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Endpoint Security Complete - R2 Technical Specialist Question and Answers

Endpoint Security Complete - R2 Technical Specialist

Last Update Oct 16, 2025
Total Questions : 150

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Questions 1

Which antimalware intensity level is defined by the following: "Blocks files that are most certainly bad or potentially bad files results in a comparable number of false positives and false negatives."

Options:

A.  

Level 6

B.  

Level 5

C.  

Level 2

D.  

Level 1

Discussion 0
Questions 2

Which two (2) scan range options are available to an administrator for locating unmanaged endpoints? (Select two)

Options:

A.  

Entire Network

B.  

IP range within the network

C.  

Subnet Range

D.  

IP range within the subnet

E.  

Entire Subnet

Discussion 0
Questions 3

When a SEPM is enrolled in ICDm, which policy can only be managed from the cloud?

Options:

A.  

LiveUpdate

B.  

Firewall

C.  

Network Intrusion Prevention

D.  

Intensive Protection

Discussion 0
Questions 4

What is the purpose of a Threat Defense for Active Directory Deceptive Account?

Options:

A.  

It prevents attackers from reading the contents of the Domain Admins Group.

B.  

It assigns a fake NTLM password hash value for users with an assigned AdminCount attribute.

C.  

It exposes attackers as they seek to gather credential information from workstation memory.

D.  

It acts as a honeypot to expose attackers as they attempt to build their AD treasure map

Discussion 0
Questions 5

What account type must the AD Gateway Service Account be assigned to the AD Gateway device for AD Synchronization to function correctly?

Options:

A.  

Local Standard

B.  

Local Administrator

C.  

Domain Administrator

D.  

Domain User

Discussion 0
Questions 6

Which term or expression is utilized when adversaries leverage existing tools in the environment?

Options:

A.  

opportunistic attack

B.  

file-less attack

C.  

script kiddies

D.  

living off the land

Discussion 0
Questions 7

How should an administrator set up an alert to be notified when manual remediation is needed on an endpoint?

Options:

A.  

Add a Single Risk Event notification and specify "Left Alone" for the action taken. Choose to log the notification and send an e-mail to the system administrators.

B.  

Add a Client security alert notification and specify "Left Alone" for the action taken. Choose to log the notification and send an e-mail to the system administrators.

C.  

Add a System event notification and specify "Left Alone" for the action taken. Choose to log the notification and send an e-mail to the system administrators.

D.  

Add a New risk detected notification and specify "Left Alone" for the action taken. Choose to log the notification and send an emailto the system administrators.

Discussion 0
Questions 8

An organization recently experienced an outbreak and is conducting a health check of the environment. What Protection Technology can the SEP team enable to control and monitor the behavior of applications?

Options:

A.  

Host Integrity

B.  

System Lockdown

C.  

Application Control

D.  

Behavior Monitoring (SONAR)

Discussion 0
Questions 9

Which two (2) security controls are utilized by an administrator to mitigate threats associated with the Discovery phase? (Select two)

Options:

A.  

Firewall

B.  

IPS

C.  

Antimalware

D.  

Blacklist

E.  

E.  

Device Control

Discussion 0
Questions 10

Which SES feature helps administrators apply policies based on specific endpoint profiles?

Options:

A.  

Policy Bundles

B.  

Device Profiles

C.  

Policy Groups

D.  

Device Groups

Discussion 0
Questions 11

Which of the following is a benefit of choosing a hybrid SES Complete architecture?

Options:

A.  

The ability to use the cloud EDR functionality

B.  

The ability to manage legacy clients running an embedded OS

C.  

The ability to manage Active Directory group structure without Azure

D.  

The ability to use Adaptive Protection features

Discussion 0
Questions 12

What type of condition must be included in a custom incident rule in order for it to be valid?

Options:

A.  

Good

B.  

Rich

C.  

Valid

D.  

Poor

Discussion 0
Questions 13

A user is unknowingly about to connect to a malicious website and download a known threat within a .rar file. All Symantec Endpoint Protection technologies are installed on the client's system.

In which feature set order must the threat pass through to successfully infect the system?

Options:

A.  

Download Insight, Firewall, IPS

B.  

Firewall, IPS, Download Insight

C.  

IPS, Firewall, Download Insight

D.  

Download Insight, IPS, Firewall

Discussion 0
Questions 14

An Incident Responder has determined that an endpoint is compromised by a malicious threat. What SEDR feature would be utilized first to contain the threat?

Options:

A.  

File Deletion

B.  

Incident Manager

C.  

Isolation

D.  

Endpoint Activity Recorder

Discussion 0
Questions 15

On which platform is LiveShell available?

Options:

A.  

Windows

B.  

All

C.  

Linux

D.  

Mac

Discussion 0
Questions 16

What must be entered before downloading a file from ICDm?

Options:

A.  

Name

B.  

Password

C.  

Hash

D.  

Date

Discussion 0
Questions 17

A Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP) administrator receives multiple reports that machines are experiencing performance issues. The administrator discovers that the reports happen at about the same time as the scheduled LiveUpdate.

Which setting should the SEP administrator configure to minimize I/O when LiveUpdate occurs?

Options:

A.  

Change the LiveUpdate schedule

B.  

Change the Administrator-defined scan schedule

C.  

Disable Allow user-defined scans to run when the scan author is logged off

D.  

Disable Run an Active Scan when new definitions arrive

Discussion 0
Questions 18

Which EDR feature is used to search for real-time indicators of compromise?

Options:

A.  

Domain search

B.  

Endpoint search

C.  

Cloud Database search

D.  

Device Group search

Discussion 0
Questions 19

An administrator is troubleshooting a Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP) replication.

Which component log should the administrator check to determine whether the communication between the two sites is working correctly?

Options:

A.  

Apache Web Server

B.  

Tomcat

C.  

SQL Server

D.  

Group Update Provider (GUP)

Discussion 0
Questions 20

Which Incident View widget shows the parent-child relationship of related security events?

Options:

A.  

The Incident Summary Widget

B.  

The Process Lineage Widget

C.  

The Events Widget

D.  

The Incident Graph Widget

Discussion 0
Questions 21

What does the MITRE ATT&CK Matrix consist of?

Options:

A.  

Problems and Solutions

B.  

Attackers and Techniques

C.  

Tactics and Techniques

D.  

Entities and Tactics

Discussion 0
Questions 22

Which two (2) instances could cause Symantec Endpoint Protection to be unable to remediate a file? (Select two.)

Options:

A.  

Another scan is in progress.

B.  

The detected file is in use.

C.  

There are insufficient file permissions.

D.  

The file is marked for deletion by Windows on restart.

E.  

The file has good reputation.

Discussion 0
Questions 23

What is the function of Symantec Insight?

Options:

A.  

Provides reputation ratings for structured data

B.  

Enhances the capability of Group Update Providers (GUP)

C.  

Increases the efficiency and effectiveness of LiveUpdate

D.  

Provides reputation ratings for binary executables

Discussion 0
Questions 24

What are the two (2) locations where an Incident Responder should gather data for an After Actions Report in SEDR? (Select two)

Options:

A.  

Incident Manager

B.  

Policies

C.  

Syslog

D.  

Action Manager

E.  

Endpoint Search

Discussion 0
Questions 25

Which option should an administrator utilize to temporarily or permanently block a file?

Options:

A.  

Delete

B.  

Hide

C.  

Encrypt

D.  

Deny List

Discussion 0
Questions 26

What should an administrator utilize to identify devices on a Mac?

Options:

A.  

UseDevViewerwhen the Device is connected.

B.  

Use Devicelnfo when the Device is connected.

C.  

UseDevice Managerwhen the Device is connected.

D.  

UseGatherSymantecInfowhen the Device is connected.

Discussion 0
Questions 27

In the virus and Spyware Protection policy, an administrator sets the First action to Clean risk and sets If first action fails to Delete risk. Which two (2) factors should the administrator consider? (Select two.)

Options:

A.  

The deleted file may still be in the Recycle Bin.

B.  

IT Analytics may keep a copy of the file for investigation.

C.  

False positives may delete legitimate files.

D.  

Insight may back up the file before sending it to Symantec.

E.  

A copy of the threat may still be in the quarantine.

Discussion 0
Questions 28

Which two (2) criteria are used by Symantec Insight to evaluate binary executables? (Select two.)

Options:

A.  

Sensitivity

B.  

Prevalence

C.  

Confidentiality

D.  

Content

E.  

Age

Discussion 0
Questions 29

Using a hybrid environment, if a SEPM-managed endpoint cannot connect to the SEPM, how quickly can an administrator receive a security alert if the endpoint is using a public hot-spot?

Options:

A.  

After a VPN is activated with Network Integrity

B.  

When the client connects to SEPM

C.  

At the next heartbeat

D.  

Immediately

Discussion 0
Questions 30

What EDR function minimizes the risk of an endpoint infecting other resources in the environment?

Options:

A.  

Quarantine

B.  

Block

C.  

Deny List

D.  

Firewall

Discussion 0
Questions 31

An organization identifies a threat in its environment and needs to limit the spread of the threat. How should the SEP Administrator block the threat using Application and Device Control?

Options:

A.  

Gather the MD5 hash of the file and create an Application Content Rule that blocks the file based on the file fingerprint.

B.  

Gather the process name of the file and create an Application Content Rule that blocks the file based on the device ID type.

C.  

Gather the MD5 hash of the file and create an Application Content Rule that uses regular expression matching.

D.  

Gather the MD5 hash of the file and create an Application Content Rule that blocks the file based on specific arguments.

Discussion 0
Questions 32

An organization identifies a threat in its environment and needs to limit the spread of the threat. How should the SEP Administrator block the threat using Application and Device Control?

Options:

A.  

Gather the MD5 hash of the file and create an Application Content Rule that blocks the file based on the file fingerprint.

B.  

Gather the process name of the file and create an Application Content Rule that blocks the file based on the device ID type.

C.  

Gather the MD5 hash of the file and create an Application Content Rule that uses regular expression matching.

D.  

Gather the MD5 hash of the file and create an Application Content Rule that blocks the file based on specific arguments.

Discussion 0
Questions 33

Which technology can prevent an unknown executable from being downloaded through a browser session?

Options:

A.  

Intrusion Prevention

B.  

Insight

C.  

Application Control

D.  

Advanced Machine Learning

Discussion 0
Questions 34

Which SES security control protects a user against data leakage if they encounter a man-in-the-middle attack?

Options:

A.  

IPv6 Tunneling

B.  

IPS

C.  

Firewall

D.  

VPN

Discussion 0
Questions 35

When a SEPM is enrolled in ICDm, which policy can only be managed from the cloud?

Options:

A.  

LiveUpdate

B.  

Firewall

C.  

Network Intrusion Prevention

D.  

Intensive Protection

Discussion 0
Questions 36

What type of Threat Defense for Active Directory alarms are displayed after domain misconfigurations or hidden backdoors are detected?

Options:

A.  

Computer Information Gathering

B.  

Pass-The-Ticket

C.  

Credential Theft

D.  

Dark Corners

Discussion 0
Questions 37

Which SES advanced feature detects malware by consulting a training model composed of known good and known bad files?

Options:

A.  

Signatures

B.  

Reputation

C.  

Artificial Intelligence

D.  

Advanced Machine Learning

Discussion 0
Questions 38

What protection technology should an administrator enable to prevent double executable file names of ransomware variants like Cryptolocker from running?

Options:

A.  

Download Insight

B.  

Intrusion Prevention System

C.  

SONAR

D.  

Memory Exploit Mitigation

Discussion 0
Questions 39

An Incident Responder has determined that an endpoint is compromised by a malicious threat. What SEDR feature would be utilized first to contain the threat?

Options:

A.  

File Deletion

B.  

Incident Manager

C.  

Isolation

D.  

Endpoint Activity Recorder

Discussion 0
Questions 40

An administrator changes the Virus and Spyware Protection policy for a specific group that disables Auto-Protect. The administrator assigns the policy and the client systems apply the corresponding policy serial number. Upon visual inspection of a physical client system, the policy serial number is correct. However, Auto-Protect is still enabled on the client system.

Which action should the administrator take to ensure that the desired setting is in place for the client?

Options:

A.  

Restart the client system

B.  

Run a command on the computer to Update Content

C.  

Enable the padlock next to the setting in the policy

D.  

Withdraw the Virus and Spyware Protection policy

Discussion 0
Questions 41

The LiveUpdate Download Schedule is set to the default on the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM).

How many content revisions must the SEPM keep to ensure clients that check in to the SEPM every 10 days receive xdelta content packages instead of full content packages?

Options:

A.  

10

B.  

20

C.  

30

D.  

60

Discussion 0
Questions 42

What must be entered before downloading a file from ICDm?

Options:

A.  

Name

B.  

Password

C.  

Hash

D.  

Date

Discussion 0
Questions 43

What permissions does the Security Analyst Role have?

Options:

A.  

Trigger dumps, get & quarantine files, enroll new sites

B.  

Search endpoints, trigger dumps, get & quarantine files

C.  

Trigger dumps, get & quarantine files, create device groups

D.  

Search endpoints, trigger dumps, create policies

Discussion 0
Questions 44

After several failed logon attempts, the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) has locked the default admin account. An administrator needs to make system changes as soon as possible to address an outbreak, but the admin account is the only account.

Which action should the administrator take to correct the problem with minimal impact on the existing environment?

Options:

A.  

Wait 15 minutes and attempt to log on again

B.  

Restore the SEPM from a backup

C.  

Run the Management Server and Configuration Wizard to reconfigure the server

D.  

Reinstall the SEPM

Discussion 0
Questions 45

Which Discover and Deploy process requires the LocalAccountTokenFilterPolicy value to be added to the Windows registry of endpoints, before the process begins?

Options:

A.  

Push Enrollment

B.  

Auto Discovery

C.  

Push Discovery

D.  

Device Enrollment

Discussion 0