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Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Question and Answers

Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM)

Last Update Apr 18, 2024
Total Questions : 1135

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Questions 1

A project has a current cost performance index (CPI) of 1.25. To date, US$10,000 have been spent on performing the project work. What is the earned value of the work completed to date?

Options:

A.  

US$S000

B.  

US$9500

C.  

US$10,000

D.  

US$12,500

Discussion 0
Questions 2

Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may require near term action?

Options:

A.  

Probability and impact matrix

B.  

Contingency analysis report

C.  

Risk urgency assessment

D.  

Rolling wave plan

Discussion 0
Questions 3

Which tool or technique is used in Manage Stakeholder Expectations?

Options:

A.  

Stakeholder management strategy

B.  

Communication methods

C.  

Issue log

D.  

Change requests

Discussion 0
Questions 4

Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories?

Options:

A.  

Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materials

B.  

Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed-price

C.  

Time and materials, fixed-price, margin analysis

D.  

Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus-incentive

Discussion 0
Questions 5

An input to the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process is the:

Options:

A.  

quality management plan.

B.  

project management plan.

C.  

communications management plan.

D.  

schedule management plan.

Discussion 0
Questions 6

When large or complex projects are separated into distinct phases or subprojects, all of the Process Groups would normally be:

Options:

A.  

divided among each of the phases or subprojects.

B.  

repeated for each of the phases or subprojects.

C.  

linked to specific phases or subprojects.

D.  

integrated for specific phases or subprojects.

Discussion 0
Questions 7

Which tool or technique is used in Close Procurements?

Options:

A.  

Contract plan

B.  

Procurement plan

C.  

Closure process

D.  

Procurement audits

Discussion 0
Questions 8

Which process occurs within the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?

Options:

A.  

Control Costs

B.  

Plan Quality

C.  

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D.  

Determine Budget

Discussion 0
Questions 9

The progressive detailing of the project management plan is called:

Options:

A.  

expert judgment.

B.  

rolling wave planning.

C.  

work performance information.

D.  

specification.

Discussion 0
Questions 10

When sequencing activities, what does the common acronym FF stand for?

Options:

A.  

Fixed Fee

B.  

Free Float

C.  

Fixed Finish

D.  

Finish-to-Finish

Discussion 0
Questions 11

The precedence diagramming method (PDM) is also known as:

Options:

A.  

Arrow Diagram.

B.  

Critical Path Methodology (CPM).

C.  

Activity-On-Node (AON).

D.  

schedule network diagram.

Discussion 0
Questions 12

The project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to which Project Time Management process?

Options:

A.  

Sequence Activities

B.  

Estimate Activity Resources

C.  

Develop Schedule

D.  

Control Schedule

Discussion 0
Questions 13

In which process is a project manager identified and given the authority to apply resources to project activities?

Options:

A.  

Acquire Project Team

B.  

Develop Project Management Plan

C.  

Manage Project Execution

D.  

Develop Project Charter

Discussion 0
Questions 14

Which of the following is an input to the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process?

Options:

A.  

Risk register

B.  

Risk data quality assessment

C.  

Risk categorization

D.  

Risk urgency

Discussion 0
Questions 15

Which is the correct formula for calculating expected activity cost for three-point estimating?

Options:

A.  

Ce = (C0 + 6Cm + Cp)/4

B.  

Ce = (6C0 + Cm + Cp)/4

C.  

Ce = (C0 + 4Cm + Cp)/6

D.  

Ce = (C0 + C„, + 4Cp) / 6

Discussion 0
Questions 16

Which of the following is developed from the project scope baseline and defines only that portion of the project scope that is to be included within a related contract?

Options:

A.  

Product scope description

B.  

Procurement statement of work

C.  

Project schedule

D.  

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Discussion 0
Questions 17

Ensuring that both parties meet contractual obligations and that their own legal rights are protected is a function of:

Options:

A.  

Conduct Procurements.

B.  

Close Procurements.

C.  

Administer Procurements,

D.  

Plan Procurements.

Discussion 0
Questions 18

Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources are processes in which project management Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.  

Project Time Management

B.  

Project Cost Management

C.  

Project Scope Management

D.  

Project Human Resource Management

Discussion 0
Questions 19

Which technique helps to determine the risks that have the most potential impact on a project?

Options:

A.  

Cost risk simulation analysis

B.  

Expected monetary value analysis

C.  

Modeling and simulation

D.  

Sensitivity analysis

Discussion 0
Questions 20

Which type of analysis is used as a general management technique within the Plan Procurements process?

Options:

A.  

Risk assessment analysis

B.  

Make or buy analysis

C.  

Contract value analysis

D.  

Cost impact analysis

Discussion 0
Questions 21

The project manager needs to review the templates in use. The templates are part of the:

Options:

A.  

Enterprise environmental factors.

B.  

Historical information,

C.  

Organizational process assets.

D.  

Corporate knowledge base.

Discussion 0
Questions 22

The output that defines an approach to increase the support and minimize negative impacts of stakeholders is the:

Options:

A.  

stakeholder management strategy.

B.  

communications management plan,

C.  

stakeholder register,

D.  

performance report.

Discussion 0
Questions 23

Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and identifying tangible components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following?

Options:

A.  

Work breakdown structure

B.  

Organizational breakdown structure

C.  

Resource breakdown structure

D.  

Bill of materials

Discussion 0
Questions 24

The formal and informal interaction with others in an organization industry, or professional environment is known as:

Options:

A.  

negotiation

B.  

organizational theory

C.  

meeting

D.  

networking

Discussion 0
Questions 25

The purpose of inspection in Perform Quality Control is to keep errors:

Options:

A.  

in line with a measured degree of conformity.

B.  

out of the hands of the customer.

C.  

in a specified range of acceptable results.

D.  

out of the process.

Discussion 0
Questions 26

Which process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships between project activities?

Options:

A.  

Develop Schedule

B.  

Sequence Activities

C.  

Create WBS

D.  

Applying leads and lags

Discussion 0
Questions 27

Which of the following is a set of interrelated actions and activities performed to achieve a prespecified product, result, or service?

Options:

A.  

Portfolio

B.  

Process

C.  

Project

D.  

Program

Discussion 0
Questions 28

Which of the following is an information gathering technique in Identify Risks?

Options:

A.  

Influence diagrams

B.  

Brainstorming

C.  

Assumption analysis

D.  

SWOT analysis

Discussion 0
Questions 29

Which of the following is a conflict resolution technique that emphasizes areas of agreement rather than areas of difference?

Options:

A.  

Compromising

B.  

Collaborating

C.  

Smoothing

D.  

Problem Solving

Discussion 0
Questions 30

The project manager at an organization has just realized that some of the engineering staff has been allocated to project Y and will not be available to finish task X. The project manager has also discovered that at the current pace, it will not be possible to complete the project on time. Due to cost constraints, hiring more work force is not a viable option. Which tools are at the manager's disposal?

Options:

A.  

Resource leveling and fast tracking

B.  

Fast tracking and crashing

C.  

Crashing and applying leads and lags

D.  

Scheduling tools and applying leads and lags

Discussion 0
Questions 31

Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques is applied when a critical path method calculation has been completed and resources availability is critical?

Options:

A.  

Applying calendars

B.  

Resource leveling

C.  

Resource planning

D.  

Resource conflict management

Discussion 0
Questions 32

The milestone list is an input to which process from the Planning Process Group?

Options:

A.  

Define Activities

B.  

Estimate Activity Durations

C.  

Estimate Activity Resources

D.  

Sequence Activities

Discussion 0
Questions 33

Which of the following types of a dependency determination is used to define the sequence of activities?

Options:

A.  

Legal

B.  

Discretionary

C.  

Internal

D.  

Resource

Discussion 0
Questions 34

Which Process Group contains those processes performed to define a new project?

Options:

A.  

Initiating

B.  

Planning

C.  

Executing

D.  

Closing

Discussion 0
Questions 35

Which of the following Process Groups covers all nine Project Management Knowledge Areas?

Options:

A.  

Executing

B.  

Monitoring and Controlling

C.  

Planning

D.  

Initiating

Discussion 0
Questions 36

In which Process Group are lessons learned documented?

Options:

A.  

Planning

B.  

Closing

C.  

Executing

D.  

Initiating

Discussion 0
Questions 37

Which tool within the Perform Quality Control process identifies whether or not a process has a predictable performance?

Options:

A.  

Cause and effect diagram

B.  

Control charts

C.  

Pareto chart

D.  

Histogram

Discussion 0
Questions 38

In which Project Management Process Group is the project charter developed?

Options:

A.  

Monitoring and Controlling

B.  

Executing

C.  

Initiating

D.  

Planning

Discussion 0
Questions 39

Monte Carlo is which type of risk analysis technique?

Options:

A.  

Probability

B.  

Quantitative

C.  

Qualitative

D.  

Sensitivity

Discussion 0
Questions 40

Which of the following strategic considerations often results in project authorization?

Options:

A.  

Customer requests and/or issue resolution

B.  

Stakeholder expectations and/or strategic opportunity (business need)

C.  

Technological advancement and/or senior executive request

D.  

Market demand and/or legal requirements

Discussion 0
Questions 41

One of the tools and techniques of the Manage Project Team process is:

Options:

A.  

organization charts.

B.  

ground rules.

C.  

organizational theory,

D.  

conflict management.

Discussion 0
Questions 42

Which is a communication method used in the Report Performance process?

Options:

A.  

Expert judgment

B.  

Project management methodology

C.  

Stakeholder analysis

D.  

Status review meetings

Discussion 0
Questions 43

Types of internal failure costs include:

Options:

A.  

inspections.

B.  

equipment and training.

C.  

lost business.

D.  

reworking and scrapping.

Discussion 0
Questions 44

In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information?

Options:

A.  

Project Scope Management

B.  

Project Time Management

C.  

Project Communications Management

D.  

Project Quality Management

Discussion 0
Questions 45

Documented identification of a flaw in a project component together with a recommendation is termed a:

Options:

A.  

corrective action.

B.  

preventive action.

C.  

non-conformance report,

D.  

defect repair.

Discussion 0
Questions 46

Quality metrics are an output of which process?

Options:

A.  

Plan Quality

B.  

Perform Quality Control

C.  

Perform Quality Assurance

D.  

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Discussion 0
Questions 47

Control charts, flowcharting, histograms, Pareto charts, and scatter diagrams are tools and techniques of which process?

Options:

A.  

Perform Quality Control

B.  

Perform Quality Assurance

C.  

Plan Quality

D.  

Report Performance

Discussion 0
Questions 48

The process of monitoring the status of the project to update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline is:

Options:

A.  

Control Schedule.

B.  

Quality Control.

C.  

Perform Integrated Change Control.

D.  

Develop Schedule.

Discussion 0
Questions 49

Which tool and technique is used in Conduct Procurements?

Options:

A.  

Teaming agreements

B.  

Expert judgment

C.  

Bidder conferences

D.  

Contract types

Discussion 0
Questions 50

Labor, materials, equipment, and supplies are examples of:

Options:

A.  

Resource attributes.

B.  

Resource types.

C.  

Resource categories.

D.  

Resource breakdown structures (RBS).

Discussion 0
Questions 51

Which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the project work?

Options:

A.  

WBS directory

B.  

Activity list

C.  

WBS

D.  

Project schedule

Discussion 0
Questions 52

If the most likely duration of an activity is five weeks, the best-case duration is two weeks, and the worst-case duration is 14 weeks, how many weeks is the expected duration of the activity?

Options:

A.  

One

B.  

Five

C.  

Six

D.  

Seven

Discussion 0
Questions 53

What is the name of the statistical method that helps identify which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process under development or in production?

Options:

A.  

Failure modes and effects analysis

B.  

Design of experiments

C.  

Quality checklist

D.  

Risk analysis

Discussion 0
Questions 54

What is the term assigned to products or services having the same functional use but different technical characteristics?

Options:

A.  

Scope

B.  

Quality

C.  

Specification

D.  

Grade

Discussion 0
Questions 55

Information collected on the status of project activities being performed to accomplish the project work is known as what?

Options:

A.  

Project management information system

B.  

Work performance information

C.  

Work breakdown structure

D.  

Variance analysis

Discussion 0
Questions 56

An input to the Create WBS process is a:

Options:

A.  

project charter.

B.  

stakeholder register.

C.  

project scope statement.

D.  

requirements traceability matrix.

Discussion 0
Questions 57

When can pre-assignment of project team members occur?

Options:

A.  

When the project uses capital expenditures

B.  

When the required staff can be acquired from outside sources

C.  

When the project would be ignored due to travel expenses

D.  

When the project is the result of specific people being promised as part of a competitive proposal

Discussion 0
Questions 58

Which Develop Schedule tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date?

Options:

A.  

Critical path method

B.  

Variance analysis

C.  

Schedule compression

D.  

Schedule comparison bar charts

Discussion 0
Questions 59

Which schedule network analysis technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources?

Options:

A.  

Human resource planning

B.  

Fast tracking

C.  

Critical chain method

D.  

Rolling wave planning

Discussion 0
Questions 60

Which type of managers do composite organizations involve?

Options:

A.  

Functional managers and manager of project managers

B.  

Functional managers only

C.  

Project managers only

D.  

Technical managers and project managers

Discussion 0
Questions 61

Which technique should a project manager use in a situation in which a collaborative approach to conflict management is not possible?

Options:

A.  

Coaching

B.  

Avoidance

C.  

Consensus

D.  

Influencing

Discussion 0
Questions 62

Portfolio Management is management of:

Options:

A.  

a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub-projects.

B.  

a project by utilizing a portfolio of general management skills such as planning, organizing, staffing, executing, and controlling.

C.  

all projects undertaken by a company.

D.  

a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective management and meet strategic business objectives.

Discussion 0
Questions 63

Which of the following is contained within the communications management plan?

Options:

A.  

An organizational chart

B.  

Glossary of common terminology

C.  

Organizational process assets

D.  

Enterprise environmental factors

Discussion 0
Questions 64

What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?

Options:

A.  

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

B.  

Resource breakdown structure (RBS)

C.  

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

D.  

Project breakdown structure (PBS)

Discussion 0
Questions 65

A procurement management plan is a subsidiary of which other type of plan?

Options:

A.  

Resource plan

B.  

Project management plan

C.  

Cost control plan

D.  

Expected monetary value plan

Discussion 0
Questions 66

An input of the Control Schedule process is the:

Options:

A.  

resource calendar.

B.  

activity list.

C.  

risk management plan.

D.  

organizational process assets.

Discussion 0
Questions 67

What type of reward can hurt team cohesiveness?

Options:

A.  

Sole-sum

B.  

Win-lose

C.  

Lose-win

D.  

Partial-sum

Discussion 0
Questions 68

Which of the following processes are part of the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.  

Develop Project Management Plan, Collect Requirements, Create WBS

B.  

Develop Project Management Plan, Control Scope, Develop Schedule

C.  

Develop Project Charter, Define Scope, Estimate Costs

D.  

Develop Project Charter, Direct and Manage Project Execution, Close Project or Phase

Discussion 0
Questions 69

Which group creativity technique asks a selected group of experts to answer questionnaires and provide feedback regarding the responses from each round of requirements gathering?

Options:

A.  

The Delphi technique

B.  

Nominal group technique

C.  

Affinity diagram

D.  

Brainstorming

Discussion 0
Questions 70

Activity resource requirements and the resource breakdown structure (RBS) are outputs of which Project Time Management process?

Options:

A.  

Control Schedule

B.  

Define Activities

C.  

Develop Schedule

D.  

Estimate Activity Resources

Discussion 0
Questions 71

Project or phase closure guidelines or requirements, historical information, and the lessons learned knowledge base are examples of which input to the Close Project or Phase process?

Options:

A.  

Organizational process assets

B.  

A work breakdown structure

C.  

The project management plan

D.  

Enterprise environmental factors

Discussion 0
Questions 72

Which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating?

Options:

A.  

Control chart

B.  

Earned value

C.  

Variance

D.  

Trend

Discussion 0
Questions 73

Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages?

Options:

A.  

Estimate Costs

B.  

Estimate Activity Resources

C.  

Control Costs

D.  

Determine Budget

Discussion 0
Questions 74

Which of the following is a tool and technique for Estimate Activity Durations?

Options:

A.  

Parametric estimating

B.  

Monte Carlo analysis

C.  

Alternatives analysis

D.  

Bottom-up estimating

Discussion 0
Questions 75

Who selects the appropriate processes for a project?

Options:

A.  

Project stakeholders

B.  

Project sponsor and project stakeholder

C.  

Project manager and project team

D.  

Project manager and project sponsor

Discussion 0
Questions 76

Perform Quality Control is accomplished by:

Options:

A.  

Identifying quality standards that are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them.

B.  

Monitoring and recording the results of executing the quality activities to assess performance and recommend necessary changes.

C.  

Ensuring that the entire project team has been adequately trained in quality assurance processes.

D.  

Applying Monte Carlo, sampling, Pareto analysis, and benchmarking techniques to ensure conformance to quality standards.

Discussion 0
Questions 77

What is the probability of occurrence if the risk rating is 0.56 and the impact if the risk does occur is very high (0.80)?

Options:

A.  

0.45

B.  

0.56

C.  

0.70

D.  

1.36

Discussion 0
Questions 78

The Verify Scope process is primarily concerned with:

Options:

A.  

formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.

B.  

accuracy of the work deliverables.

C.  

formalizing approval of the scope statement.

D.  

accuracy of the work breakdown structure (WBS).

Discussion 0
Questions 79

Which Knowledge Area is concerned with the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information?

Options:

A.  

Project Integration Management

B.  

Project Communications Management

C.  

Project Information Management System (PIMS)

D.  

Project Scope Management

Discussion 0
Questions 80

Which tool is used to develop technical details within the project management plan?

Options:

A.  

Expert judgment

B.  

Project management methodology

C.  

Project management information system (PMIS)

D.  

Project selection methods

Discussion 0
Questions 81

Sharing good practices introduced or implemented in similar projects in the organization and/or industry is an example of:

Options:

A.  

quality audits

B.  

process analysis

C.  

statistical sampling

D.  

benchmarking

Discussion 0
Questions 82

The product scope description is used to:

Options:

A.  

Gain stakeholders' support for the project.

B.  

Progressively elaborate the characteristics of the product, service, or result.

C.  

Describe the project in great detail.

D.  

Define the process and criteria for accepting a completed product, service, or result.

Discussion 0
Questions 83

Which tools or techniques will a project manager use for Develop Project Team?

Options:

A.  

Negotiation

B.  

Roles and responsibilities

C.  

Recognition and rewards

D.  

Prizing and promoting

Discussion 0
Questions 84

What is the difference between the critical path and the critical chain?

Options:

A.  

Scope changes

B.  

Resource limitations

C.  

Risk analysis

D.  

Quality audits

Discussion 0
Questions 85

The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables is known as:

Options:

A.  

Define Activities.

B.  

Sequence Activities.

C.  

Define Scope.

D.  

Control Schedule.

Discussion 0
Questions 86

The creation of an internet site to engage stakeholders on a project is an example of which type of communication?

Options:

A.  

Push

B.  

Pull

C.  

Interactive

D.  

Iterative

Discussion 0
Questions 87

Which of the seven basic quality tools is especially useful for gathering attributes data while performing inspections to identify defects?

Options:

A.  

Histograms

B.  

Scatter diagrams

C.  

Flowcharts

D.  

Checksheets

Discussion 0
Questions 88

The project manager notes that stakeholders are aware of the project and potential impacts and are actively engaged in ensuring that the project is a success. The engagement level of the stakeholders should be classified as:

Options:

A.  

Supportive

B.  

Leading

C.  

Neutral

D.  

Resistant

Discussion 0
Questions 89

Taking out insurance in relation to risk management is called what?

Options:

A.  

Transference

B.  

Avoidance

C.  

Exploring

D.  

Mitigation

Discussion 0
Questions 90

Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes as project time advances?

Options:

A.  

The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases.

B.  

The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases.

C.  

The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes decreases.

D.  

The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes decreases.

Discussion 0
Questions 91

Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk to a third party?

Options:

A.  

Mitigate

B.  

Transfer

C.  

Share

D.  

Avoid

Discussion 0
Questions 92

An input of the Plan Procurement Management process is:

Options:

A.  

Make-or-buy decisions.

B.  

Activity cost estimates.

C.  

Seller proposals.

D.  

Procurement documents.

Discussion 0
Questions 93

The most commonly used type of precedence relationship in the precedence diagramming method (PDM) is:

Options:

A.  

start-to-start (SS)

B.  

start-to-finish (SF)

C.  

finish-to-start (FS)

D.  

finish-to-finish (FF)

Discussion 0
Questions 94

Which Project Management Process Group includes Collect Requirements, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, and Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?

Options:

A.  

Initiating

B.  

Monitoring and Controlling

C.  

Planning

D.  

Closing

Discussion 0
Questions 95

Definitions of probability and impact, revised stakeholder tolerances, and tracking are components of which subsidiary plan?

Options:

A.  

Cost management plan

B.  

Quality management plan

C.  

Communications management plan

D.  

Risk management plan

Discussion 0
Questions 96

As part of a mid-project evaluation, the project sponsor has asked for a forecast of the total project cost. What should be used to calculate the forecast?

Options:

A.  

BAC

B.  

EAC

C.  

ETC

D.  

WBS

Discussion 0
Questions 97

Which Process Group typically consumes the bulk of a project's budget?

Options:

A.  

Monitoring and Controlling

B.  

Executing

C.  

Planning

D.  

Initiating

Discussion 0
Questions 98

A change log for communications can be used to communicate to the appropriate stakeholders that there are changes:

Options:

A.  

To the project management plan.

B.  

To the risk register.

C.  

In the scope verification processes.

D.  

And their impact to the project in terms of time, cost, and risk.

Discussion 0
Questions 99

What should the project manager use to evaluate the politics and power structure among stakeholders inside and outside of the organization?

Options:

A.  

Expert judgment

B.  

Interpersonal skills

C.  

Team agreements

D.  

Communication skills

Discussion 0
Questions 100

Which contract type is least desirable to a vendor?

Options:

A.  

Fixed price with economic price adjustment (FPEPA)

B.  

Firm fixed price (FFP)

C.  

Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF>

D.  

Cost plus award fee (CPAF>

Discussion 0
Questions 101

A project manager needs to tailor the Project Cost Management process. Which considerations should the project manager apply?

Options:

A.  

Diversity background

B.  

Stakeholder's relationships

C.  

Technical expertise

D.  

Knowledge management

Discussion 0
Questions 102

Which of these is true of project integration management?

Options:

A.  

Project Integration Management is mandatory and more effective in larger projects.

B.  

Project Integration Management and expert judgment are mutually exclusive.

C.  

Project Integration Management is the responsibility of the project manager

D.  

Project Integration Management excludes the triple constraints if cost performance index (CPI) equals zero.

Discussion 0
Questions 103

In which Project Cost Management process is work performance data included?

Options:

A.  

Plan Cost Management

B.  

Estimate Costs

C.  

Determine Budget

D.  

Control Costs

Discussion 0
Questions 104

What purpose does the hierarchical locus of stakeholder communications serve?

Options:

A.  

Maintains the focus on project and organizational stakeholders

B.  

Preserves the tocus on external stakeholders—such as customers and vendors—as well as on other projects

C.  

Sustains the focus on general communication activities using email, social media, and websites

D.  

Keeps the focus on the position of the stakeholder or group with respect to the project team

Discussion 0
Questions 105

Which is the order of steps in the Procurement Management process?

Options:

A.  

Identifying and planning procurement requirements, obtaining quotes or proposals, negotiating with vendors, contracting with selected vendors, and controlling procurements

B.  

Identifying and planning procurement requirements, negotiating with vendors, contracting with selected vendors, obtaining quotes or proposals, and controlling procurements

C.  

Controlling procurements, identifying and planning procurement requirements, obtaining quotes or proposals, negotiating with vendors, and contracting with selected vendors

D.  

Obtaining quotes or proposals, identifying and planning procurement requirements, negotiating with vendors, contracting with selected vendors, and controlling procurements

Discussion 0
Questions 106

A project manager Is in the process of working with stakeholders to meet their needs and expectations, and identifying and fostering communication and involvement. Which process does this typically represent?

Options:

A.  

Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

B.  

Monitor Communications

C.  

Manage Communications

D.  

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

Discussion 0
Questions 107

Which of the following is used to classify stakeholders based on their assessments of power, urgency, and legitimacy?

Options:

A.  

Power interest grid

B.  

Stakeholder cube

C.  

Salience model

D.  

Directions of influence

Discussion 0
Questions 108

Why is tailoring in a project necessary?

Options:

A.  

Requirements keep changing.

B.  

An artifact must be produced.

C.  

A tool or technique is required.

D.  

Each project is unique.

Discussion 0
Questions 109

How can a project manager maintain the engagement of stakeholders in a project with a high degree of change?

Options:

A.  

Monitor project stakeholder relationships using engaging strategies and plans

B.  

Send all project documents to stakeholders each time they are modified

C.  

Schedule monthly meetings with the stakeholders, including team members

D.  

Engage only with the project sponsors

Discussion 0
Questions 110

Which are the main objectives of Project Risk Management?

Options:

A.  

Increase the probability of positive risks and decrease the probability of negative risks

B.  

Avoid all kind of risks

C.  

Increase the probability of positive risks and eliminate all negative risks

D.  

Identify positive and negative risks

Discussion 0
Questions 111

What charts and (igures should project managers use during the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?

Options:

A.  

Tornado diagrams and influence diagrams

B.  

Detectability bubble charts and probability and impact matrix

C.  

Hierarchical charts and burndown charts

D.  

Flow charts and responsible, accountable, consult, and inform (RACI) charts

Discussion 0
Questions 112

Which of the following are processes associated with Project Cost Management?

Options:

A.  

Develop Costs. Estimate Costs, Determine Budget. Control Costs

B.  

Develop Budget, Determine Budget, Determine Risks, Control Costs

C.  

Plan Cost Management, Estimate Costs. Determine Budget. Control Costs

D.  

Plan Budget Management. Determine Budget, Create Cost Accounts. Control Costs

Discussion 0
Questions 113

Which of the following lists represents the outputs of the Monitor Communications process?

Options:

A.  

Project communications, project management plan updates, project documents updates, and organizational process assets updates

B.  

Work performance information, change requests, project management plan updates, and project documents updates

C.  

Communications management plan, project management plan updates, work performance report, and project documents update

D.  

Stakeholder engagement plan, change requests, project management plan updates, and project documents updates

Discussion 0
Questions 114

Why is tailoring required in a project?

Options:

A.  

Because a one-size-fits-all approach avoids complications and saves time.

B.  

Because every project is unique and not every tool, technique, input, or output identified in the PMBOK Guide is required.

C.  

Because tailoring allows us to identify the techniques, procedures, and system practices used by those in the project.

D.  

Project managers should apply every process in the PMBOK Guide to the project, so tailoring is not required.

Discussion 0
Questions 115

What is one of the main purposes of the project chatter?

Options:

A.  

Formal authorization of the existence of the project

B.  

Formal acceptance of the project management plan

C.  

Formal approval of the detailed project budget

D.  

Formal definition of stakeholder roles and responsibilities

Discussion 0
Questions 116

What are the objectives of Initiation processes?

Options:

A.  

Initiation processes are performed in order to develop the project charier and Identify stakeholders.

B.  

Initiation processes are performed in order to obtain budget approval for a project or phase and approve scope with customers.

C.  

Initiation processes are performed to identify business objectives for a project or phase and identify stakeholders' goals.

D.  

Initiation processes are performed to map initial requirements for a project or phase and prioritize them with stakeholders.

Discussion 0
Questions 117

Which of the following must be included in the risk register when the project manager completes the Identify Risks process?

Options:

A.  

List of identified risks, potential risk owners, list of potential risk response

B.  

List of identified risks, list of causes, list of risk categories

C.  

Short risk titles, list of potential risk owners, list of impacts on objectives

D.  

List of activities affected, list of potential risk responses, list of causes

Discussion 0
Questions 118

The project manager is using co-location and providing training to the project team. On which of the following Project Resource Management processes is the project manager working?

Options:

A.  

Acquire Resources

B.  

Control Resources

C.  

Manage Team

D.  

Develop Team

Discussion 0
Questions 119

In which type of organization does the project manager have the maximum influence

Options:

A.  

Centralized

B.  

Composite

C.  

Simple Organic

D.  

Multi-divisional

Discussion 0
Questions 120

Which role does the project manager resemble best?

Options:

A.  

Orchestra conductor

B.  

Facilities supervisor

C.  

Functional manager

D.  

School principal

Discussion 0
Questions 121

Which of the following is a category of organizational process assets?

Options:

A.  

Government standards

B.  

Organizational culture

C.  

Employee capabilities

D.  

Organizational knowledge bases

Discussion 0
Questions 122

How is the Project Scope Management process different in agile and adaptive projects then in traditional projects?

Options:

A.  

Less time spent on defining scope early on

B.  

More time spent on defining scope early on

C.  

Less time spent on scope management process

D.  

Project scope management is the same in all projects

Discussion 0
Questions 123

In which of the Risk Management processes is the project charter used as an input?

Options:

A.  

Plan Risk Responses

B.  

Implement Risk Responses

C.  

Plan Risk Management

D.  

Perform Quantitative Risk Responses

Discussion 0
Questions 124

Deciding the phases of a project life cycle would be considered a part of which of these knowledge areas?

Options:

A.  

Project Schedule Management

B.  

Project Scope Management

C.  

Project Resource Management

D.  

Project Integration Management

Discussion 0
Questions 125

Which of the following is used as an input to prepare a cost management plan?

Options:

A.  

Expert judgment

B.  

Lessons learned

C.  

Cost estimates

D.  

Project management plan

Discussion 0
Questions 126

Match the influence with its corresponding category of influence.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 127

What type of change requires the submission of a change request?

Options:

A.  

Changes in assigned resources

B.  

Changes in a technical solution

C.  

Changes in status reporting

D.  

Changes in the project's scope

Discussion 0
Questions 128

What is an output of the plan resource management process

Options:

A.  

Project charter

B.  

Risk register

C.  

Scope baseline

D.  

Stakeholder register

Discussion 0
Questions 129

Which action should the project manager take after the team finishes executing the scope?

Options:

A.  

Verify the deliverables to ensure that they are correct and meet the customer's satisfaction.

B.  

Accept all the deliverables and deliver them to the customer for final acceptance.

C.  

Conduct a joint session with the customer, change the deliverables, and then request approval.

D.  

Check that all change requests were implemented and release deliverables to the customer.

Discussion 0
Questions 130

A team was hired to develop a next generation drone. The team created a prototype and sent it to the customer for testing. The feedback collected was used to refine the requirements. What technique is the team using?

Options:

A.  

Early requirements gathering

B.  

Feedback analysis

C.  

Progressive elaboration

D.  

Requirements documentation

Discussion 0
Questions 131

A project manager is identifying the risks of a project. Which technique should the project manager use?

Options:

A.  

Representations of uncertainty

B.  

Prompt lists

C.  

Audits

D.  

Risk categorization

Discussion 0
Questions 132

Which two processes should be used to influence costs in the early stages of a project?

Options:

A.  

Estimate Costs and Determine Budget

B.  

Plan Cost Management and Estimate Activity Durations

C.  

Control Quality and Control Costs

D.  

Plan Stakeholder Engagement and Plan Communications Management

Discussion 0
Questions 133

What tool or technique can improve a products final characteristics?

Options:

A.  

Design for X (DfX)

B.  

Problem solving

C.  

Process analysis

D.  

Risk report

Discussion 0
Questions 134

Directing another person to get from one point to another using a known set of expected behaviors and the ability to lead a team and inspire them to do their jobs well is related to?

Options:

A.  

Influence and challenge

B.  

Innovation and administration

C.  

Leadership and management

D.  

Engagement and guidance

Discussion 0
Questions 135

Which are inputs for the Plan Quality Management process?

Options:

A.  

Quality metrics, project documents, and financial performance

B.  

Quality management plan, project documents, and quality metrics

C.  

Project management plan, project documents, and organizational process assets

D.  

Project management plan, quality metrics. and project documents

Discussion 0
Questions 136

Under which circumstances should multiple projects be grouped in a program?

Options:

A.  

When they are needed to accomplish a set of goals and objectives for an organization

B.  

When they have the same project manager and the same organizational unit

C.  

When they have the same scope, budget, and schedule

D.  

When they are from the same unit of the organization

Discussion 0
Questions 137

What organizational asset can influence the Plan Risk Management process?

Options:

A.  

Corporate policies and procedures for social media, ethics, and security

B.  

Organizational risk policy

C.  

Stakeholder register templates and instructions

D.  

Organizational communication requirements

Discussion 0
Questions 138

What tool should a project manager use to efficiently manage project resources?

Options:

A.  

List of project resources

B.  

Resource breakdown structure

C.  

Resources detailed in the project scope

D.  

Resource requirements

Discussion 0
Questions 139

Which process is engaged when a proiect learn inember makes a change to project budget with the project manager's approval?

Options:

A.  

Manage Cost Plan

B.  

Estimate Costs

C.  

Determine Budget

D.  

Control Costs

Discussion 0
Questions 140

An organizational structure that standardizes the project-related governance processes and facilitates the sharing of resources, methodologies, tools, and techniques is referred to as:

Options:

A.  

Project Management Information System

B.  

Project Management System

C.  

Project Management Office

D.  

Project Management Knowledge Area

Discussion 0
Questions 141

The project manager is working in the processes of Project Resource Management. Which process is the project manager developing if they are using parametric estimation?

Options:

A.  

Plan Resource Management

B.  

Estimate Activity Resources

C.  

Estimate Costs

D.  

Acquire Resources

Discussion 0
Questions 142

During which process of Project Cost Management does a project manager produce the cost baseline?

Options:

A.  

Estimate Costs

B.  

Control Schedule

C.  

Determine Budget

D.  

Develop Project Charter

Discussion 0
Questions 143

Match the project life cycle type with its corresponding definition.

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 144

A functional manager is delegating a key project to a project team without a project manager. Which communication method will be most effective?

Options:

A.  

Interactive

B.  

Push

C.  

Verbal

D.  

Oral

Discussion 0
Questions 145

To which knowledge area does the Collect Requirements process belong?

Options:

A.  

Quality Management

B.  

Scope Management

C.  

Cost Management

D.  

Integration Management

Discussion 0
Questions 146

A project reports an earned value (EV) of USS45 for work completed with an actual cost (AC) of US$40. What is the cost performance index (CPI)?

Options:

A.  

0.88

B.  

1.12

C.  

0.58

D.  

1.58

Discussion 0
Questions 147

With regard to a project manager's sphere of influence in a project, which of the following does the project manager influence most directly?

Options:

A.  

Suppliers

B.  

Customers

C.  

Governing bodies

D.  

Project team

Discussion 0
Questions 148

Which type of dependency used in the Sequence Activities process is sometimes referred to as preferred logic, preferential logic, or soft logic?

Options:

A.  

Internal

B.  

External

C.  

Discretionary

D.  

Mandatory

Discussion 0
Questions 149

Technical capability, past performance, and intellectual property rights are examples of:

Options:

A.  

performance measurement criteria

B.  

source selection criteria

C.  

product acceptance criteria

D.  

phase exit criteria

Discussion 0
Questions 150

Specification of both the deliverables and the processes is the focus of:

Options:

A.  

Change control

B.  

Configuration control

C.  

Project monitoring and control

D.  

Issue control

Discussion 0
Questions 151

A complete set of concepts, terms, and activities that make up an area of specialization is known as:

Options:

A.  

a Knowledge Area

B.  

a Process Group

C.  

program management

D.  

portfolio management

Discussion 0
Questions 152

The process of defining how the project scope will be validated and controlled is known as:

Options:

A.  

Define Scope.

B.  

Develop Project Management Plan.

C.  

Plan Scope Management.

D.  

Plan Quality Management.

Discussion 0
Questions 153

Which type of graphic is displayed below?

Options:

A.  

Work breakdown structure

B.  

Context diagram

C.  

Control chart

D.  

Pareto diagram

Discussion 0
Questions 154

Which Project Time Management process includes bottom-up estimating as a tool or technique?

Options:

A.  

Estimate Activity Resources

B.  

Sequence Activities

C.  

Estimate Activity Durations

D.  

Develop Schedule

Discussion 0
Questions 155

Requirements documentation will typically contain at least:

Options:

A.  

Stakeholder requirements, staffing requirements, and transition requirements.

B.  

Business requirements, the stakeholder register, and functional requirements.

C.  

Stakeholder impact, budget requirements, and communications requirements.

D.  

Business objectives, stakeholder impact, and functional requirements.

Discussion 0
Questions 156

Through whom do project managers accomplish work?

Options:

A.  

Consultants and stakeholders

B.  

Stakeholders and functional managers

C.  

Project team members and consultants

D.  

Project team members and stakeholders

Discussion 0
Questions 157

Those who enter into a contractual agreement to provide services necessary for a project are:

Options:

A.  

buyers

B.  

sellers

C.  

business partners

D.  

product users

Discussion 0
Questions 158

The following is a network diagram for a project.

How many possible paths are identified for this project?

Options:

A.  

3

B.  

4

C.  

6

D.  

7

Discussion 0
Questions 159

An intentional activity to modify a nonconforming product or product component is called:

Options:

A.  

defect repair

B.  

work repair

C.  

corrective action

D.  

preventive action

Discussion 0
Questions 160

Using parametric estimating, if an assigned resource is capable of producing 120 units per hour, how many hours are required to produce 12,000 units?

Options:

A.  

100

B.  

120

C.  

1,000

D.  

1,200

Discussion 0
Questions 161

Which process involves the creation of a document that provides the project manager with the authority to apply resources to a project?

Options:

A.  

Define Activities

B.  

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.  

Develop Project Management Plan

D.  

Develop Project Charter

Discussion 0
Questions 162

Project Scope Management is primarily concerned with:

Options:

A.  

Developing a detailed description of the project and product.

B.  

Determining how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed.

C.  

Defining and controlling what is and is not included in the project.

D.  

Formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.

Discussion 0
Questions 163

Stakeholders can be identified in later stages of the project because the Identify Stakeholders process should be:

Options:

A.  

Continuous

B.  

Discrete

C.  

Regulated

D.  

Arbitrary

Discussion 0
Questions 164

When painting a bedroom, preparing the walls can be done while the paint is being chosen. This is an example of a:

Options:

A.  

lead

B.  

lag

C.  

mandatory dependency

D.  

internal dependency

Discussion 0
Questions 165

The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:

Options:

A.  

organizational process assets

B.  

a requirements traceability matrix

C.  

the project charter

D.  

the project management plan

Discussion 0
Questions 166

A risk that arises as a direct result of implementing a risk response is called a:

Options:

A.  

contingent risk

B.  

residual risk

C.  

potential risk

D.  

secondary risk

Discussion 0
Questions 167

A stakeholder expresses a need not known to the project manager. The project manager most likely missed a step in which stakeholder management process?

Options:

A.  

Plan Stakeholder Management

B.  

Identify Stakeholders

C.  

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

D.  

Control Stakeholder Engagement

Discussion 0
Questions 168

An input to the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:

Options:

A.  

expert judgment

B.  

seller proposals

C.  

the project charter

D.  

the project management plan

Discussion 0
Questions 169

Outputs of the Control Communications process include:

Options:

A.  

expert judgment and change requests.

B.  

work performance information and change requests.

C.  

organizational process asset updates and an issue log.

D.  

project management plan updates and an issue log.

Discussion 0
Questions 170

During which process does the project team receive bids and proposals?

Options:

A.  

Conduct Procurements

B.  

Plan Procurements

C.  

Estimate Costs

D.  

Control Budget

Discussion 0
Questions 171

Which Perform Quality Assurance tool or technique is used to identify a problem, discover the underlying causes that lead to it, and develop preventative actions?

Options:

A.  

Inspection

B.  

Quality audits

C.  

Design of experiments

D.  

Root cause analysis

Discussion 0
Questions 172

Organizational process assets, a lessons-learned database, and historical information are all inputs to which process?

Options:

A.  

Plan Cost Management

B.  

Plan Scope Management

C.  

Plan Stakeholder Management

D.  

Plan Schedule Management

Discussion 0
Questions 173

A tool and technique used in the Develop Project Charter process is:

Options:

A.  

change control tools

B.  

expert judgment

C.  

meetings

D.  

analytical techniques

Discussion 0
Questions 174

Which Process Group includes the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?

Options:

A.  

Executing

B.  

Planning

C.  

Monitoring and Controlling

D.  

Initiating

Discussion 0
Questions 175

An example of a group decision-making technique is:

Options:

A.  

nominal group technique

B.  

majority

C.  

affinity diagram

D.  

multi-criteria decision analysis

Discussion 0
Questions 176

Tools and techniques used in Direct and Manage Project Work include:

Options:

A.  

Process analysis and expert judgment

B.  

Analytical techniques and a project management information system

C.  

Performance reviews and meetings

D.  

Expert judgment and meetings

Discussion 0
Questions 177

Which Define Activities tool or technique is used for dividing and subdividing the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts?

Options:

A.  

Decomposition

B.  

Inspection

C.  

Project analysis

D.  

Document analysis

Discussion 0
Questions 178

Whose approval may be required for change requests after change control board (CCB) approval?

Options:

A.  

Functional managers

B.  

Business partners

C.  

Customers or sponsors

D.  

Subject matter experts

Discussion 0
Questions 179

Power, urgency, and legitimacy are attributes of which stakeholder classification model?

Options:

A.  

Salience

B.  

Influence/impact

C.  

Power/interest

D.  

Power/influence

Discussion 0
Questions 180

Perform Integrated Change Control is the process of:

Options:

A.  

Reviewing, approving, and managing all change requests

B.  

Facilitating change management, manuals, or automation tools

C.  

Comparing actual results with planned results in order to expand or change a project

D.  

Documenting changes according to the change control system by the change control board

Discussion 0
Questions 181

Which quality tool incorporates the upper and lower specification limits allowed within an agreement?

Options:

A.  

Control chart

B.  

Flowchart

C.  

Checksheet

D.  

Pareto diagram

Discussion 0
Questions 182

Variance and trend analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?

Options:

A.  

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.  

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

C.  

Control Risks

D.  

Plan Risk Responses

Discussion 0
Questions 183

Which item is a cost of conformance?

Options:

A.  

Training

B.  

Liabilities

C.  

Lost business

D.  

Scrap

Discussion 0
Questions 184

The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is called risk:

Options:

A.  

appetite

B.  

tolerance

C.  

threshold

D.  

management

Discussion 0
Questions 185

An issue log is an input to which Project Human Resource Management process?

Options:

A.  

Manage Project Team

B.  

Acquire Project Team

C.  

Plan Human Resource Management

D.  

Develop Project Team

Discussion 0
Questions 186

The component of the risk management plan that documents how risk activities will be recorded is called:

Options:

A.  

tracking

B.  

scoping

C.  

timing

D.  

defining

Discussion 0
Questions 187

A graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships is known as a:

Options:

A.  

Resource calendar.

B.  

Project organization chart.

C.  

Resource breakdown structure (RBS).

D.  

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM).

Discussion 0
Questions 188

The Project Human Resource Management process that involves confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is:

Options:

A.  

Acquire Project Team.

B.  

Plan Human Resource Management.

C.  

Manage Project Team.

D.  

Develop Project Team.

Discussion 0
Questions 189

The following is a network diagram for a project.

What is the critical path for the project?

Options:

A.  

A-B-C-F-G-I

B.  

A-B-C-F-H-I

C.  

A-D-E-F-G-I

D.  

A-D-E-F-H-I

Discussion 0
Questions 190

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The total float for the project is how many days?

Options:

A.  

5

B.  

9

C.  

12

D.  

14

Discussion 0
Questions 191

The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:

Options:

A.  

organizational process assets

B.  

a requirements traceability matrix

C.  

the project charter

D.  

the project management plan

Discussion 0
Questions 192

What is the risk rating if the probability of occurrence is 0.30 and the impact if it does occur is moderate (0.20)?

Options:

A.  

0.03

B.  

0.06

C.  

0.10

D.  

0.50

Discussion 0
Questions 193

A benefit of using virtual teams in the Acquire Project Team process is the reduction of the:

Options:

A.  

cultural differences of team members

B.  

possibility of communication misunderstandings

C.  

costs associated with travel

D.  

costs associated with technology

Discussion 0
Questions 194

Every project creates a unique product, service, or result that may be:

Options:

A.  

tangible

B.  

targeted

C.  

organized

D.  

variable

Discussion 0
Questions 195

Progressively elaborating high-level information into detailed plans is performed by the:

Options:

A.  

project management office

B.  

portfolio manager

C.  

program manager

D.  

project manager

Discussion 0
Questions 196

In the Define Activities process, the schedule management plan is used to:

Options:

A.  

Capture the lessons learned from other projects for comparison.

B.  

Contain the standard activity list.

C.  

Document and support the project change requests.

D.  

Prescribe the level of detail needed to manage the work.

Discussion 0
Questions 197

Which Process Group contains the processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project specifications?

Options:

A.  

Initiating

B.  

Planning

C.  

Executing

D.  

Closing

Discussion 0
Questions 198

How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and low interest be grouped in a power/interest grid during stakeholder analysis?

Options:

A.  

Keep satisfied

B.  

Keep informed

C.  

Manage closely

D.  

Monitor

Discussion 0
Questions 199

The group technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for prioritization is called the:

Options:

A.  

majority rule technique.

B.  

nominal group technique.

C.  

Delphi technique,

D.  

idea/mind mapping technique.

Discussion 0
Questions 200

Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?

Options:

A.  

Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness

B.  

Preparedness, project management knowledge, and personality characteristics

C.  

General management, preparedness, and project management knowledge

D.  

Assertiveness, collaboration, and performance skills

Discussion 0
Questions 201

In Plan Risk Management, which of the management plans determines who will be available to share information on various risks and responses at different times and locations?

Options:

A.  

Schedule

B.  

Quality

C.  

Communications

D.  

Cost

Discussion 0
Questions 202

A tool and technique used during the Collect Requirements process is:

Options:

A.  

prototypes.

B.  

expert judgment.

C.  

alternatives identification.

D.  

product analysis.

Discussion 0
Questions 203

The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?

Options:

A.  

Alternatives identification

B.  

Scope decomposition

C.  

Expert judgment

D.  

Product analysis

Discussion 0
Questions 204

Which of the following are three inputs to the risk register?

Options:

A.  

Risk register updates, stakeholder register, and quality management plan

B.  

Communication management plan, enterprise environmental factors, and activity duration estimates

C.  

Risk management plan, activity cost estimates, and project documents

D.  

Project scope statement, organizational process assets, and scope baseline

Discussion 0
Questions 205

Which process is responsible for monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline?

Options:

A.  

Variance Analysis

B.  

Define Scope

C.  

Verify Scope

D.  

Control Scope

Discussion 0
Questions 206

Who is responsible for initiating a project?

Options:

A.  

Project sponsor

B.  

Project manager

C.  

Program manager

D.  

Project management office (PMO)

Discussion 0
Questions 207

Which type of contract is a hybrid of both a cost-reimbursable and a fixed-price contract?

Options:

A.  

Cost Plus Award Fee Contract (CPAF)

B.  

Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)

C.  

Time and Material Contract (T&M)

D.  

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

Discussion 0
Questions 208

At which stage of team development do members begin to work together, adjust work habits, and trust each other?

Options:

A.  

Forming

B.  

Storming

C.  

Norming

D.  

Performing

Discussion 0
Questions 209

The process improvement plan details the steps for analyzing processes to identify activities which enhance their:

Options:

A.  

quality.

B.  

value.

C.  

technical performance.

D.  

status.

Discussion 0
Questions 210

The contract in which the seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the contract work and then receives a fee based upon achieving certain performance objectives is called a:

Options:

A.  

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF).

B.  

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF).

C.  

Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contract (FPIF).

D.  

Time and Material Contract (T&M).

Discussion 0
Questions 211

The processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project has been undertaken to achieve are grouped within which Process Group?

Options:

A.  

Initiating

B.  

Planning

C.  

Executing

D.  

Monitoring and Controlling

Discussion 0
Questions 212

Which activity may occur at project or phase closure?

Options:

A.  

Acceptance of deliverables

B.  

Change requests

C.  

Project management plan updates

D.  

Benchmarking

Discussion 0
Questions 213

An input to the Collect Requirements process is the:

Options:

A.  

stakeholder register.

B.  

project management plan.

C.  

project scope statement.

D.  

requirements management plan.

Discussion 0
Questions 214

An input of the Create WBS process is:

Options:

A.  

requirements documentation.

B.  

scope baseline.

C.  

project charter.

D.  

validated deliverables.

Discussion 0
Questions 215

Under which type of contract does the seller receive reimbursement for all allowable costs for performing contract work, as well as a fixed-fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs?

Options:

A.  

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)

B.  

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

C.  

Firm Fixed Price Contract (FFP)

D.  

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract (FP-EPA)

Discussion 0
Questions 216

A project lifecycle is defined as:

Options:

A.  

a collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases.

B.  

a process required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully.

C.  

a recognized standard for the project management profession.

D.  

the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements.

Discussion 0
Questions 217

The technique of subdividing project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components until the work and deliverables are defined to the work package level is called:

Options:

A.  

a control chart.

B.  

baseline.

C.  

Create WBS.

D.  

decomposition.

Discussion 0
Questions 218

When cost variance is negative and schedule variance is positive, the project is:

Options:

A.  

under budget and behind schedule.

B.  

over budget and ahead of schedule.

C.  

on schedule.

D.  

complete; all planned values have been earned.

Discussion 0
Questions 219

Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?

Options:

A.  

Recognized by every project manager

B.  

Constantly evolving

C.  

The sum of all knowledge related to project management

D.  

A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project

Discussion 0
Questions 220

Resource calendars are included in the:

Options:

A.  

staffing management plan.

B.  

work breakdown structure (WBS).

C.  

project communications plan.

D.  

project charter.

Discussion 0
Questions 221

The staffing management plan is part of the:

Options:

A.  

organizational process assets.

B.  

resource calendar.

C.  

human resource plan.

D.  

Develop Project Team process.

Discussion 0
Questions 222

During project selection, which factor is most important?

Options:

A.  

Types of constraints

B.  

Internal business needs

C.  

Budget

D.  

Schedule

Discussion 0
Questions 223

Which statement correctly describes the value of a business case?

Options:

A.  

It provides the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment.

B.  

It provides for alternative dispute resolution procedures in event of contract default.

C.  

It offers one of several alternative scenarios which assist in performing qualitative risk analysis.

D.  

It is used to help a project manager understand the scope of commercial advantages.

Discussion 0
Questions 224

While preparing the project management plan on a weekly basis, the project manager indicates the intention to provide an issues report to the staff via e-mail. In which part of the plan will this type of information be included?

Options:

A.  

Communications management plan

B.  

Human resource plan

C.  

Quality management plan

D.  

Procurement management plan

Discussion 0
Questions 225

The project has a current cost performance index of 0.80. Assuming this performance wi continue, the new estimate at completion is $1000. What was the original budget at completion for the project?

Options:

A.  

$800

B.  

$1000

C.  

$1250

D.  

$1800

Discussion 0
Questions 226

The process for performing variance analysis may vary, depending on:

Options:

A.  

scenario building, technology forecasting, and forecast by analogy.

B.  

working relationships among various stakeholders and team members.

C.  

application area, the standard used, and the industry,

D.  

work to be completed next.

Discussion 0
Questions 227

Which process requires implementation of approved changes?

Options:

A.  

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.  

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.  

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.  

Close Project or Phase

Discussion 0
Questions 228

Which type of dependency is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work?

Options:

A.  

External

B.  

Lead

C.  

Discretionary

D.  

Mandatory

Discussion 0
Questions 229

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique used in which process?

Options:

A.  

Control Costs

B.  

Determine Budget

C.  

Estimate Costs

D.  

Control Budget

Discussion 0
Questions 230

The item that provides more detailed descriptions of the components in the work breakdown structure (WB5) is called a WBS:

Options:

A.  

dictionary.

B.  

chart.

C.  

report.

D.  

register.

Discussion 0
Questions 231

When a permitting agency takes longer than planned to issue a permit, this can be described as a risk:

Options:

A.  

event.

B.  

response,

C.  

perception.

D.  

impact.

Discussion 0
Questions 232

In the basic communication model, which term refers to the method that is used to convey the message?

Options:

A.  

Decode

B.  

Encode

C.  

Medium

D.  

Noise

Discussion 0
Questions 233

Risk responses reflect an organization's perceived balance between:

Options:

A.  

risk taking and risk avoidance.

B.  

known risk and unknown risk.

C.  

identified risk and analyzed risk.

D.  

varying degrees of risk.

Discussion 0
Questions 234

A project manager at a publishing company decides to initiate the editing phase of the project as soon as each chapter is written. Which type of Sequence Activities tool and technique is involved, considering that there was a start-to-start relationship with a 15-day delay?

Options:

A.  

Slack

B.  

Float

C.  

Lag

D.  

Lead

Discussion 0
Questions 235

Who determines which dependencies are mandatory during the Sequence Activities process?

Options:

A.  

Project manager

B.  

External stakeholders

C.  

Internal stakeholders

D.  

Project team

Discussion 0
Questions 236

The process of identifying specific actions to be performed to produce project deliverables is:

Options:

A.  

Define Activities.

B.  

Create WBS.

C.  

Define Scope.

D.  

Develop Schedule.

Discussion 0
Questions 237

The process to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used is:

Options:

A.  

Plan Quality.

B.  

Perform Quality Assurance.

C.  

Perform Quality Control.

D.  

Total Quality Management.

Discussion 0
Questions 238

Which of the following is a tool and technique used to monitor risk?

Options:

A.  

Technical performance measurement

B.  

Cost performance baseline

C.  

Benchmarking

D.  

Cost of quality

Discussion 0
Questions 239

Which of the following is a project constraint?

Options:

A.  

Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected.

B.  

The technology to be used is cutting-edge.

C.  

Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment.

D.  

The product is needed in 250 days.

Discussion 0
Questions 240

Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking?

Options:

A.  

The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased.

B.  

The critical path will have positive total float.

C.  

Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager.

D.  

Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations.

Discussion 0
Questions 241

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?

Options:

A.  

Networking

B.  

Training

C.  

Negotiation

D.  

Issue log

Discussion 0
Questions 242

What is project management?

Options:

A.  

A logical grouping of project management inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques

B.  

Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements

C.  

Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project

D.  

A formal, approved document that defines how the project is executed, monitored, and controlled

Discussion 0
Questions 243

Which is an output of the Collect Requirements process?

Options:

A.  

Requirements traceability matrix

B.  

Project scope statement

C.  

WBS dictionary

D.  

Work performance measurements

Discussion 0
Questions 244

Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen?

Options:

A.  

Sensitivity analysis

B.  

Three-point estimate

C.  

Modeling and simulation

D.  

Expected monetary value analysis

Discussion 0
Questions 245

Which of the following can be used as an input for Define Scope?

Options:

A.  

Product analysis

B.  

Project charter

C.  

Scope baseline

D.  

Project scope statement

Discussion 0
Questions 246

What is the estimate at completion (EAC) if the budget at completion (BAC) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $50, and the earned value (EV) is $25?

Options:

A.  

$50

B.  

$100

C.  

$125

D.  

$175

Discussion 0
Questions 247

Market conditions and published commercial information are examples of which input to the Estimate Costs process?

Options:

A.  

Scope baseline

B.  

Organizational process assets

C.  

Enterprise environmental factors

D.  

Risk register

Discussion 0
Questions 248

Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of return, discounted cash flow, and net present value are all examples of:

Options:

A.  

Expert judgment.

B.  

Analytical techniques.

C.  

Earned value management.

D.  

Group decision-making techniques.

Discussion 0
Questions 249

Using values such as scope, cost, budget, and duration or measures of scale such as size, weight, and complexity from a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measurement for a current project describes which type of estimating?

Options:

A.  

Bottom-up

B.  

Parametric

C.  

Analogous

D.  

Three-point

Discussion 0
Questions 250

Which type of contract gives both the seller and the buyer flexibility to deviate from performance with financial incentives?

Options:

A.  

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)

B.  

Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)

C.  

Cost Pius Award Re (CPAF)

D.  

Time and Material (T&M)

Discussion 0
Questions 251

Which process numerically analyzes the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives?

Options:

A.  

Plan Risk Management

B.  

Plan Risk Responses

C.  

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D.  

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Discussion 0
Questions 252

Which Knowledge Area involves identifying the people, groups, or organizations that may be impacted by or impact a project?

Options:

A.  

Project Risk Management

B.  

Project Human Resource Management

C.  

Project Scope Management

D.  

Project Stakeholder Management

Discussion 0
Questions 253

Which input to Collect Requirements is used to identify stakeholders who can provide information on requirements?

Options:

A.  

Stakeholder register

B.  

Scope management plan

C.  

Stakeholder management plan

D.  

Project charter

Discussion 0
Questions 254

Scope, schedule, and cost parameters are integrated in the:

Options:

A.  

Performance measurement baseline.

B.  

Analysis of project forecasts,

C.  

Summary of changes approved in a period,

D.  

Analysis of past performance.

Discussion 0
Questions 255

Which document describes the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment?

Options:

A.  

Cost baseline

B.  

Service level agreement

C.  

Memorandum of understanding

D.  

Business case

Discussion 0
Questions 256

An example of a group decision-ma king technique is:

Options:

A.  

Nominal group technique.

B.  

Majority.

C.  

Affinity diagram.

D.  

Multi-criteria decision analysis.

Discussion 0
Questions 257

A key benefit of the Manage Communications process is that it enables:

Options:

A.  

The best use of communication methods.

B.  

An efficient and effective communication flow.

C.  

Project costs to be reduced.

D.  

The best use of communication technology.

Discussion 0
Questions 258

An output of the Plan Quality Management process is:

Options:

A.  

A process improvement plan,

B.  

Quality control measurements.

C.  

Work performance information,

D.  

The project management plan.

Discussion 0
Questions 259

What are the Project Procurement Management processes?

Options:

A.  

Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, Integrate Procurements, and Close Procurements

B.  

Estimate Procurements, Integrate Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements

C.  

Plan Procurement Management, Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, and Close Procurements

D.  

Plan Procurement Management, Perform Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements

Discussion 0
Questions 260

When does the project team determine which dependencies are discretionary?

Options:

A.  

Before the Define Activities process

B.  

During the Define Activities process

C.  

Before the Sequence Activities process

D.  

During the Sequence Activities process

Discussion 0
Questions 261

A project manager should document the escalation path for unresolved project risks in the:

Options:

A.  

Change control plan

B.  

Stakeholder register

C.  

Risk log

D.  

Communications management plan

Discussion 0
Questions 262

Which type of dependency is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project in which a specific sequence is desired, even though there may be other acceptable sequences?

Options:

A.  

External

B.  

Internal

C.  

Mandatory

D.  

Discretionary

Discussion 0
Questions 263

Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process?

Options:

A.  

Benchmarking, expert judgment, and analytical techniques

B.  

Statistical sampling, benchmarking, and meetings

C.  

Negotiations, pre-assignment, and multi-criteria decision analysis

D.  

Expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings

Discussion 0
Questions 264

Which tool or technique is effective in a project in which the deliverable is not a service or result?

Options:

A.  

Inspection

B.  

Variance analysis

C.  

Decomposition

D.  

Product analysis

Discussion 0
Questions 265

The review of a sellers progress toward achieving the goals of scope and quality within cost and schedule compared to the contract is known as:

Options:

A.  

Work performance information.

B.  

Inspections and audits.

C.  

Payment systems.

D.  

Procurement performance reviews.

Discussion 0
Questions 266

A project manager providing information to the right audience, in the right format, at the right time is an example of which type of communication?

Options:

A.  

Efficient

B.  

Effective

C.  

Push

D.  

Pull

Discussion 0
Questions 267

Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis?

Options:

A.  

Nominal group technique

B.  

Idea/mind mapping

C.  

Affinity diagram

D.  

Brainstorming

Discussion 0
Questions 268

Organizational theory is a tool used in which Project Human Resource Management process?

Options:

A.  

Manage Project Team

B.  

Acquire Project Team

C.  

Develop Project Team

D.  

Plan Human Resource Management

Discussion 0
Questions 269

A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is following a life cycle that is:

Options:

A.  

Adaptive

B.  

Predictive

C.  

Incremental

D.  

Iterative

Discussion 0
Questions 270

Which tool or technique is used in the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

Options:

A.  

Decomposition

B.  

Modeling techniques

C.  

Resource optimization

D.  

Meetings

Discussion 0
Questions 271

Identify Risks is part of which Process Group?

Options:

A.  

Planning

B.  

Executing

C.  

Closing

D.  

Initiating

Discussion 0
Questions 272

The organization's perceived balance between risk taking and risk avoidance is reflected in the risk:

Options:

A.  

Responses

B.  

Appetite

C.  

Tolerance

D.  

Attitude

Discussion 0
Questions 273

Which input provides suppliers with a clear set of goals, requirements, and outcomes?

Options:

A.  

Procurement statement of work

B.  

Purchase order

C.  

Source selection criteria

D.  

Bidder conference

Discussion 0
Questions 274

An input to the Manage Project Team process is:

Options:

A.  

Work performance reports.

B.  

Change requests.

C.  

Activity resource requirements.

D.  

Enterprise environmental factors.

Discussion 0
Questions 275

Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline?

Options:

A.  

Change request

B.  

Requirements documentation

C.  

Scope baseline

D.  

Risk urgency assessment

Discussion 0
Questions 276

An input to the Plan Stakeholder Management process is:

Options:

A.  

The project charter.

B.  

The stakeholder analysis.

C.  

A communication management plan.

D.  

A stakeholder register.

Discussion 0
Questions 277

The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information become available is known as:

Options:

A.  

Continuous improvement.

B.  

Predictive planning.

C.  

Progressive elaboration.

D.  

Quality assurance.

Discussion 0
Questions 278

The iterative and interactive nature of the Process Groups creates the need for the processes in which Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.  

Project Communications Management

B.  

Project Integration Management

C.  

Project Risk Management

D.  

Project Scope Management

Discussion 0
Questions 279

Which process involves subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable portions?

Options:

A.  

Develop Schedule

B.  

Create VVBS

C.  

Estimate Activity Resources

D.  

Define Scope

Discussion 0
Questions 280

The ability to influence cost is greatest during which stages of the project?

Options:

A.  

Early

B.  

Middle

C.  

Late

D.  

Completion

Discussion 0
Questions 281

In which Knowledge Area is the project charter developed?

Options:

A.  

Project Cost Management

B.  

Project Scope Management

C.  

Project Time Management

D.  

Project Integration Management

Discussion 0
Questions 282

Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?

Options:

A.  

Control Scope

B.  

Define Scope

C.  

Plan Scope Management

D.  

Collect Requirements

Discussion 0
Questions 283

Which input may influence quality assurance work and should be monitored within the context of a system for configuration management?

Options:

A.  

Work performance data

B.  

Project documents

C.  

Scope baseline

D.  

Requirements documentation

Discussion 0
Questions 284

Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and trend analysis are examples of which tool or technique?

Options:

A.  

Expert judgment

B.  

Forecasting methods

C.  

Earned value management

D.  

Analytical techniques

Discussion 0
Questions 285

During which process does a project manager review all prior information to ensure that all project work is completed and that the project has met its objectives?

Options:

A.  

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.  

Perform Quality Assurance

C.  

Close Project or Phase

D.  

Control Scope

Discussion 0
Questions 286

The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group includes processes that:

Options:

A.  

Establish the scope, objectives, and course of action of a project,

B.  

Define a new project or a new phase of an existing project.

C.  

Track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of a project.

D.  

Complete the work defined in the project management plan.

Discussion 0
Questions 287

Which risk management strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular upside risk by ensuring that the opportunity is realized?

Options:

A.  

Enhance

B.  

Share

C.  

Exploit

D.  

Accept

Discussion 0
Questions 288

A temporary endeavor that creates a unique product or service is called a:

Options:

A.  

Project

B.  

Plan

C.  

Program

D.  

Portfolio

Discussion 0
Questions 289

An input to Conduct Procurements is:

Options:

A.  

Independent estimates.

B.  

Selected sellers.

C.  

Seller proposals.

D.  

Resource calendars.

Discussion 0
Questions 290

The number of potential communication channels for a project with 5 stakeholders is:

Options:

A.  

10.

B.  

12.

C.  

20.

D.  

24.

Discussion 0
Questions 291

Which process identifies whether the needs of a project can best be met by acquiring products, services, or results outside of the organization?

Options:

A.  

Plan Procurement Management

B.  

Control Procurements

C.  

Collect Requirements

D.  

Plan Cost Management

Discussion 0
Questions 292

An input to the Identify Stakeholders process is:

Options:

A.  

The project management plan.

B.  

The stakeholder register.

C.  

Procurement documents.

D.  

Stakeholder analysis.

Discussion 0
Questions 293

Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?

Options:

A.  

Independent estimates

B.  

Market research

C.  

Analytical techniques

D.  

Bidder conferences

Discussion 0
Questions 294

The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as:

Options:

A.  

Plan Schedule Management.

B.  

Develop Project Charter.

C.  

Develop Schedule.

D.  

Plan Scope Management.

Discussion 0
Questions 295

The project manager is new to the company in order to effectively manage the project, which components of the organizational governance framework does the project manager need to take into account?

Options:

A.  

Organizational structure type, Key stakeholders, and protect funds

B.  

Rules. policies and norms

C.  

Project management software, resources availability and risk checklist

D.  

Governance elements, team policies, and organizational goals

Discussion 0
Questions 296

Which is the main benefit of managing and tailoring strategies in the Stakeholder Engagement process?

Options:

A.  

Increased support and minimized resistance from stakeholders

B.  

Increased performance of the project team

C.  

Maintenance of stakeholder satisfaction because costs and scope are under control

D.  

Updated project documents, as requested by stakeholders

Discussion 0
Questions 297

How should the project manager obtain the maximum engagement from stakeholders that have recently changed to become more connected to social media?

Options:

A.  

Adopt co-creation, sharing responsibilities with stakeholders

B.  

Adopt participation of stakeholders in main meetings, listening to their opinion.

C.  

Adopt social media tools, improving communication with stakeholders

D.  

Adopt involvement of stakeholders in lessons learned sessions, sharing experiences with them

Discussion 0
Questions 298

A project manager can choose from several techniques to resolve conflicts between team members. Which technique can result in a win-win solution?

Options:

A.  

Collaborate/Problem Solve

B.  

Compromise/Reconcile

C.  

Smooth/Accommodate

D.  

Withdraw/Avoid

Discussion 0
Questions 299

How is program success measured?

Options:

A.  

By delivering the benefit of managing the program's projects in a coordinated manner

B.  

By the quality, timeliness, cost-effectiveness, and customer satisfaction of the product or service

C.  

By completing the right projects to achieve objectives rather than completing projects the right way

D.  

By aggregating the successes of the individual projects in the program

Discussion 0
Questions 300

How can you describe the role of the project.... of influence concept?

Options:

A.  

The proiect manager proactivnly interacfS with other project managers creating a positive influence Km fulfilling project needs, working with other managers and sponsor to address internal political and strategic issues and ensunng that the project managemenl plan aligns with the portfolio or program plan

B.  

The project manager leads the team, performs communication roles between stakeholders, and uses interpersonal sills to balance conflicting goals

C.  

The proiect manager stays informed about current technology developments lakes into account new quality management standards, and uses relevant technical support tools

D.  

The proiect manager participates in project management trainings, contributes to the organization professional community sharing knowledge, and maintains subied matter expertise

Discussion 0
Questions 301

What process is performed periodically throughout the project as needed?

Options:

A.  

Plan Risk Management

B.  

Plan Communications Management

C.  

Plan Resource Management

D.  

Plan Cost Management

Discussion 0
Questions 302

It’s time to perform code review on a software project that has over three million lines of code written. Which management tool should the project manager use?

Options:

A.  

Pareto chart

B.  

Regression analysis

C.  

Statistical sampling

D.  

Automated testing tools

Discussion 0
Questions 303

What does leadership involve?

Options:

A.  

Working with others through discussion or debate to guide them from one point to another

B.  

Directing another person from one point to another using a known set of expected behaviors

C.  

Working with a person using expert judgment to develop the technical deliverables

D.  

Directing another person to develop the necessary expertise to establish technical deliverables

Discussion 0
Questions 304

A project receives budget approval, but the risk of extra costs is expected. Which of these inputs should the project manager check in order to make a qualitative risk analysis?

Options:

A.  

The risk management plan and the assumption log

B.  

Costs estimates and cost forecast

C.  

The risk management plan and the basis of estimates

D.  

The assumption log and the project charter

Discussion 0
Questions 305

Considering a highly dynamic project environment, which approach should the project manager adopt to manage the project team?

Options:

A.  

A self-organizing approach to increase team focus and maximize collaboration

B.  

A virtual team to minimize feeling of isolation and gaps on sharing knowledge

C.  

A distributed team to improve tracking progress, productivity, and performance

D.  

A norming approach that requires team members to adjust their behavior and work together

Discussion 0
Questions 306

The project manager is working in the Resource Management process. Which items may the project manager need to include in the team charter?

Options:

A.  

Cultural norms, roles and responsibilities, and organizational chart

B.  

Assumption logs, resource calendars and training schedule

C.  

Communication guidelines, conflict resolution process, and team agreements

D.  

Company policies, recognition plan, and roles and responsibilities

Discussion 0
Questions 307

What is the primary purpose of Project Scope Management?

Options:

A.  

Determining and managing stakeholder needs

B.  

Contorting the status of the product scope and managing changes to its be seine

C.  

Defining and controlling what is and is not included in the project

D.  

Differentiating between the product scope and project scope

Discussion 0
Questions 308

What tool or technique will establish expected behaviors for project team members?

Options:

A.  

Ground rules

B.  

Decision mating

C.  

Power/influence grid

D.  

Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix

Discussion 0
Questions 309

During a project's execution phase, the project manager reviews the communications management plan for communication technology factors. What can affect the choice of communications?

Options:

A.  

Legal requirements

B.  

Politics and power structures

C.  

Internal information needs

D.  

Sensitivity and confidentiality of the information

Discussion 0
Questions 310

In agile projects while performing scope management. What is the definition of requirements

Options:

A.  

Metrics

B.  

Sprint

C.  

Charter

D.  

Backlog i

Discussion 0
Questions 311

When planning communications management what input identifies key stakeholders?

Options:

A.  

Work performance information

B.  

Project schedule

C.  

Project charter

D.  

Work performance reports

Discussion 0
Questions 312

Which of the following is used as input to prepare a cost management plan?

Options:

A.  

Expert judgment

B.  

Lessons learned

C.  

Cost estimates

D.  

Project management plan

Discussion 0
Questions 313

When paying a consultation fee to a technical expert, what type of contract is often used'?

Options:

A.  

Time and materials (T&M)

B.  

Cost plus incentive fee (CPIF)

C.  

Fixed price incentive fee (FPIF)

D.  

Cost plus award fee (CPAF)

Discussion 0
Questions 314

On which type of project.... only after the final iteration?

On wtiich type of project lite cycle is ihe deliverable produced trough a series of ileralrons considering thai the deliverable ts completed only after the Imal iteration?

Options:

A.  

Incremental life cycle

B.  

Predictive life cycle

C.  

Iterative life cycle

D.  

Adaptive life cycle

Discussion 0
Questions 315

What should a project manager do to prepare a risk management plan with a lot of technical uncertainty?

Options:

A.  

Get expert judgment.

B.  

Count on personal experience.

C.  

Ask project sponsors.

D.  

Delay the project until technical uncertainty is clarified

Discussion 0
Questions 316

What CPI > 1 and SPI < 1 mean?

Options:

A.  

Under budget ahead of schedule

B.  

Over budget, behind schedule

C.  

Under budget, behind schedule

D.  

Over budget, ahead of schedule

Discussion 0
Questions 317

Due to new market conditions a five-year project......need to be updated

Due to new market conditions a five-year project requires a full revision of project objectives. Which components to the stakeholder engagement plan need to be updated?

Options:

A.  

Scope and impact of change to stakeholders

B.  

Project scope and stakeholders goals

C.  

Engagement level of key stakeholders

D.  

Stakeholders expectations for the project

Discussion 0
Questions 318

What tool or technique is primarily used to plan risk responses'?

Options:

A.  

Risk categorization

B.  

Project risk document updates

C.  

Strategies for overall project risk

D.  

Risk management plan

Discussion 0
Questions 319

Development of the benefits management plan occurs in which stage of the project life cycle?

Options:

A.  

Starting the project

B.  

Organizing the project

C.  

Completing pre-project work

D.  

Executing the product

Discussion 0
Questions 320

A project team member identifies a possibility......the team member's idea?

A project team member identifies a possibility of increasing project performance by adopting an innovative approach to a proposed solution. This also will save resources for the company and increase stakeholder satisfaction.

How should the project manager evaluate the team member's idea?

Options:

A.  

Treat the idea using risk management processes, to handle it in a controlled and managed way.

B.  

Perform an experiment simulation to confirm idea results, to make sure the cost to implement is worthwhile.

C.  

Do a feasibility analysis study to confirm if an investment to explore a solution will add value.

D.  

Submit the idea as a change request to the change control board to ensure that all interests are met.

Discussion 0
Questions 321

Match the process with its corresponding Process Group:

Options:

Discussion 0
Questions 322

What estimating technique is used when there is limited information?

Options:

A.  

Analogous estimating

B.  

Parametric estimating

C.  

Bottom-up estimating

D.  

Three-point estimating

Discussion 0
Questions 323

Which of these is a hybrid contract?

Options:

A.  

Cost plus award fee (CPAF)

B.  

Firm fixed price (FFP)

C.  

Fixed price incentive fee (FPIF)

D.  

Time and material (T&M)

Discussion 0
Questions 324

A newly developed project team is working together, building trust and adjusting its work habits to support the team What stage of the Tuckman ladder does this describe?

Options:

A.  

Forming

B.  

Norming

C.  

Storming

D.  

Performing

Discussion 0
Questions 325

Which is an aspect of the requirements management plan?

Options:

A.  

Detailed project scope statement

B.  

Creation of work breakdown strucure (WBS)

C.  

Impact analysis

D.  

Duration for implementation

Discussion 0
Questions 326

In the Control Quality process, which tools and techniques techniques can be applied to verify deliverable?

Options:

A.  

Statistical sampling, inspection, and meetings

B.  

Lessons learned register, control charts, and product evaluation

C.  

Checklists, retrospective documents, and approved change requests

D.  

Black box tests, questionnaires and surveys, and lessons learned register

Discussion 0
Questions 327

Which of the following techniques should a project manager of a large project with virtual teams use to enhance collaboration?

Options:

A.  

Resource breakdown structure

B.  

Physical resources assignment

C.  

Team building activities

D.  

Integrated Change Control

Discussion 0
Questions 328

A construction project is underway, and during... tasks impacted the painting work

A construction project is underway, and during the progress review the painter complained that the task could not be started because the mason has not finished the plastering job What kind ot relationship between the tasks impacted the painting work?

Options:

A.  

Finish-to-Finish (FF)

B.  

Start-to-Finish (SF)

C.  

Finish-to-Start(FS)

D.  

Start-to-Slart(SS)

Discussion 0
Questions 329

Which of the following items is a technique for data gathering?

Options:

A.  

Facilitation

B.  

Meeting management

C.  

Conflict management

D.  

Interviews

Discussion 0
Questions 330

Which statement describes the various purposes of project scheduling?

Options:

A.  

Define the policies, rules, and techniques to run a schedule; serve as a tool to manage stakeholder expectations; and serve as a base for backlog management

B.  

Define how and when deliverables will be completed, serve as communication tool, and serve as a base for performance reporting

C.  

Define the life cycle, traditional or agile approach, and tools to control schedule; serve as a reference for scope management; and serve as a base for risk management

D.  

Define activities, sequences, duration, and dependencies, serve as a reference for resource allocation, serve as a base for earned value analysis.

Discussion 0
Questions 331

What process is used to identify quality requirements and/or standards for a project and its deliverables'?

Options:

A.  

Manage Quality

B.  

Plan Quality Management

C.  

Control Quality

D.  

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Discussion 0
Questions 332

A project manager needs to request outside support......manager need to create

A project manager needs to request outside support for a statement ot work (SOW) that is not precise. Which kind of contract does the project manager need to create?

Options:

A.  

Time and material (T&M)

B.  

Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)

C.  

Fixed price

D.  

Cost plus award fee (CPAF)

Discussion 0
Questions 333

Which project documents can determine the budget?

Options:

A.  

Procurement documents, contracts, requirements documentation, and basis of estimates

B.  

Basis of estimates, cost estimates, project schedule, and risk register

C.  

Business case, project charter, statement of work, and cost estimates

D.  

Scope baseline, resource management plan, activity list, and assumption log

Discussion 0
Questions 334

What important qualities should project managers possess for strategic and business management?

Options:

A.  

Skills and behaviors related to specific domains of project management

B.  

Knowledge and competencies needed to guide and motivate a team

C.  

Skills and behaviors needed to help an organization achieve its goals

D.  

Expertise in the industry and organization that deliver better outcomes

Discussion 0
Questions 335

For what project management process is work performance information an output?

Options:

A.  

Implement Risk Responses

B.  

Plan Stakeholder Engagement

C.  

Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

D.  

Plan Quality Management

Discussion 0
Questions 336

In which of the risk management processes is the processes is the project charter used as an input?

Options:

A.  

Palm Risk Responses

B.  

Implement Risk Responses

C.  

Plan Risk Management

D.  

Perform Quantitative Risk Responses

Discussion 0
Questions 337

Which can be used to convert a verified deliverable to an accepted deliverable?

Options:

A.  

Decomposition

B.  

Reporting

C.  

Voting

D.  

Brainstorming

Discussion 0
Questions 338

What is the recommended approach for handling risk in a high-variability environment?

Options:

A.  

Adaptive

B.  

Predictive

C.  

Iterative

D.  

Incremental

Discussion 0
Questions 339

Which actions should a project manager follow to manage stakeholders?

Options:

A.  

Identify the key stakeholders and keep them informed at all times.

B.  

Identify the stakeholders, planning, managing and monitoring their engagement

C.  

Meet and keep informed any person related to the project, at all times

D.  

Identify the stakeholders and monitor their level of satisfaction

Discussion 0
Questions 340

Which tools and techniques should a project manager use when estimating costs?

Options:

A.  

Lessons learned register and cost aggregation

B.  

Project schedule and resources requirements

C.  

Three-point estimating and risk register

D.  

Expert judgempnt and decision making

Discussion 0