns by a target date?

Options:

A.  

Project Plan

B.  

Responsibility Matrix

C.  

Issue Log

D.  

Scope Document

Discussion 0
Questions 350

Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques is applied when a critical path method calculation has been completed and resources availability is critical?

Options:

A.  

Applying calendars

B.  

Resource leveling

C.  

Resource planning

D.  

Resource conflict management

Discussion 0
Questions 351

What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data? BAC = $100,000 PV = $50,000 AC = $80,000 EV = $40,000

Options:

A.  

1

B.  

0.4

C.  

0.5

D.  

0.8

Discussion 0
Questions 352

Which tool or technique is used in Close Procurements?

Options:

A.  

Contract plan

B.  

Procurement plan

C.  

Closure process

D.  

Procurement audits

Discussion 0
Questions 353

Which of the following is an information gathering technique in Identify Risks?

Options:

A.  

Influence diagrams

B.  

Brainstorming

C.  

Assumption analysis

D.  

SWOT analysis

Discussion 0
Questions 354

Documented identification of a flaw in a project component together with a recommendation is termed a:

Options:

A.  

corrective action.

B.  

preventive action.

C.  

non-conformance report,

D.  

defect repair.

Discussion 0
Questions 355

How is the schedule variance calculated using the earned value technique?

Options:

A.  

EV less AC

B.  

AC less PV

C.  

EV less PV

D.  

AC less EV

Discussion 0
Questions 356

The progressive detailing of the project management plan is called:

Options:

A.  

expert judgment.

B.  

rolling wave planning.

C.  

work performance information.

D.  

specification.

Discussion 0
Questions 357

Managing procurement relationships and monitoring contract performance are part of which process?

Options:

A.  

Conduct Procurements

B.  

Plan Procurements

C.  

Administer Procurements

D.  

Close Procurements

Discussion 0
Questions 358

Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories?

Options:

A.  

Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materials

B.  

Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed-price

C.  

Time and materials, fixed-price, margin analysis

D.  

Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus-incentive

Discussion 0
Questions 359

Which Perform Quality Control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate?

Options:

A.  

Control chart

B.  

Flowchart

C.  

Run chart

D.  

Pareto chart

Discussion 0
Questions 360

A given schedule activity is most likely to last four weeks. In a best-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last two weeks. In a worst-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last 12 weeks. Given these three estimates, what is the expected duration of the activity?

Options:

A.  

Three weeks

B.  

Four weeks

C.  

Five weeks

D.  

Six weeks

Discussion 0
Questions 361

The process of identifying the stakeholders' information needs is completed during:

Options:

A.  

Plan Communications.

B.  

Manage Stakeholder Expectations.

C.  

Stakeholder Analysis.

D.  

Identify Stakeholders.

Discussion 0
Questions 362

A tool or technique in Perform Quality Control that a project manager would use is:

Options:

A.  

quality audits.

B.  

process analysis.

C.  

benchmarking.

D.  

inspection.

Discussion 0
Questions 363

Which is the correct formula for calculating expected activity cost for three-point estimating?

Options:

A.  

Ce = (C0 + 6Cm + Cp)/4

B.  

Ce = (6C0 + Cm + Cp)/4

C.  

Ce = (C0 + 4Cm + Cp)/6

D.  

Ce = (C0 + C„, + 4Cp) / 6

Discussion 0
Questions 364

What does a CPI value greater than 1.0 indicate?

Options:

A.  

Cost right at the estimated value

B.  

Cost under the estimated value

C.  

Cost right at the actual value

D.  

Cost over the estimated value

Discussion 0
Questions 365

When calculating the cost of quality (COQ) for a product or service, money spent for cost of conformance would include the areas of:

Options:

A.  

training, testing, and warranty work.

B.  

equipment, rework, and scrap.

C.  

training, document processes, and inspections.

D.  

inspections, rework, and warranty work.

Discussion 0
Questions 366

Based on the following metrics: EV= $20,000, AC= $22,000, and PV= $28,000, what is the project CV?

Options:

A.  

-8000

B.  

-2000

C.  

2000

D.  

8000

Discussion 0
Questions 367

What is the responsibility of the project manager and the functional manager respectively?

Options:

A.  

Oversight for an administrative area; a facet of the core business

B.  

Achieving the project objectives; providing management oversight for an administrative area

C.  

A facet of the core business; achieving the project objectives

D.  

Both are responsible for achieving the project objectives.

Discussion 0
Questions 368

Which degree of authority does a project manager have on a project in a strong matrix organizational structure?

Options:

A.  

Limited

B.  

Low to moderate

C.  

Moderate to high

D.  

High to almost total

Discussion 0
Questions 369

"Tailoring" is defined as the:

Options:

A.  

effort of addressing each process to determine which are appropriate and their appropriate degree of rigor.

B.  

act of creating a project team with the specialized skills required to produce a required product or service.

C.  

action taken to bring a defective or nonconforming component into compliance with requirements or specifications.

D.  

adjustment of the respective influences of time, cost, and quality in order to most efficiently achieve scope.

Discussion 0
Questions 370

Which of the following Process Groups covers all nine Project Management Knowledge Areas?

Options:

A.  

Executing

B.  

Monitoring and Controlling

C.  

Planning

D.  

Initiating

Discussion 0
Questions 371

Which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the project work?

Options:

A.  

WBS directory

B.  

Activity list

C.  

WBS

D.  

Project schedule

Discussion 0
Questions 372

The project manager at an organization has just realized that some of the engineering staff has been allocated to project Y and will not be available to finish task X. The project manager has also discovered that at the current pace, it will not be possible to complete the project on time. Due to cost constraints, hiring more work force is not a viable option. Which tools are at the manager's disposal?

Options:

A.  

Resource leveling and fast tracking

B.  

Fast tracking and crashing

C.  

Crashing and applying leads and lags

D.  

Scheduling tools and applying leads and lags

Discussion 0
Questions 373

Which of the following events would result in a baseline update?

Options:

A.  

A project is behind schedule and the project manager wants the baseline to reflect estimated actual completion.

B.  

A customer has approved a change request broadening the project scope and increasing the budget.

C.  

One of the risks identified in the risk management plan occurs, resulting in a schedule delay.

D.  

One of the key project team resources has left the team and no replacement is available.

Discussion 0
Questions 374

In which Process Group are lessons learned documented?

Options:

A.  

Planning

B.  

Closing

C.  

Executing

D.  

Initiating

Discussion 0
Questions 375

When large or complex projects are separated into distinct phases or subprojects, all of the Process Groups would normally be:

Options:

A.  

divided among each of the phases or subprojects.

B.  

repeated for each of the phases or subprojects.

C.  

linked to specific phases or subprojects.

D.  

integrated for specific phases or subprojects.

Discussion 0
Questions 376

Co-location is a tool and technique of:

Options:

A.  

Develop Human Resource Plan.

B.  

Manage Project Team.

C.  

Develop Project Team.

D.  

Acquire Project Team.

Discussion 0
Questions 377

Lessons learned documentation is gathered during which of the following Project Management Process Groups?

Options:

A.  

Planning

B.  

Executing

C.  

Closing

D.  

Initiating

Discussion 0
Questions 378

In a weak matrix, the project managers role is:

Options:

A.  

part-time

B.  

full-time

C.  

occasional

D.  

unlimited

Discussion 0
Questions 379

When sequencing activities, what does the common acronym FF stand for?

Options:

A.  

Fixed Fee

B.  

Free Float

C.  

Fixed Finish

D.  

Finish-to-Finish

Discussion 0
Questions 380

The PV is $1000, EV is $2000, and AC is $1500. What is CPI?

Options:

A.  

1.33

B.  

2

C.  

0.75

D.  

0.5

Discussion 0
Questions 381

Which type of agreement is legal, contractual, and between two or more entities to form a partnership, joint venture, or some other arrangement as defined by the parties?

Options:

A.  

Teaming

B.  

Collective bargaining

C.  

Sharing

D.  

Working

Discussion 0
Questions 382

Which technique helps to determine the risks that have the most potential impact on a project?

Options:

A.  

Cost risk simulation analysis

B.  

Expected monetary value analysis

C.  

Modeling and simulation

D.  

Sensitivity analysis

Discussion 0
Questions 383

To please the customer, a project team member delivers a requirement which is uncontrolled. This is not part of the plan. This describes:

Options:

A.  

scope creep.

B.  

a change request.

C.  

work performance information.

D.  

deliverables.

Discussion 0
Questions 384

Which type of chart is a graphic representation of a process showing the relationships among process steps?

Options:

A.  

Control

B.  

Bar

C.  

Flow

D.  

Pareto

Discussion 0
Questions 385

Another name for an Ishikawa diagram is:

Options:

A.  

cause and effect diagram.

B.  

control chart.

C.  

flowchart.

D.  

histogram.

Discussion 0
Questions 386

Which is an output from Distribute Information?

Options:

A.  

Earned value analysis

B.  

Trend analysis

C.  

Project records

D.  

Performance reviews

Discussion 0
Questions 387

Which of the following is an input to Control Scope?

Options:

A.  

Project schedule

B.  

Organizational process assets updates

C.  

Project document updates

D.  

Work performance information

Discussion 0
Questions 388

Monte Carlo is which type of risk analysis technique?

Options:

A.  

Probability

B.  

Quantitative

C.  

Qualitative

D.  

Sensitivity

Discussion 0
Questions 389

In which process is a project manager identified and given the authority to apply resources to project activities?

Options:

A.  

Acquire Project Team

B.  

Develop Project Management Plan

C.  

Manage Project Execution

D.  

Develop Project Charter

Discussion 0
Questions 390

Changes to formally controlled documentation, plans, etc. to reflect modified or additional ideas or content are known as:

Options:

A.  

updates.

B.  

defect repairs.

C.  

preventive actions.

D.  

corrective actions.

Discussion 0
Questions 391

A project has a current cost performance index (CPI) of 1.25. To date, US$10,000 have been spent on performing the project work. What is the earned value of the work completed to date?

Options:

A.  

US$S000

B.  

US$9500

C.  

US$10,000

D.  

US$12,500

Discussion 0