Labour Day Special 65% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: exams65

Exam I: Finance Theory Financial Instruments Financial Markets - 2015 Edition Question and Answers

Exam I: Finance Theory Financial Instruments Financial Markets - 2015 Edition

Last Update May 4, 2024
Total Questions : 287

We are offering FREE 8006 PRMIA exam questions. All you do is to just go and sign up. Give your details, prepare 8006 free exam questions and then go for complete pool of Exam I: Finance Theory Financial Instruments Financial Markets - 2015 Edition test questions that will help you more.

8006 pdf

8006 PDF

$35  $99.99
8006 Engine

8006 Testing Engine

$42  $119.99
8006 PDF + Engine

8006 PDF + Testing Engine

$56  $159.99
Questions 1

When graphing the efficient frontier, the two axes are:

Options:

A.  

Asset beta and standard deviation of the market portfolio

B.  

Expected return and asset's beta

C.  

Portfolio return and market standard deviation

D.  

Portfolio return and portfolio standard deviation

Discussion 0
Questions 2

A normal yield curve is generally:

Options:

A.  

Flat

B.  

Humped

C.  

Downward sloping

D.  

Upward sloping

Discussion 0
Questions 3

A trader finds that a stock index is trading at 1000, and a six month futures contract on the same index is available at 1020. The risk free rate is 2% per annum, and the dividend rate is 1% per annum. What should the trader do?

Options:

A.  

Buy the index spot and sell the futures contract

B.  

Buy the futures contract and sell the index spot

C.  

Buy the index spot and buy the futures contract

D.  

Sell the futures contract

Discussion 0
Questions 4

[According to the PRMIA study guide for Exam 1, Simple Exotics and Convertible Bonds have been excluded from the syllabus. You may choose to ignore this question. It appears here solely because the Handbook continues to have these chapters.]

Which of the following statements is true:

I. Knock-out options start lifeless and convert to a plain vanilla option when the barrier is hit

II. Barrier options are cheaper than equivalent vanilla options

III. Average price options are more expensive than equivalent vanilla options

IV. Digital options have a high gamma close to the strike price

Options:

A.  

II, III and IV

B.  

II and IV

C.  

I and III

D.  

I, II and IV

Discussion 0
Questions 5

A US treasury bill with 90 days to maturity and a face value of $100 is priced at $98. What is the annual bond-equivalent yield on this treasury bill?

Options:

A.  

8.16%

B.  

8.11%

C.  

8.00%

D.  

8.28%

Discussion 0
Questions 6

Which of the following statements is false:

Options:

A.  

The value of an FRA at expiration is determined by the spot interest rate prevailing at expiration

B.  

The value of an FRA (forward rate agreement) at inception is zero.

C.  

An FRA can be valued at anytime in its lifetime using the spot interest rate for the period to which the FRA relates

D.  

Notional principals are exchanged at the start and the end of an FRA to eliminate credit risk

Discussion 0
Questions 7

Credit derivatives can be used for:

I. Reducing credit exposures

II. Reducing interest rate risks

III. Earn credit risk premiums

IV. Get market exposure without taking cash market positions

Options:

A.  

II, III and IV

B.  

I, III and IV

C.  

I and IV

D.  

I, II and III

Discussion 0
Questions 8

An investor holds $1m in face each of two bonds. Bond 1 has a price of 90 and a duration of 5 years. Bond 2 has a price of 110 and a duration of 10 years. What is the combined duration of the portfolio in years?

Options:

A.  

7

B.  

7.75

C.  

7.5

D.  

7.25

Discussion 0
Questions 9

Futures initial margin requirements are

Options:

A.  

determined based on the client's credit history

B.  

determined by the members based on the SPAN framework

C.  

determined based on the length of the settlement period

D.  

determined by the exchange

Discussion 0
Questions 10

The rule that optimal portfolios will maximize the Sharpe ratio only applies when which of the following conditions is satisfied:

I. It is possible to borrow or lend any amounts at the risk free rate

II. Investors' risk preferences are fully described by expected returns and standard deviation

III. Investors are risk neutral

Options:

A.  

II

B.  

I, II and III

C.  

I and III

D.  

I and II

Discussion 0
Questions 11

Which of the following cause convexity to increase:

I. Increase in yields

II. Increase in maturity

III. Increase in coupon rate

IV. Increase in duration

Options:

A.  

I and III

B.  

I and IV

C.  

II, III and IV

D.  

II and IV

Discussion 0
Questions 12

What is the running yield on a 6% coupon bond selling at a clean price of $96?

Options:

A.  

5.70%

B.  

6.25%

C.  

6.30%

D.  

6.00%

Discussion 0
Questions 13

Which of the following statements is true:

I. The standard deviation of a short position is the same as the standard deviation of a long position

II. The expected return of a short position is the same as that a long position in the same asset

III. If two assets are perfectly positively correlated, then a short position in one and a long position in the other are negatively correlated

IV. If we increase the weight of an asset in a portfolio, its correlation with other assets in the portfolio scales up proportionately

Options:

A.  

I, II, III and IV

B.  

II and IV

C.  

I and III

D.  

II, III and IV

Discussion 0
Questions 14

Caps, floors and collars are instruments designed to:

Options:

A.  

Hedge against credit spreads changing

B.  

Hedge gamma risk in option portfolios

C.  

Hedge interest rate risks

D.  

All of the above

Discussion 0
Questions 15

A bond has a Macaulay duration of 6 years. The yield to maturity for this bond is currently 5%. If interest rates rise across the curve by 10 basis points, what is the impact on the price of the bond?

Options:

A.  

Increase of 57 basis points

B.  

Decrease of 57 basis points

C.  

Increase of 10 basis points

D.  

Decrease of 10 basis points

Discussion 0
Questions 16

Security A and B both have expected returns of 10%, but the standard deviation of Security A is 10% while that of security B is 20%. Borrowings are not permitted. A portfolio manager who wishes to maximize his probability of earning a 25% return during the year should invest in:

Options:

A.  

Security A

B.  

50% in Security A and 50% in Security B

C.  

Security B

D.  

None of the above

Discussion 0
Questions 17

What is the notional value of one equity index futures contract where the value of the index is 1500 and the contract multiplier is $50:

Options:

A.  

75000

B.  

200

C.  

50

D.  

1500

Discussion 0
Questions 18

Arrange the following rates in descending order, assuming an upward sloping yield curve:

1. The 10 year zero rate

2. The forward rate from year 9 to 10

3. The yield-to-maturity on a 10 year coupon bearing bond

Options:

A.  

1, 2, 3

B.  

2, 1, 3

C.  

1, 3, 2

D.  

3, 2, 1

Discussion 0
Questions 19

A bond with a 5% coupon trades at 95. An increase in interest rates by 10 bps causes its price to decline to $94.50. A decrease in interest rates by 10 bps causes its price to increase to $95.60. Estimate the convexity of the bond.

Options:

A.  

5.79

B.  

1.053

C.  

-5

D.  

1053

Discussion 0
Questions 20

What is the yield to maturity for a 5% annual coupon bond trading at par? The bond matures in 10 years.

Options:

A.  

Less than 5%

B.  

Equal to 5%

C.  

Greater than 5%

D.  

Cannot be determined based on the given information

Discussion 0
Questions 21

Which of the following statements are true:

I. The swap rate, also called the swap spread, is initially calculated so that the value of the swap at inception is zero.

II. The value of a swap at initiation is different from zero and is equal to the difference between the NPV of the cash flows of the two legs of the swap

III. OTC swaps are standardized and limited to a defined set of standard contracts

IV. Interest rate and commodity swaps are the types of swaps that are most traded

Options:

A.  

I, II and IV

B.  

II and III

C.  

I and IV

D.  

II, III and IV

Discussion 0
Questions 22

According to the CAPM, the expected return from a risky asset is a function of:

Options:

A.  

how much the risky asset contributes to portfolio risk

B.  

diversifiable risk that the asset brings

C.  

the riskiness, ie the volatility of the risky asset alone

D.  

all of the above

Discussion 0
Questions 23

What would be the expected return on a stock with a beta of 1.2, when the risk free rate is 3% and the broad market index is expected to earn 8%?

Options:

A.  

7%

B.  

7.4%

C.  

9%

D.  

9.6%

Discussion 0
Questions 24

What is the coupon on a treasury bill?

Options:

A.  

The fed funds rate

B.  

The 3-month rate

C.  

0%

D.  

Libor

Discussion 0
Questions 25

Buying an option on a futures contract requires:

Options:

A.  

both initial margin and option premium to be paid upfront at the time of entering into the contract

B.  

the option premium to be paid upfront and futures margins will become due if the option is exercised

C.  

only option premiums to be paid upfront and any daily mark-to-market P&L

D.  

only initial margin to be paid at the time of the option exercise

Discussion 0
Questions 26

A risk manager is deciding between using futures or forward contracts to hedge a forward foreign exchange position. Which of the following statements would be true as he considers his decision:

I. He would need to consider tailing the hedge for the futures contracts while that does not apply to forward contracts

II. He would need to consider tailing the hedge for the forward contract while that does not apply to futures contracts

III. He would need to consider counterparty risk for the futures contracts while that is unlikely to be an issue for the forward contract

IV. He would be likely able to match up maturity dates to his liability when using futures while that may not be so for the forward contracts

Options:

A.  

I only

B.  

I and III

C.  

II only

D.  

II and IV

Discussion 0
Questions 27

The effectiveness of a hedge is determined by:

Options:

A.  

the correlation between the asset being hedged and the asset being used as a hedge

B.  

the correlation and standard deviation of the hedge asset

C.  

the alpha coefficient of the linear regression between the asset being hedged and the hedge

D.  

the beta coefficient of the linear regression between the asset being hedged and the hedge

Discussion 0
Questions 28

Which of the following correctly describes a "reverse repo"?

Options:

A.  

An asset swap that is offset by an identical but opposite swap

B.  

Lending cash with securities as a collateral

C.  

Borrowing cash while posting securities as a collateral

D.  

A repo with an undefined maturity period

Discussion 0
Questions 29

Which of the following statements are true:

I. Protective puts are a form of insurance against a fall in prices

II. The maximum loss for an investor holding a protective put is equal to the decline in the value of the underlying

III. The premium paid on the put options held as a protective put is a loss if the value of the underlying goes up

IV. Protective puts can be a useful strategy for an investor holding a long position but with a negative short term view of the markets

Options:

A.  

I and IV

B.  

I, III and IV

C.  

II and III

D.  

I, II, III and IV

Discussion 0
Questions 30

An asset has a volatility of 10% per year. An investment manager chooses to hedge it with another asset that has a volatility of 9% per year and a correlation of 0.9. Calculate the hedge ratio.

Options:

A.  

0.9

B.  

0.81

C.  

1.2345

D.  

1

Discussion 0
Questions 31

If the 3 month interest rate is 5%, and the 6 month interest rate is 6%, what would be the contract rate applicable to a 3 x 6 FRA?

Options:

A.  

6%

B.  

6.9%

C.  

5.5%

D.  

5%

Discussion 0
Questions 32

Which of the following are true:

I. A interest rate cap is effectively a call option on an underlying interest rate

II. The premium on a cap is determined by the volatility of the underlying rate

III. A collar is more expensive than a cap or a floor

IV. A floor is effectively a put option on an underlying interest rate

Options:

A.  

I, II, III and IV

B.  

I, II and III

C.  

III and IV

D.  

I, II and IV

Discussion 0
Questions 33

[According to the PRMIA study guide for Exam 1, Simple Exotics and Convertible Bonds have been excluded from the syllabus. You may choose to ignore this question. It appears here solely because the Handbook continues to have these chapters.]

Which of the following best describes a holder extendible option:

Options:

A.  

an option in which the buyer of the option has the option to extend the expiry of the option upon the payment of an extra premium

B.  

an option in which the holder of the option has the option to extend the expiry of the option in case the option expires out of the money

C.  

an option in which the seller of the option can extend the expiry of the option if the underlying's price is beyond an agreed threshold

D.  

an option whose expiry is automatically extended if it finishes out of the money.

Discussion 0
Questions 34

An investor holds a portfolio of mortage backed securities valued at $100m. Using a Monte Carlo based pricing model, he determines that the value of the portfolio would rise to $102m if interest rates were to fall by 45 basis points, and fall to $97m if interest rates were to rise by 45 basis points. What is the estimated modified duration of the investor's portfolio?

Options:

A.  

5

B.  

5.56

C.  

11.12

D.  

None of the above

Discussion 0
Questions 35

Which of the following statements are true:

Options:

A.  

The mean-variance criterion is a simplification of the principal of maximum expected utility

B.  

The mean-variance criterion is superior to the principal of maximum expected utility

C.  

The mean-variance criterion is the same thing as the principal of maximum expected utility

D.  

The mean-variance criterion is inferior to the principal of maximum expected utility

Discussion 0
Questions 36

Which of the following expressions represents the Treynor ratio, where μ is the expected return, σ is the standard deviation of returns, rm is the return of the market portfolio and rf is the risk free rate:

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

Discussion 0
Questions 37

A corn farmer has committed to sell 20,000 bushels of corn in November. The spot price has a standard deviation of 20 cents per bushel, and its correlation with the December futures prices is 0.9. The futures contract is for 5000 bushels and has a standard deviation of 24 cents per bushel. What should the corn producer do if he/she wishes to hedge the risk of price movements between now and November?

Options:

A.  

Buy 4 December corn futures contracts, and close these out in November when he/she sells the corn

B.  

Sell 4 December corn futures contracts, and close these out in November when he/she sells the corn

C.  

Sell 3 December corn futures contracts, and close these out in November when he/she sells the corn

D.  

Buy 3 December corn futures contracts, and close these out in November when he/she sells the corn

Discussion 0
Questions 38

A 'consol' is a perpetual bond issued by the UK government. Its running yield is 5%. What is its duration?

Options:

A.  

Infinity

B.  

5 years

C.  

20 years

D.  

25 years

Discussion 0
Questions 39

If zero rates with continuous compounding for 4 and 5 years are 4% and 5% respectively, what is the forward rate for year 5?

Options:

A.  

5%

B.  

9%

C.  

9.097%

D.  

7%

Discussion 0
Questions 40

When comparing compound interest rates to equivalent continuously compounded rates of return, the latter will always be:

Options:

A.  

lower

B.  

higher

C.  

the same

D.  

cannot say with available information

Discussion 0
Questions 41

A futures contract is quoted at 105. Which is the cheapest-to-deliver bond for this contract if there are three available bonds, quoted at 97, 101 and 106 with conversion factors respectively of 0.9, 1 and 1.1 respectively?

Options:

A.  

All the bonds are equally cheap to deliver

B.  

The bond quoted at 106

C.  

The bond quoted at 97

D.  

The bond quoted at 101

Discussion 0
Questions 42

The 'transformation line' expresses the relationship between

Options:

A.  

Expected risk and return for a portfolio comprising a riskless asset and a risky bundle

B.  

The risk free rate and expected market risk premiums

C.  

Asset beta and expected return

D.  

Expected risk and return for all portfolios lying on the efficient frontier

Discussion 0