Exam I: Finance Theory Financial Instruments Financial Markets - 2015 Edition
Last Update May 4, 2024
Total Questions : 287
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A trader finds that a stock index is trading at 1000, and a six month futures contract on the same index is available at 1020. The risk free rate is 2% per annum, and the dividend rate is 1% per annum. What should the trader do?
[According to the PRMIA study guide for Exam 1, Simple Exotics and Convertible Bonds have been excluded from the syllabus. You may choose to ignore this question. It appears here solely because the Handbook continues to have these chapters.]
Which of the following statements is true:
I. Knock-out options start lifeless and convert to a plain vanilla option when the barrier is hit
II. Barrier options are cheaper than equivalent vanilla options
III. Average price options are more expensive than equivalent vanilla options
IV. Digital options have a high gamma close to the strike price
A US treasury bill with 90 days to maturity and a face value of $100 is priced at $98. What is the annual bond-equivalent yield on this treasury bill?
Credit derivatives can be used for:
I. Reducing credit exposures
II. Reducing interest rate risks
III. Earn credit risk premiums
IV. Get market exposure without taking cash market positions
An investor holds $1m in face each of two bonds. Bond 1 has a price of 90 and a duration of 5 years. Bond 2 has a price of 110 and a duration of 10 years. What is the combined duration of the portfolio in years?
The rule that optimal portfolios will maximize the Sharpe ratio only applies when which of the following conditions is satisfied:
I. It is possible to borrow or lend any amounts at the risk free rate
II. Investors' risk preferences are fully described by expected returns and standard deviation
III. Investors are risk neutral
Which of the following cause convexity to increase:
I. Increase in yields
II. Increase in maturity
III. Increase in coupon rate
IV. Increase in duration
What is the running yield on a 6% coupon bond selling at a clean price of $96?
Which of the following statements is true:
I. The standard deviation of a short position is the same as the standard deviation of a long position
II. The expected return of a short position is the same as that a long position in the same asset
III. If two assets are perfectly positively correlated, then a short position in one and a long position in the other are negatively correlated
IV. If we increase the weight of an asset in a portfolio, its correlation with other assets in the portfolio scales up proportionately
A bond has a Macaulay duration of 6 years. The yield to maturity for this bond is currently 5%. If interest rates rise across the curve by 10 basis points, what is the impact on the price of the bond?
Security A and B both have expected returns of 10%, but the standard deviation of Security A is 10% while that of security B is 20%. Borrowings are not permitted. A portfolio manager who wishes to maximize his probability of earning a 25% return during the year should invest in:
What is the notional value of one equity index futures contract where the value of the index is 1500 and the contract multiplier is $50:
Arrange the following rates in descending order, assuming an upward sloping yield curve:
1. The 10 year zero rate
2. The forward rate from year 9 to 10
3. The yield-to-maturity on a 10 year coupon bearing bond
A bond with a 5% coupon trades at 95. An increase in interest rates by 10 bps causes its price to decline to $94.50. A decrease in interest rates by 10 bps causes its price to increase to $95.60. Estimate the convexity of the bond.
What is the yield to maturity for a 5% annual coupon bond trading at par? The bond matures in 10 years.
Which of the following statements are true:
I. The swap rate, also called the swap spread, is initially calculated so that the value of the swap at inception is zero.
II. The value of a swap at initiation is different from zero and is equal to the difference between the NPV of the cash flows of the two legs of the swap
III. OTC swaps are standardized and limited to a defined set of standard contracts
IV. Interest rate and commodity swaps are the types of swaps that are most traded
According to the CAPM, the expected return from a risky asset is a function of:
What would be the expected return on a stock with a beta of 1.2, when the risk free rate is 3% and the broad market index is expected to earn 8%?
A risk manager is deciding between using futures or forward contracts to hedge a forward foreign exchange position. Which of the following statements would be true as he considers his decision:
I. He would need to consider tailing the hedge for the futures contracts while that does not apply to forward contracts
II. He would need to consider tailing the hedge for the forward contract while that does not apply to futures contracts
III. He would need to consider counterparty risk for the futures contracts while that is unlikely to be an issue for the forward contract
IV. He would be likely able to match up maturity dates to his liability when using futures while that may not be so for the forward contracts
Which of the following statements are true:
I. Protective puts are a form of insurance against a fall in prices
II. The maximum loss for an investor holding a protective put is equal to the decline in the value of the underlying
III. The premium paid on the put options held as a protective put is a loss if the value of the underlying goes up
IV. Protective puts can be a useful strategy for an investor holding a long position but with a negative short term view of the markets
An asset has a volatility of 10% per year. An investment manager chooses to hedge it with another asset that has a volatility of 9% per year and a correlation of 0.9. Calculate the hedge ratio.
If the 3 month interest rate is 5%, and the 6 month interest rate is 6%, what would be the contract rate applicable to a 3 x 6 FRA?
Which of the following are true:
I. A interest rate cap is effectively a call option on an underlying interest rate
II. The premium on a cap is determined by the volatility of the underlying rate
III. A collar is more expensive than a cap or a floor
IV. A floor is effectively a put option on an underlying interest rate
[According to the PRMIA study guide for Exam 1, Simple Exotics and Convertible Bonds have been excluded from the syllabus. You may choose to ignore this question. It appears here solely because the Handbook continues to have these chapters.]
Which of the following best describes a holder extendible option:
An investor holds a portfolio of mortage backed securities valued at $100m. Using a Monte Carlo based pricing model, he determines that the value of the portfolio would rise to $102m if interest rates were to fall by 45 basis points, and fall to $97m if interest rates were to rise by 45 basis points. What is the estimated modified duration of the investor's portfolio?
Which of the following expressions represents the Treynor ratio, where μ is the expected return, σ is the standard deviation of returns, rm is the return of the market portfolio and rf is the risk free rate:
A)
B)
C)
D)
A corn farmer has committed to sell 20,000 bushels of corn in November. The spot price has a standard deviation of 20 cents per bushel, and its correlation with the December futures prices is 0.9. The futures contract is for 5000 bushels and has a standard deviation of 24 cents per bushel. What should the corn producer do if he/she wishes to hedge the risk of price movements between now and November?
A 'consol' is a perpetual bond issued by the UK government. Its running yield is 5%. What is its duration?
If zero rates with continuous compounding for 4 and 5 years are 4% and 5% respectively, what is the forward rate for year 5?
When comparing compound interest rates to equivalent continuously compounded rates of return, the latter will always be:
A futures contract is quoted at 105. Which is the cheapest-to-deliver bond for this contract if there are three available bonds, quoted at 97, 101 and 106 with conversion factors respectively of 0.9, 1 and 1.1 respectively?