A.  

eBGP peers typically use system addresses for session establishment.

B.  

eBGP peers are managed under a single administration.

C.  

eBGP peers do not propagate updates learned via iBGP.

D.  

eBGP peers are usually directly connected to each other.

A.  

The entire confederation is viewed as a single AS by an eBGP peer.

B.  

Within a confederation, each member AS is considered as a stand-alone AS.

C.  

Member ASs within a confederation can use route reflection.

D.  

Member ASs must be fully meshed within a confederation.

A.  

All routers with which it has a BGP session.

B.  

All routers with which it has a BGP session, except the router it received the update from, which is router

B.  

C.  

All routers with which it has a BGP session, except the router it received the update from, which is router

C.  

D.  

All routers with which it has a BGP session, except the router it received the update from, which is router

D.  

E.  

Only eBGP neighbors.

A.  

Advertising external networks into IGP.

B.  

Using system addresses for setting up iBGP sessions.

C.  

Exporting the networks associated with the external links of eBGP peers into BGP.

D.  

Optimizing BGP route table by exporting IGP routes into BGP.

A.  

"client2" routes will be only tagged with communities 'East'' and "South".

B.  

"client2" routes will be tagged with community "East".

C.  

"client2" routes will only be tagged with community "South".

D.  

"client2" routes will be rejected.

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

A.  

140000 137000

B.  

137000 140000

C.  

23456 23456

D.  

200 140000 137000

A.  

MAC learning

B.  

SA filtering

C.  

Routing table population

D.  

Frame forwarding

A.  

A management VPLS carries customer traffic over the non-blocking spoke-SDP

B.  

A VPLS service must be defined as a management VPLS upon creation to take on the role of a management VPLS

C.  

The state of a spoke-SDP within a user VPLS will take on the state of the spoke-sdp within the management VPLS.

D.  

The management VPLS must be created before the user VPLS.

A.  

0

B.  

1

C.  

2

D.  

3

A.  

It will be queued in the reserved portion of the buffer pool and remain out-of-profile.

B.  

It will be queued in the reserved portion of the buffer pool if there are no in-profile packets already in the queue.

C.  

It will be queued in the reserved portion of the buffer pool and be in-profile.

D.  

It will be queued in the shared portion of the buffer pool but contend for shared buffer space with packets from other queues.

E.  

It will be queued in the shared portion of the buffer pool but may be dropped if the buffer utilization exceeds the start-average value of the low slope.

A.  

Router interfaces

B.  

Ingress MDA

C.  

Ingress Ethernet network ports

D.  

Egress Ethernet network ports

E.  

Service SAPs

A.  

The DSCP marking stays ncl for all applications; only the internal forwarding class is manipulated across different applications.

B.  

DSCP bits can be set per application, per routing instance.

C.  

The internal forwarding class for self-generated traffic is set once and applied to the base router and all VPRN instances.

D.  

Self-generated traffic can be marked at Layer 2 no matter what encapsulation is used on the network interfaces.

A.  

The EXP bits in the MPLS header.

B.  

The packet's source and destination IP addresses.

C.  

The service ID of the service to which the SAP belongs.

D.  

The dot1p bits in the frame header.

E.  

The packet's Ethertype.

A.  

A point in the network where EXP bits can be mapped to one of eight predefined FCs, each one with its own queue.

B.  

A logical point in a service tunnel where all of customer traffic is aggregated.

C.  

A point at which the initial classification of customer traffic occurs.

D.  

A point in the network where QoS parameters are discarded in favor of lower-level hardware queuing functions, such as LLI (Link Layer Interleave).

E.  

A point in the network where traffic flows from multiple different services are queued together, based on forwarding class.

A.  

A device that provides no differentiation between customer traffic flows.

B.  

A device that classifies and marks customer traffic.

C.  

A device that uses MPLS EXP bits to differentiate between traffic flows.

D.  

A device that creates macroflows towards the core from multiple customer sites.

E.  

A device that passes macroflows while optionally changing QoS markings.

A.  

The NRLI

B.  

The AFI

C.  

The SAFI

D.  

The extended community

A.  

To utilize memory resources efficiently

B.  

To avoid Head of Line blocking

C.  

To achieve more granularity of QoS control

D.  

To make hierarchical scheduling/policing possible

A.  

16

B.  

8

C.  

32

D.  

48

E.  

56

A.  

SAPs

B.  

SDPs

C.  

Services

D.  

Queues

E.  

Schedulers

F.  

Forwarding classes

A.  

The DSCP value will be set to af21.

B.  

The DSCP value will be set to be.

C.  

TheDSCPvaluewillbesettoaf23.

D.  

The DSCP value will be set to af 12.

E.  

Thedot1pvaluewillbesetto5.

F.  

Thedot1pvaluewillbesetto2.

G.  

The dot1p value will be set to 3.

A.  

All AF traffic will be marked "in-profile" at the SAP-ingress.

B.  

All TCP traffic will be mapped to forwarding class EF.

C.  

UDP traffic is placed in queue 3 while ICMP traffic is placed in queue 5.

D.  

EF traffic will receive higher scheduling priority than H2 traffic.

E.  

Traffic that does not match any of the IP criteria will be placed in queue 3.

A.  

It is best used when a single VPN is required to provide Internet access, as well as to maintain VPN connectivity between different customer sites.

B.  

If there is no requirement for the VRF to contain the full Internet routing table, a default route to the Internet gateway router is sufficient.

C.  

Only one interface on the CE is required for both VPN and Internet connectivity.

D.  

The Nokia 7750 SR supports route leaking in full mesh and extranet VPRN topologies only.

A.  

All out-of-profile traffic will be dropped before any in-profile is dropped.

B.  

The time average factor of 0 will discard all packets arriving in the shared buffer pool.

C.  

When the shared buffer utilization reaches 51%, in-profile packets might be dropped.

D.  

The highest probability with which an out-of-profile packet can be dropped is 20%.

E.  

When an in-profile packet arrives and the shared buffer utilization is at 69%, the packet will have approximately a 60% likelihood of being discarded.

A.  

A network LAG can only connect to another network LAG.

B.  

All port numbers must match between LAG endpoints.

C.  

All port physical speeds must match between members of a LAG.

D.  

It aggregates traffic from multiple physical ports into a single virtual port.

A.  

EF

B.  

H1

C.  

L1

D.  

H2

E.  

L2

A.  

TRUE

B.  

FALSE

A.  

It is important that all packets are classified in the same way at all SAP-ingress points.

B.  

Once a packet is classified to a forwarding class, it cannot change across the network.

C.  

Packet enters a node will be treated as per the local hop's configured policy.

D.  

Native IP packets entering a network port will be marked at the first network egress by default

E.  

Native IP packets entering a network port will not be marked at the first network egress by default.

F.  

Native IP packets entering a network port will be marked at the first network egress, regardless of the re-marking configuration.

A.  

H2

B.  

NC

C.  

L2

D.  

EF

E.  

H1

F.  

BE

A.  

packet filtering

B.  

prioritization of traffic flows

C.  

least cost routing

D.  

OAM functionality

E.  

separation between the data plane and the control plane

A.  

The DSCP value will be set to af21.

B.  

The DSCP value will be set to af23.

C.  

The DSCP value will remain as ef.

D.  

The EXP value, in the MPLS headers, will be set to 4.

E.  

The EXP value, in the MPLS headers, will be set to 3.

A.  

It will be discarded because the high-priority-only threshold is exceeded.

B.  

It will be queued but re-marked as "out-of-profile."

C.  

It will be queued in the reserved portion of the buffer pool and remain "in-profile."

D.  

It will be queued in the shared portion of the buffer pool but contend for shared buffer space with packets from other queues.

E.  

It will be queued in the shared portion of the buffer pool but may be dropped if the buffer utilization exceeds the start-average value of the low slope.

A.  

The scheduler will be allocated its "within CIR" bandwidth before all other children at the same level have received their "within CIR" bandwidth.

B.  

The scheduler will be allocated its "within CIR" bandwidth after all other children at the same level have received their "within CIR" bandwidth.

C.  

The scheduler will be allocated its "within CIR" bandwidth after all other children at all levels have received their "within CIR" bandwidth.

D.  

The scheduler will not be allocated its "within CIR" bandwidth.

A.  

The source MAC will be learned on the SAP. The frame will be replicated and flooded out of all SDPs.

B.  

The source MAC will be learned on the SAP. The frame will be replicated and flooded out of all mesh SDP's.

C.  

The source MAC will be learned on the SAP. The frame will be replicated and flooded out of all spoke SDPs.

D.  

The frame will be discarded and no learning will take place.

A.  

No need to build and maintain its own backbone.

B.  

The solution scales as the number of serviced customer carriers increases.

C.  

The solution scales as the number of VPNs offered by the customer carriers increases.

D.  

The ability to manage end-customer services.

A.  

MP-BGP, LDP, RSVP-TE

B.  

LDP, RSVP-TE, GRE

C.  

MP-BGP, RSVP-TE, GRE

D.  

MP-BGP, LDP

E.  

MP-BGP only

A.  

target:65100:2 and target:65100:3

B.  

target:65100:1 and target:65100:2

C.  

target:65100:1 and target:65100:3

D.  

target:65100:1, target:65100:2 and target:65100:3

A.  

VPRN

B.  

BGP/MPLS VPN

C.  

VLL

D.  

VPLS

E.  

IP-VPN

F.  

ePipe

A.  

Within each AS, the ASBR advertises the system addresses of remote PE routers as labeled IPv4 routes.

B.  

PE routers in different ASs exchange VPRN routing information directly over MP-eBGP.

C.  

Within each AS, MP-iBGP sessions are established to exchange VPN-IPv4 prefixes between the PE routers.

D.  

ASBRs exchange the system addresses of PE routers as VPN-IPv4 routes over MP-eBGP.

A.  

Distributing customer routing information between sites

B.  

Forwarding customer data packets

C.  

Providing an integrated billing solution

D.  

Maintaining separation between distinct customer networks

E.  

Allowing the implementation of Layer 3 devices in the provider core

A.  

Model B does not require the configuration of VPRN instances on the ASBRs.

B.  

The ASBRs exchange data packets that are encapsulated with a transport label and a service label.

C.  

The route target advertised in one AS is maintained and used in the remote AS.

D.  

The CLI command "configure router bgp enable-inter-as-vpn" is required on the ASBRs.

A.  

eBGP is used for route and label exchange between CSC-CE and CSC-PE routers.

B.  

iBGP can be used to distribute routes between CSC-CE and PE routers.

C.  

MP-iBGP is used to advertise routes between the CSC-PE routers.

D.  

MP-iBGP is used to advertise end-customer and Internet routes directly between the PE routers.

A.  

Distributing the customer generated labels between sites

B.  

Distributing the customer routing information between

C.  

Forwarding the customer originated data packets to the appropriate destination

D.  

Forwarding the provider originated data packets to the appropriate customer site

E.  

Providing secure layer 3 routing exchange between sites

A.  

An MP-BGP update carries an MPLS label that is used as the service label for a VPRN.

B.  

There can be multiple Route Targets per route in an MP-BGP update.

C.  

There can only be one Route Distinguisher per route in an MP-BGP update.

D.  

On a specific PE, the MP-BGP updates for prefixes from a single VPRN carry different labels.

E.  

Traditional BGP attributes and MP-BGP attributes are present in an MP-BGP update.

A.  

PE1 advertises spoke routes to CE1.

B.  

The primary VRF on PE1 is used to route data packets from the hub CE to the spoke sites.

C.  

The secondary VRF on PE1 contains routes learned from the spoke sites.

D.  

Spoke sites do not learn routes from other spoke sites directly.

A.  

This approach is recommended when multiple sites advertise the same prefix.

B.  

This approach limits the opportunities for load balancing.

C.  

This approach requires additional memory on the PEs to store more routes.

D.  

This approach is recommended for extranet VPN.

A.  

The neighbor shown is an ASBR router.

B.  

The address family between the peers should be VPN-IPv4 instead of IPv4.

C.  

The neighbor address cannot be the interface address 10.3.4.4.

D.  

The omitted AS number under "BGP summary" must be equal to 64496.

A.  

A full mesh VPRN

B.  

APE hub and spoke VPRN

C.  

An extranet VPRN

D.  

ACE hub and spoke VPRN

A.  

ASBRs exchange labeled IPv4 routes for the system addresses of PE routers.

B.  

It requires a route reflector to be configured in each AS for successful operation.

C.  

VPN-IPv4 routes are neither maintained nor distributed by the ASBRs.

D.  

PE routers in different ASes exchange VPN-IPv4 routes directly between each other using MP-eBGP.

A.  

Model B does not require the configuration of VPRN instances on ASBRs.

B.  

The ASBRs peer with each other to transport VPN-IPv4 routes between autonomous systems.

C.  

PE routers distribute VPN-IPv4 routes to their local ASBR.

D.  

One single ASBR is required in each AS to hold the routes for all VPRNs.

A.  

Memory exhaustion in the provider core

B.  

Route leaking between the customer networks

C.  

CPU utilization for route processing

D.  

Unwanted packet forwarding between customer networks

A.  

BGP sessions between RR1 and PE routers support only the IPv4 address family.

B.  

BGP sessions between RR2 and PE routers support only the VPN-IPv4 address family.

C.  

RR2 establishes BGP sessions with PEL PE2 and PE3.

D.  

RR1 establishes BGP sessions only with PE1 and PE2.

A.  

PE1 pushes a VPN label, a BGP label, and an LDP transport label on the IP packet.

B.  

CSC-CE1 pops the LDP label and swaps the BGP label.

C.  

CSC-PE1 pops the BGP label, swaps the VPN label, and pushes an LDP transport label.

D.  

CSC-PE2 pops the LDP and VPN labels and pushes a BGP label.

A.  

When the P receives the route from the PE.

B.  

When the PE populates the route received from the CE into the VRF.

C.  

When the PE propagates the route to the CE.

D.  

When the PE exports the route from the VRF into the MP-BGP table.

A.  

The VRF 10 on CSC-PE1 includes PE1 and PE2's system addresses.

B.  

The global routing table of PE1 includes PE2's system address.

C.  

The VRF 10 on CSC-PE2 includes CEI'S address.

D.  

The global routing table of PE2 includes CE1's address.

A.  

MP-BGP for exchanging customer routes with other PEs.

B.  

A routing protocol for exchanging customer routes with the CE.

C.  

A label signaling protocol for defining transport tunnels between the PE and CE.

D.  

MPLS for exchanging labels with other provider core devices.

A.  

The configuration is incomplete as the uto-bind command is missing

B.  

The configuration is incomplete as the ignaling off command is missing

C.  

The configuration is incorrect as VPRN service does not support spoke-sdp configuration using MPLS LSPs

D.  

The configuration is incorrect as Line 8 should be poke-sdp 42 mpls create

E.  

The configuration is complete and correct

A.  

They must be recognized by all peers and included in all BGP updates.

B.  

They are discarded if not recognized by the recipient.

C.  

They must be recognized by all peers and optionally included in BGP updates.

D.  

The receiving router sends a notification if a well-known discretionary attribute is not present in an update.

A.  

The update is sent to router R2 in ISP 1.

B.  

The update is sent to routers R2 and R3 in ISP 1.

C.  

The update is sent to all routers in ISP 1.

D.  

The update is sent to routers R2 and R3 in ISP 1, and to router R3 in ISP 2.

A.  

65200 (65206 65202) 65100

B.  

(65206 65202)65100

C.  

65250 (65206 65202) 65100

D.  

65200 65100

A.  

The route is ignored.

B.  

The route is flagged as invalid and placed in the LOC-RI

B.  

C.  

The route is flagged as invalid and placed in the RIB-In.

D.  

The route is flagged as invalid and placed in the RIB-Out.

A.  

10.0.2.1

B.  

10.0.2.2

C.  

10.16.10.1

D.  

10.16.10.3

A.  

Option A

B.  

Option B

C.  

Option C

D.  

Option D

A.  

100

B.  

250

C.  

500

D.  

None

A.  

All BGP routes are accepted.

B.  

All routes matching prefix lists "List-1" and "List-2" are rejected.

C.  

BGP routes matching prefix lists "List-1" or "List-2" are rejected.

D.  

BGP routes matching prefix lists "List-1" and "List-2" are rejected.

A.  

100

B.  

The IGP cost

C.  

500

D.  

None

A.  

Originator_ID of RR1; and Cluster_List of 10.16.10.1.

B.  

Originator_ID of RX; and Cluster_List of 10.16.10.1.

C.  

Originator_ID of RR1; and the Cluster_List is not set.

D.  

Neither the Originator_ID nor the Cluster_List is set.

A.  

Path-ID is a four-octet identifier pre-pended to the NLRI field of a BGP update.

B.  

Path-ID is an optional transitive attribute used to advertise multiple paths.

C.  

Path-ID uniquely identifies each path advertised to a neighbor.

D.  

A BGP speaker that re-advertises a route must generate its own Path-I

D.  

A.  

"65100"

B.  

"65100 65200''

C.  

"65200 65100"

D.  

"65100 65250 65200"

A.  

If no import policy is specified, all valid BGP routes are passed to the BGP route selection process.

B.  

If no export policy is specified, all non-BGP routes are populated into RIB-Out.

C.  

If no import policy is specified, all BGP routes are populated into the route table.

D.  

If no import policy is specified, only valid BGP routes are populated into RIB-Out.

A.  

The neighbor will send a Keepalive message.

B.  

The router is trying to initiate a TCP connection to that neighbor.

C.  

The router received an Open message with the correct parameters.

D.  

The router is actively exchanging updates with that neighbor.

A.  

A single-homed AS is also known as a stub AS.

B.  

A single-homed AS is also known as a leaf AS.

C.  

A single-homed AS uses either the ISP AS number or a private AS number.

D.  

A single-homed AS can be either transit or non-transit

A.  

The IPv6 link-local address of the router D interface towards router

A.  

B.  

The IPv6 link-local address of the router A interface towards router D.

C.  

The IPv6 global address of router A.

D.  

The IPv6 global address of router

D.  

A.  

An AS is a set of routers under a single technical administration.

B.  

An AS efficiently advertises all IGP known routes to other ASs.

C.  

An AS presents a consistent routing policy to other autonomous systems.

D.  

An AS has a 2-byte or 4-byte AS number assigned.

A.  

Increases scalability

B.  

Reduces the FDB size within a VPLS instance

C.  

Reduces replication and bandwidth utilization from the MDU device to the core network

D.  

Easier to manage

E.  

Reduces the routing table size

A.  

ports must be on the same MDA

B.  

ports must have the same speed and duplex settings

C.  

auto negotiation must be on

D.  

auto negotiation must be off or limited

E.  

port must be in access mode only

A.  

A single management VPLS using RSTP can be used to block different SDPs for different VPLS services.

B.  

A single management VPLS using 802.1D-2004 can be used to block different SDPs for different VPLS services

C.  

There is no way to have load balancing across redundant spoke-SDPs.

D.  

Two management VPLS using RSTP can be used to block different SDPs for different VPLS services.

A.  

TRUE

B.  

FALSE

A.  

This Bridge is furthest from the Root Bridge within the VPLS mesh.

B.  

This Bridge is the Root Bridge.

C.  

SAP 1/1/1 is an Edge Port.

D.  

This Bridge is closest to the Root Bridge within the VPLS mesh.

A.  

For the switches that are non-root or designated switches, the port with the highest combined cost to the root is the root port.

B.  

In the case where two switches have the same priority, the switch with the lowest MAC address becomes the root.

C.  

The switch port that is the greatest distance from the LAN to the root is the designated port.

D.  

All of the above.

A.  

Spoke SDP

B.  

Mesh SDP

C.  

Either (a) or (b) will make this sentence true.

D.  

Neither (a) nor (b) will make this sentence true.

A.  

Bridge B 1/1/3

B.  

Bridge B 1/1/2

C.  

Bridge C 1/1/2

D.  

Bridge C 2/1/1

E.  

Bridge D 1/1/1

F.  

Bridge D 1/1/3

G.  

Bridge E 1/1/1

A.  

Mesh-sdp

B.  

Spoke-sdp

C.  

MPLS

D.  

GRE

A.  

Ring topologies.

B.  

Metro-to-metro topologies

C.  

H-VPLS topologies.

D.  

Partial-mesh topologies.

A.  

VPLS 1 will be displayed as mVPLS and VPLS 100 will be displayed as VPLS.

B.  

VPLS 1 will be displayed as mVPLS and VPLS 100 will be displayed as uVPLS

C.  

VPLS 1 will be displayed as VPLS and VPLS 100 will be displayed as VPLS.

D.  

VPLS 1 will displayed VPLS and VPLS 100 will be displayed as uVPLS.

A.  

Theloopbackfuntionin802.1ag is an intrusive test that will stop customer data.

B.  

The loopback function of 802.lag is a non-intrusive "ping" sent from a MEP to a remote MEP or MIP.

C.  

The loopback function in 802.3ah is an intrusive test that will loop customer data.

D.  

The loopback function of 802.lag is an intrusive test that will "loop" all customer data back to the original sender.

A.  

TRUE

B.  

FALSE

A.  

TRUE

B.  

FALSE

A.  

TRUE

B.  

FALSE

A.  

It flushes the local FDB speeding recovery

B.  

It discards all packets in the queue and sends icmp-discad messages to the sender. The packets are re-transmitted resulting in no loss of data.

C.  

On failure, the PE sends an LDP flush-all-from-me message to all PE devices in the VPLS. This speeds convergence to the new topology.

D.  

It is not important to use send-flush-on-failure as Active/Standby signalling automatically converges the FDB in all VPLS instances

A.  

The PE sends an LDP control message that flushes all FDB entries in the VPLS instance.

B.  

The PE sends an LDP control message that flushes all FDB entries in the VPLS instance that are associated with the PE that detected the failure.

C.  

The PE flushes it's local FDB only.

D.  

The PE sends an oam service message that flushes all FDB entries in the VPLS instance.

A.  

1500

B.  

1514

C.  

1518

D.  

It depends on the access port MTU.

E.  

It depends on the network port MTU.

A.  

The lower the age-time, the greater the amount of flooding

B.  

The higher the age-time, the greater the amount of flooding.

C.  

The lower the age-time, the lower the amount of flooding.

D.  

There is no relationship between the age-time and the amount of flooding.

A.  

Spanning tree will be disabled on the SAP that the PVST BPDU was received on.

B.  

The SAP that the PVST BPDU was received on will be disabled to prevent loops.

C.  

The spanning tree encapsulation will be dynamically changed to PVST on the SAP the PVST BPDU was received on.

D.  

The PVST BPDU will be ignored and 802.1D 2004 BPDUs will continue to be transmitted on the SAP.

A.  

802.1D2004

B.  

802.1D 1998

C.  

comp-dot1w

D.  

PVST